dd Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

What does the SBAR method stand for?

A

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR is a communication framework used in healthcare settings to ensure effective and concise information transfer.

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2
Q

What are some vulnerable populations in the ED?

A
  • Children
  • Elderly
  • Abuse victims
  • Homeless/poor/uninsured
  • Mental health/substance abuse patients

These groups may have unique needs and considerations when receiving emergency care.

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3
Q

What are the core competencies for an ED RN?

A
  • Patient assessment
  • Priority setting
  • Critical thinking/decision-making
  • Time management
  • Multi-tasking
  • Documentation
  • Communication
  • Adaptability

Additional certifications may be sought, such as BLS, ACLS, PALS, and CEN.

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4
Q

What is the responsibility of triage in the ED?

A

Triage is the registered nurse’s responsibility in the ED and cannot be delegated to LPN.

Triage involves assessing patients to determine the priority of treatment based on the severity of their condition.

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5
Q

Define the levels of trauma centers.

A
  • Level I: Full spectrum of trauma services, usually urban, requires research
  • Level II: Community-based, provides care for most injuries
  • Level III: Stabilizes major injuries, transfers if necessary
  • Level IV: Rural, basic stabilization and transfer capabilities

Level I centers are typically associated with large teaching hospitals.

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6
Q

What are the categories of the mass casualty triage tagging system?

A
  • Emergent (Class I - Red Tag)
  • Urgent (Class II - Yellow Tag)
  • Nonurgent (Class III - Green Tag)
  • Expectant (Class IV - Black Tag)

This system helps prioritize treatment during mass casualty incidents.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: The START triage method is used to assess patients based on ______.

A

walking ability, breathing, circulation, and neurological status

START stands for Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment.

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8
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A
  • Flu-like symptoms
  • Faint/dizzy
  • Excessive sweating
  • Headache
  • Weakness
  • Cool/pale/clammy skin
  • Rapid/weak pulse
  • Muscle cramps
  • Nausea/Vomiting

Heat exhaustion can lead to severe dehydration and hyponatremia.

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9
Q

What is the treatment for heat stroke?

A
  • Call 911
  • Ensure patent airway
  • Remove from hot environment
  • Fan patient
  • Apply ice packs/cool water
  • Provide O2/intubation
  • IV cooled fluids

Heat stroke is a medical emergency with a high mortality rate if not treated quickly.

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10
Q

What are the risk factors for hypothermia?

A
  • Submersion in cold water
  • Blood loss
  • Immobility
  • Elderly
  • Alcohol consumption
  • Illicit substance use
  • Inadequate clothing/shelter

Hypothermia occurs when body temperature drops below 95°F (35°C).

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11
Q

What is the first priority in treating severe hypothermia?

A

Airway management and rewarming

Patients are not considered dead until they are ‘warm and dead’.

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12
Q

What are the grades of frostbite?

A
  • Grade I: Reddening of skin and swelling
  • Grade II: Fluid-filled blisters and partial-thickness skin necrosis
  • Grade III: Dark fluid blisters, full-thickness necrosis
  • Grade IV: Full-thickness injury, often requiring amputation

The severity of frostbite can range from superficial to full thickness.

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13
Q

What is the mnemonic for identifying poisonous coral snakes?

A

Red on yellow will kill a fellow, red on black venom lack

This mnemonic helps differentiate between harmful and non-harmful snakes.

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14
Q

What are the symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)?

A
  • Hypoxia
  • Headache
  • Nausea/Vomiting
  • Irritability
  • Apathy
  • Chills
  • Anorexia

AMS occurs due to exposure to low oxygen levels at high altitudes.

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15
Q

What is the recommended treatment for high-altitude cerebral edema?

A

Rapid descent, supplemental oxygen, and dexamethasone

Dexamethasone acts as an anti-inflammatory to reduce cerebral edema.

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16
Q

What are common symptoms of hypoxia?

A

H/A, N/V, irritability, apathy, chills, anorexia

H/A: Headache, N/V: Nausea/Vomiting

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17
Q

What is the initial treatment for high-altitude sickness?

A

Rest and acclimate at the current altitude, administer O2 if needed and dexamethasone

Dexamethasone helps to reduce cerebral edema by acting as an anti-inflammatory in the CNS.

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18
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of high-altitude cerebral edema?

A

Hypoxia, AMS symptoms, neurologic symptoms (seizures, confusion, increased ICP symptoms)

AMS: Acute Mountain Sickness, ICP: Intracranial Pressure

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19
Q

What medication is used to decrease cerebral edema in high-altitude cerebral edema?

A

Dexamethasone

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of high-altitude pulmonary edema?

A

Hypoxia, AMS symptoms, SOB/dyspnea, tachypnea, dry cough, cyanosis of lips/nail beds

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21
Q

What medications may prevent high-altitude pulmonary edema?

A

Sildenafil or tadalafil

These medications cause pulmonary vasodilation.

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22
Q

What is the leading cause of accidental death in the US?

A

Drowning

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23
Q

Name three prevention strategies for drowning.

A
  • Know how to swim
  • Don’t swim alone
  • Avoid alcohol/drugs when swimming/near water
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24
Q

What effect does saltwater have on the lungs when inhaled?

