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Unit 1 > DEA priority list > Flashcards

DEA priority list Flashcards

1
Q

Seatbelts must be worn by all passengers with the exception of infants less than what age

A

two years

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2
Q

What is the height of the lower limit of a low level airway

A

2200 feet AGL

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3
Q

Controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upward from the surface of the earth up to 3000 feet above airfield elevation unless otherwise specified

A

control zone

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4
Q

If you cross over an aerodrome en route to your destination, you should cross at not less than

A

2000 feet AGL

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5
Q

For how long does an interm C or R remain valid after a Canadian aircraft has changed ownership for the first time

A

To the last day of the three month period following the date of ownership change or until the aircraft is registered, whichever is sooner

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6
Q

For how long is a Category 3 medical valid for a 35 year old pilot

A

Sixty months

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7
Q

Category 3 medical valid for 41 year olds

A

2 years

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8
Q

Before taking off or attempting to take off ______ must be clean

  • all surfaces
  • critical surfaces
  • all windows
A

Critical surfaces

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9
Q

How much time must elapse following the use of alcohol before a pilot may pilot an aircraft

A

8 hours, now changed to 12 hours

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10
Q

difference between an ATC clearance and instruction

A

clearance authorization to continue under requested by pilot

instruction is an order that must be followed for safety reason

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11
Q

which aircraft shall give way when converging at approximately the same altitude

A

aircraft that has the other aircraft to the right

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12
Q

who is authorized to demand a license, permit, or certificate issued under the CAR for inspection

A

peace, customs, or immigration officer or authorized by the minister

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13
Q

How soon after landing shall a pilot file an arrival report with the ATC wen a VFR flight plan has been filed

A

Within the 1 hour

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14
Q

Airspace F can be advisory or restricted, what is the difference

A

advisory airspace is to advise pilots of heavy or unusual traffic

restricted airspace is designated airspace is designated because of aerial traffic, surface activity or to protect a ground installation

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15
Q

IFR flights only are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other.

A

Class A

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16
Q

IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other.

A

Class B

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17
Q

IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.

A

Class C.

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18
Q

IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with air traffic control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights, VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights.

A

Class D.

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19
Q

IFR and VFR flights are permitted, IFR flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical. Class __ shall not be used for control zones.

A

Class E.

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20
Q

IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested.

A

Class F.

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21
Q

IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested.

A

Class G

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22
Q

Basic VFR Weather Minimums

500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal

3 statute mile visibility

which classes

A

Class C

Class D

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23
Q

Basic VFR Weather Minimums

500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal

3 statute mile visibility
Less than 10,000 feet ASL

which classes

A

Class E

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24
Q

Basic VFR Weather Minimums

above 10,000 ASL what is vis and cloud distance requirement

which classes

A

5 statute miles

1,000 feet below
1,000 feet above
1 statute mile horizontal

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25
Q

Uncontrolled airspace is class

A

Class G

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26
Q

class A is in what altitude

A

18,000 ASL to 60,000 ASL

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27
Q

Class E is in what altitude

A

14,500 ASL and below

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28
Q

Class ___ airspace will always start at the ground and go up to 14,500′ msl as a maximum.

A

Class G

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29
Q

The ceiling of a Class ___ airspace should be 4,000 feet above the primary airport’s field elevation.

A

Class C

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30
Q

Class ___ airspace is generally airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet ASL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements.

A

Class B

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31
Q

Class __ airspace generally begins from 18,000 feet mean sea level up to and including 60,000 feet. Operations in Class ___ are generally conducted under Instrument Flight Rules and primarily used by higher performance aircraft, airline and cargo operators, etc.

A

Class A

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32
Q

In most areas, the Class __ airspace base is 1,200 feet AGL. In many other areas, the Class E airspace base is either the surface or 700 feet AGL. Some Class E airspace begins at an MSL altitude depicted on the charts, instead of an AGL altitude.

A

Class E

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33
Q

A, B, C phonetic

A

Alpha, Bravo, Charlie,

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34
Q

D, E, F Phonetic

A

Delta, Echo, Foxtrot,

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35
Q

G, H, I Phonetic

A

Golf, Hotel, India,

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36
Q

J, K, L Phonetic

A

Juliett, Kilo, Lima

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37
Q

M, N, O Phonetic

A

Mike, November, Oscar,

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38
Q

P, Q, R Phonetic

A

Papa, Quebec, Romeo

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39
Q

S, T, U Phonetic

A

Sierra, Tango, Uniform

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40
Q

V, W, X Phonetic

A

Victor, Whiskey, X-ray,

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41
Q

Y, Z Phonetic

A

Yankee, Zulu.

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42
Q

If you experience a communication failure in controlled airspace, you should

A

Turn transponder 7600

Speed up as you are now priority

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43
Q

Squak code hijack

A

7500

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44
Q

Squak code communication failure

A

7600

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45
Q

squak code for emergency

A

7700

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46
Q

Describe night as defined in Canadian Aviation Regulation

A

The period of time when center of the sun’s disk is more than 6 degree below the horizon

commencing one half hour after sunset and ending one half hour before sunrise

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47
Q

defined as the period between the start morning civil sunrise and the end of evening civil twilight. That being said the regs also refer to night time as between sunset and sunrise and 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise

A

An aviation “Day”

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48
Q

When entering a mandatory frequency (MF) or aerodrome traffic frequency (ATF) aerodrome, the madatory radio calls are

A

5 min prior to entering the 5 mile aerodrome zone

joining the circuit (usually downwind) turning final, down and clear, or as requested by ATC at a communication mandatory frequency (MF)

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49
Q

Where designated, a mandatory frequency (MF) or aerodrome traffic frequency (ATF) area is normally a circle with a __‑NM radius, capped at ______ ft above aerodrome elevation (AAE). All radio‑equipped aircraft must monitor a common designated frequency.

A

5 NM

3000 feet

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50
Q

What is the max time an unpressurised aircraft may be operated between 10,000 feet ASL and 13,000 ASL without a readily available supply of oxygen

A

30 min

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51
Q

At 14,000 ASL how much oxygen is required for unpressured plane

A

constant for pilot

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52
Q

Where can Special VFR flight be conducted

A

A control zone

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53
Q

When VFR, what height AGL must comply with the cruising altitude order

A

Above 3000 Feet AGL

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54
Q

On a magnetic course of 0-179 degrees shall fly at an odd thousand ft MSL altitude ________

A

+500 feet (e.g., 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500 ft); or.

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55
Q

On a magnetic course of 180-359 degrees shall fly at an even thousand ft MSL altitude

A

+500 feet (e.g., 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500 ft).

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56
Q

minimum flight visibility for VFR flight within a low level airway

A

3 miles vis

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57
Q

They are controlled airspace classified as Class B or Class E. Class B extends from 12,501ft or the MEA (whichever is highest), up to 17,999ft ASL. Class E extends from 2,200ft AGL up to the bottom of the Class B airspace.

what is this called

A

low-level airway?

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58
Q

What barometric pressure shall be set on the altimeter when flying in the Altimeter setting region

A

The current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight

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59
Q

The standard pressure region is airspace that includes the Northern Domestic Airspace and all airspace above 18,000ft within the Southern Domestic Airspace.

A

barometric pressure setting is 29.92 Hg

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60
Q

What number would be assigned to the east end of a runway with a magnetic heading of 265 degree

A

27

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61
Q

what number would be assigned to the north end of a runway with a magnetic heading of 181

A

18

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62
Q

what number would be assigned to the south end of a runway with a magnetic heading of 355

A

36

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63
Q

what number would be assigned to the west end of a runway with a magnetic heading of 87

A

9

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64
Q

You have not flown your privately registerd aeroplane for 5 years and 3 months, what must you do to regain currency

A

Get a check ride from an instructor

Write and pass the PSTAR

Get logbook certified

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65
Q

The ____, originally standing for Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations but now called Student Pilot Permit or Private Pilot Licence for Foreign and Military Applicants, Aviation Regulation Examination,

A

PSTAR

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66
Q

Appropriate cruising altitude is determined by

A

Magnetic track in the SDA

True track in the NDA

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67
Q

SDA is

A

Southern domestic Airspace

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68
Q

NDA is

A

Northern Domestic Airspace

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69
Q

Appropriate cruising altitude is determined by

A

Magnetic track in the SDA

True Track in the NDA

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70
Q

When can you test a 406 ELT to see if it is working

A

Never, leave it to the Avionics Technical on the annual certification

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71
Q

What is the difference between 121.5 and 406 ELT?