A

Draws protein-rich fluid into the vascular space of alveoli, causing pulmonary edema

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25
What is a protective effect of very cold water in drowning incidents?
Better chance of positive outcomes
26
What is the definition of shock?
A perfusion-oxygenation problem that may be related to fluid volume, decreased cardiac output, etc.
27
What characterizes the initiation stage of shock?
Typically unrecognized; hypoperfusion with a baseline MAP decrease by <10 mmHg
28
What happens during the compensatory stage of shock?
Initiation of compensatory mechanisms, increased HR and contractility, increased blood sugar, reabsorption of sodium and water, hyperventilation
29
What are signs of progressive shock?
* Cold and clammy skin * Increased HR but ineffective pumping * Decrease in MAP of >20 mmHg from baseline
30
What defines refractory shock?
Unresponsive to therapy; organ failure (MODS)
31
What is hypovolemic shock?
Occurs when too little circulating blood volume decreases AP, resulting in inadequate total body perfusion and gas exchange.
32
What are common causes of hypovolemic shock?
* Blood loss (internal or external) * Fluid loss (N/V, diarrhea, sweating, burns, third-spacing, diuresis)
33
What is the primary treatment for hypovolemic shock?
Maintain BP (vasopressors/fluid replacement), improve volume (RBCs, albumin), stop bleeding
34
What is cardiogenic shock?
Heart pump failure, often associated with MI, filling problems, or conduction problems
35
What is obstructive shock?
Obstruction of the cardiovascular system that may surround the heart or blood vessels.
36
What are the signs of Beck's triad?
* Muffled heart sounds * JVD * Low BP
37
What is distributive shock?
Blood volume distributed to interstitial tissues, blocking the distribution of O2 to the tissues.
38
What are the symptoms of shock?
* Cardiac: Increased HR, decreased BP, weak pulses * Respiratory: Increased RR, decreased PaO2 * Neuro: Restlessness, confusion * Renal: Decreased output * Skin: Pale to cyanosis * GI: Hypoactive bowel sounds
39
What lab findings are associated with shock?
* Elevated lactate * Decreased pH * Decreased PaO2 * Increased troponin * H&H changes depend on cause
40
What is the Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation?
4mL x Kg x TBSA% ## Footnote ½ of solution infused in the 1st 8 hours and next ½ over the next 16 hours.
41
What is the emergent phase of burn treatment?
From time of injury up to 48 hours; involves airway evaluation, fluid replacement, temperature regulation, pain management
42
What are the classifications of burns based on depth?
* Superficial (First degree) * Superficial partial-thickness (Second degree) * Deep partial-thickness (Second degree) * Full-thickness (Third degree) * Deep Full-thickness (Fourth degree)
43
What characterizes superficial burns?
Damage only the top layer of the skin (epidermis), healing in 3-6 days, dry, pink/red, painful
44
What defines deep full-thickness burns?
Damage down to bone, muscle, and tendon; healing may take weeks to months.
45
What is the significance of the Rule of Nines?
Determines TBSA involved, risk for shock and death, and whether to take the patient to a burn center.
46
What is carbon monoxide poisoning?
A colorless, odorless gas that replaces carbon dioxide in hemoglobin.
47
What are the signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?
* Cherry red skin * Headache * Breathlessness * Drowsiness * Altered mental state * Confusion * Decreased BP, increased HR
48
What is HIV?
Human Immunodeficiency Virus; a virus that attacks the immune system.
49
What is the consequence of untreated HIV?
It will eventually cause AIDS.
50
What cells does HIV primarily infect?
CD4 protein cells (T helper cells)
51
What is the result of HIV infection on the immune system?
It disrupts the immune system and diminishes the body's ability to fight infections.
52
What is AIDS?
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome; a condition that results from untreated HIV leading to immune deficiency.
53
What does AIDS stand for?
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
54
What type of cells does HIV primarily infect?
CD4 protein cells (T helper cells)
55
What is the consequence of HIV infection on the immune system?
It disrupts the immune system, making it ineffective.
56
During which period is the risk of HIV infection the highest?
The first couple of weeks after infection
57
What happens to the viral load and antibody levels during the acute HIV infection stage?
Viral load increases faster than the immune system can respond, resulting in no antibodies.
58
What are common symptoms experienced during Stage One (Acute infection) of HIV?
* Chill * Fever * Rash * Sore throat * Body aches * Sweating
59
What characterizes Stage Two (Clinical latency) of HIV?
Patients are asymptomatic but still infectious.
60
What is the CD4 cell count criterion for diagnosing AIDS?
Extremely low CD4 cells in blood (<200)
61
What are some complications associated with AIDS?
* Kaposi's sarcoma * GI issues (watery diarrhea, weight loss) * Neurological complications (encephalitis)
62
What are the most common methods of HIV transmission?
* Blood * Sexual/genital fluid * Breast milk * Vertical transmission (mom to child)
63
True or False: HIV can be contracted through hand shaking.
False
64
What is the only method of completely avoiding HIV transmission?
Abstinence
65
What is Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)?
A daily tablet given to high-risk groups to prevent HIV.
66
What should be monitored every 3 months for patients on PrEP?
Kidney function
67
What is Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)?
A treatment for occupational exposure to HIV, requiring drugs to be started within 2 hours.
68
What is the initial test used for HIV screening?
Rapid Antibody Test
69
What is the follow-up test if the initial HIV test is positive?
Western Blot Test
70
What are common infections associated with HIV complications?
* Pneumocystis pneumonia * Tuberculosis * Encephalitis/meningitis * Intestinal infections * Fungal infections (candida) * Herpes viruses
71
What psychological impacts can HIV have on individuals?
* Anxiety * Coping issues * Depression * Suicidal thoughts
72
What is cART in the context of HIV treatment?
Combination antiretroviral therapy
73
What dietary recommendations are made for HIV patients?
* Increased calories * Increased protein * Avoid dietary fat * Small frequent meals
74
What is the significance of maintaining a clean environment for hospitalized HIV patients?
To reduce the risk of infections due to reduced immunity.
75
Fill in the blank: The viral load takes off faster than the immune system can respond so there are no _______.
antibodies