A

406 MHz ELTs have a more precise location accuracy than 121.5 MHz ELTs

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72
Q

What governs the amount of water vapor that a given volume of air can contain at a given pressure

A

The temperature

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73
Q

What is lapse rate

A

A lapse rate is the rate of temperature change with height.

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74
Q

The faster the temperature decreases with height, the ________ the lapse rate and the more unstable the atmosphere becomes. Values less than 5.5-6.0 degrees C/km represent stable conditions, while values near 9.5 degrees C/km are considered unstable.

A

“steeper”

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75
Q

What is the lapse rate at which the temperature decreases with each 1000 feet of height in Standard Atmospheric condition

A

1.98 C

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76
Q

types of lapse rate

A

the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the wet adiabatic lapse rate and the environmental lapse rate

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77
Q

What is the difference between dry adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate?

A

adiabatic lapse rate focuses on the temperature change of an air parcel in relation to altitude

environmental lapse rate focuses on the temperature change of the atmosphere in relation to altitude.

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78
Q

high to low, look out below refers to

A

true altitude is lower than indicated when flying into a low pressure area if no altimeter correction is applied

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79
Q

isotachs, what are they

A

a line on a map or chart connecting points of equal wind speed

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80
Q

isotachs vs isobars

A

isobars are lines of constant pressure; isotachs are lines of constant wind speed.

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81
Q

Closely spaced isobars indicated what

A

High Wind Speeds

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82
Q

At night as sides of the hills or mountains cool, the air in contact with them tends to become denser and blows down the slope into the valley. This wind is called

A

Katabatic Wind

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83
Q

local air current that blows up a hill or mountain slope facing the Sun. During the day, the Sun heats such a slope (and the air over it) faster than it does the adjacent atmosphere over a valley or a plain at the same altitude. This warming decreases the density of the air, causing it to rise.

A

Anabatic Wind

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84
Q

land breeze

A

at night cool land breeze goes over the warm sea

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85
Q

sea breeze

A

at morning the cool sea breeze moves over to the warmer land

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86
Q

Mountain breeze is

A

at night the air cools due to radiation heat and slips down the slopes. this is also a katabatic winds

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87
Q

Valley breeze

A

during the day, air gets heated and rises along the slopes of mountains and tends to precipitate in higher altitudes. A type of anabatic winds

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88
Q

Nimbostratus

A

Nimbostratus clouds are dark, grey, featureless layers of cloud, thick enough to block out the Sun and produce persistent rain.

low altitude layer like with rain

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89
Q

Stratus

A

Stratus clouds tend to be featureless, low altitude clouds that cover the sky in a blanket of white or grey.

Stratus clouds are low-level layers with a fairly uniform grey or white colour.

They are the lowest-lying cloud type and sometimes appear at the surface in the form of mist or fog.

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90
Q

Cumulonimbus

A

Cumulonimbus clouds are associated with extreme weather such as heavy torrential downpours, hail storms, lightning and even tornadoes.

If there is thunder, lightning or hail, the cloud is a cumulonimbus, rather than nimbostratus.

Top to bottom, tower anvil

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91
Q

Stratus Fructus

A

Fractus are accessory clouds, named for the type of cloud from which they were sheared.

The two principal forms are cumulus fractus and stratus fractus

Fractus clouds may develop into cumulus if the ground heats enough to start convection. Stratus fractus is distinguishable from cumulus fractus by its smaller vertical extent, darker color, and by the greater dispersion of its particles.

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92
Q

characteristics of cirrus

A

high level, multiple bands

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93
Q

characteristics of cirrocumulus

A

high level, puff balls

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94
Q

characteristics of cirrostratus

A

high level, multi layer lasagna

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95
Q

characteristics of altostratus

A

mid level, multi layer lasagna

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96
Q

characteristics of altocumulus

A

mid level, puff balls

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97
Q

characteristics of stratocumulus

A

low level, some layers

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98
Q

characteristics of cumulus

A

low level, big puff

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99
Q

Any clouds that form as a result will be thin and horizontal

A

cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus, and stratus clouds. All of these cloud types are associated with stable air.

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100
Q

Clouds formed by vertical currents in unstable air are

A

cumulus meaning accumulation or heap

they are characterized by their lumpy, billowy appearance.

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101
Q

What type of cloud and precipitation usually accompanies the passage of a warm front if the warm air is moist and unstable

A

Heap or vertical developments; shower

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102
Q

cold front advances on a warm front

A

when a cold air mass catches up with a warm air mass, the cold air slides under the warm air and pushes it upward.

As it rises, the warm air cools rapidly. gives rise to cumulonimbus clouds, often associated with heavy precipitation and storms.

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103
Q

warm front advances on a cold front

A

warm air advances slowly over cold front

cloud development due to frontal lifting of warm moist air, rain/snow

stratus like clouds advancing numbo - alto - cirro father it gets

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104
Q

Occulted front

A

Both fronts together, worse type of front, thick clouds, rain. thunder storm

cold front lifts warm front off the ground

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105
Q

Conditions for formation of thunderstorm

A

Relatively high humidity, steep lapse rate, lifting agent

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106
Q

Advection fog

A

moist air moving over a colder surface

water and land

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107
Q

Radiation fog

A

forms when all solar energy exits the earth and allows the temperature to meet up with the dew point.

usually patchy, tends to stay in one place and goes away the next day under the sun’s rays. Thicker instances of radiation fog tend to form in valleys or over calm bodies of water.

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108
Q

Steam fog

A

steam fog forms when water vapor is added to air
that is much colder, then condenses into fog. It is commonly seen as wisps of vapor emanating from the
surface of water. This fog is most common in middle latitudes near lakes and rivers during autumn and
early winter,

when waters are still warm and colder air masses prevail

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109
Q

Frontal fog

A

The fog is formed when warm, moist air overruns a shallow layer of cold air near the surface, as well as evaporation of warm precipitation into the cold air.

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110
Q

Ice fog

A

when the temperature falls at 32°F (0°C) or below. This fog produces drizzle and these tiny droplets freeze when they come into contact with an object. But at the same time there is sublimation going on

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111
Q

Advection fog

A

forms as warmer, moist air moves over a cold ground. The air is cooled to saturation by the cold from the ground below cooling the air above.

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112
Q

lower the temperature, the ____ moisture it can hold (relative humidity)

A

smaller, vice versa

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113
Q

when dew point and relative humidity is maxed

A

precipitation may occur

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114
Q

Hotter it is, the ____ moisture air can hold

A

more

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115
Q

Frost or ice on the wing will ___

A

Decrease lift, increase drag

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116
Q

clear ice

A

icing downflows from initial impact,

dense

super cooled water 2.0 to -10 degrees Cel

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117
Q

rime ice

A

-10 to -15 degrees cel

rough milky, not as dense

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118
Q

mixed ice

A

-15 to -20 degrees cel

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119
Q

order of atmosphere, low to high

A

troposphere
strato
meso
thermo
exo

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120
Q

troposphere is lower where

A

over the north Pole than the equator

ex…. highest mountain in Alaska closer to space than Himalayan is

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121
Q

Why wouldn’t you land under thunderstorm even if ceiling and visibility are favorable

A

high winds

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122
Q

TAF is

A

Terminal Area Forecast

good for 5 statute mile radius

good for 24 to 30 hours

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123
Q

Few
Scatter
Broken
Overcast

A

1/8 2/8 cover
2/8 4/8
5/8 - 7/8
8/8

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124
Q

TAF CYQR 182341Z
1900/1924 31018G28KT P6SM SKC
BECMG 1902/1904 32012KT
FM191000 34012KT P6SM SCT025
BECMG 1912/1914 33015KT
FM191800 34018G28KT P6SM SCT030
RMK NXT FCST BY 190600Z=

A
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125
Q

TAF
KOKC 051130Z 051212 14008KT 5SM BR BKN030 WS018/32030KT TEMPO 1316 1 1/2SM BR
FM1600 16010KT P6SM SKC BECMG 2224 20013G20KT 4SM SHRA OVC020
PROB40 0006 2SM TSRA OVC008CB=

A
  1. Routine terminal aerodrome forecast
  2. Oklahoma City, OK
  3. Forecast prepared on the 5th day at 1130 UTC (or Z)
  4. Forecast valid from the 5th day at 1200 UTC until 1200 UTC on the 6th
  5. Wind 140° true at 8 kt.
  6. Visibility 5 SM
  7. Visibility obscured by mist
  8. Ceiling 3,000 ft. broken
  9. Low-level wind shear at 1,800 ft., wind 320° true at 30 kt.
  10. Temporary (spoken as occasional) visibility 1½ SM in mist between 1300 UTC
    and 1600 UTC
  11. From (or after) 1600 UTC, wind 160° true at 10 kt., visibility more than
    6 SM, sky clear
  12. Becoming (gradual change) wind 200° true at 13 kt., gusts to 20 kt.,
    visibility 4 SM in moderate rain showers, ceiling 2,000 ft. overcast
    between 2200 UTC and 2400 UTC
  13. Probability (40% chance) between 0000 UTC and 0600 UTC of visibility 2 SM,
    thunderstorm, moderate rain, ceiling 800 ft. overcast, cumulonimbus clouds
    (The = sign indicates end of forecast.)
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126
Q

TAF KPIT 091730Z 0918/1024 15005KT 5SM HZ FEW020 WS010/31022KT
FM091930 30015G25KT 3SM SHRA OVC015
TEMPO 0920/0922 1/2SM +TSRA OVC008CB
FM100100 27008KT 5SM SHRA BKN020 OVC040
PROB30 1004/1007 1SM -RA BR
FM101015 18005KT 6SM -SHRA OVC020
BECMG 1013/1015 P6SM NSW SKC

A

https://www.weather.gov/media/okx/Aviation/TAF_Card.pdf

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127
Q

Weather qualifiers

A

-, nothing, +

light, normal, heavy

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128
Q

Weather description

BC
BL
DR
FZ
MI
PR
SH
TS

A

BC – Patches BL – Blowing DR – Drifting FZ – Freezing
MI – Shallow PR – Partial SH – Showers TS – Thunderstorm

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129
Q

Weather Phenomena
Precipitation

DZ
GR
GS
IC
PL
RA
SG
SN
UP

A

DZ – Drizzle GR – Hail GS – Small Hail/Snow Pellets
IC – Ice Crystals PL – Ice Pellets RA – Rain SG – Snow Grains
SN – Snow UP – Unknown Precipitation in automated observations

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130
Q

Weather Obscuration

BR
DU
FG
FU
HZ
PY
SA
VA

A

BR – Mist (≥5/8SM) DU – Widespread Dust FG – Fog (<5/8SM) FU – Smoke
HZ – Haze PY – Spray SA – Sand VA – Volcanic Ash

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131
Q

Weather other

DS
FC
+FC
PO
SQ
SS

A

DS – Dust Storm FC – Funnel Cloud +FC – Tornado or Waterspout
PO – Well developed dust or sand whirls SQ – Squall SS – Sandstorm

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132
Q

GFA is ____

Every ___

___ prior

____ daily

valid ___

____ IFR outlook

A

Graphic area forecast

6 hours

30 min

4 times

valid 12 hours

12 hour

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133
Q

GFA

ISOLD
OCNL
FRQ

LCL
PTCHY
FRQ

MECH
LLWS
LEE
MV
LLJ
CAT

6-12 AGL / ASL

11/10/2000

A

ISOLD – isolated – 25% or less
OCNL – occasional – Greater than 25% up to 50%
FRQ – Frequent – Greater than 50%

LCL – Local – 25% or less
PTCHY – patchy – Greater than 25% up to 50%
FRQ – Frequent – Greater than 50%

MECH – Mechanical turbulence
LLWS – Low level wind shear
LEE – Lee waves
MV – Mountain waves
LLJ – Low level jet
CAT – Clear air turbulence

600 - 1200 feet AGL/ASL

11 day, 10th month,

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134
Q

FM

BC

TEMP

A

From” is used when a rapid and significant change, usually within an hour, is expected.

“Becoming” is used when a gradual change in the weather is expected over a period of no more than 2 hours.

“Temporary” is used for temporary fluctuations of weather, expected to last for less than an hour.

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135
Q

METAR

OVC report from RMK BS / SC / FEW

ex

BS5 SC3 = _____

A

OVC 030

sky 5/8 obscured, ceiling 3000 feet overcast

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136
Q

barometrc pressure is also known as ___

and calculated like ____

A

SLP = sea level pressure = barometric pressure = hPa

207 = 20.7 = add 900 or 1000 to get closest to 1000

1020.7 is the right answer

137
Q

UPPER WIND AND TEMPERATURE FORCAST

CYQR 071530
BASED ON 1200 DATA VALID 080000 FOR USE 21-03

6000
2426-03

FORCAST FOR CALGARY AT 6000 FEET

VALID USE _____

A

072100Z T0 080300Z

240 DEGREE TRUE AT 26 KT -3 Celsius

138
Q

GFA only predicts weather below _____

A

24000 feet ASL unless stated

139
Q

Beware the spot elevation..

A

F dat Shi

dash circle of hell..

140
Q

In navigation, Total distance for trip is in ___

A

nautical miles

141
Q

1 NM is _____ mile

A

1.15 mile

142
Q

1 NM is ____ KM

A

1.852 km

143
Q

1 SM is ___ feet

A

5280 feet

144
Q

When calculating for true track from the VFR map.. make sure to draw line from end of runway to runway…

A

seriously…

145
Q

When calculating estimated ground speed, make sure to check wind speeds at the right elevation… ex.. at 3000.. vs 6000.. ei the cruising altitude..

A

ffffuuuuuuuuuuu

146
Q

TO CALCULATE ESTIMATED GROUND SPEED I NEED WHAT AND IN WHAT ORDER ON THE E6B

A

NEED
- TRUE TRACK
- TRUE AIRSPEED
- WIND DIRECTION
- WIND SPEED

  • SET CENTER ON 100
  • SET DIAL TO WIND DIRECTION
  • DONT MOVE IT YET, MARK WIND SPEED
  • NOW DIAL TO TRUE TRACK
  • NOW MOVE IT SO MARKER REACHES TRUE AIRSPEED
  • NOW CENTER WILL SAY GROUND SPEED
147
Q

CALCULATE ESTIMATED ENROUTE AIR TIME YOU NEED WHAT AND DO WHAT

TO USE E6B

A

I NEED ESTIMATED GROUND SPEED

THEN TAKE DISTANCE / ESTIMATED GROUN SPEED = ANSWER

OR

E6B
- LINE UP RATE WITH ESTIMATED GROUND SPEED
- OUTER LINE IS DISTANCE, INNER LINE IS TIME
- DONE MF

148
Q

when asking for radio frequency to be requested at take-off clearance, check _______ and is in what frequency

A

CFS indication TOWER (TWR)

MHz

149
Q

WHAT TF IS A VOR

A

VOR stands for very high frequency omni-directional range and is a navigation aid (navaid). At the most simple level, a VOR is a type of navigation system for aircraft, using very high frequency radio signals emitted by radio beacons.

IT IS A TOWER SURROUNDER BY A RING AND LOOKS LIKE LIKE A HEXAGON

150
Q

3 TYPES OF VOR

A

VORTAC

VOR

VOR-DME

151
Q

Frequency for air-to-air in the SDA

A

For air-to-air communications between pilots within Canadian Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA), the correct frequency to use is 122.75 MHz

152
Q

Frequency for air-to-air in the NDA

A

in the Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) and the NAT, the frequency allocated by ICAO is 123.45 MHz.

153
Q

International Aeronautical Emergency Frequency

A

121.5 MHz

154
Q

Communication zone with no published frequency

A

126.7 MHz

155
Q

122.75 MHz

A

Frequency for air-to-air in the SDA

156
Q

123.45 MHz.

A

Frequency for air-to-air in the NDA

157
Q

121.5 MHz

A

International Aeronautical Emergency Frequency

158
Q

126.7 MHz

A

Communication zone with no published frequency

159
Q

Whenever practicable, pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor what frequency

A

126.7 MHz.

160
Q

northwestern Ontario use _____ for en route use instead of 126.7 MHz.

A

122.8 MHz

161
Q

It works on frequencies between 108.00 and 117.95 MHz.

A

VOR frequency range

162
Q

VOR frequency ranges are

A

108.00 - 117.95 MHz

163
Q

What is TACAN

A

TACtical Air Navigation, a military system that is similar to VOR but with higher accuracy. It works on frequencies between 960 and 1215 MHz.

164
Q

What are the frequency range of TACAN

A

960 to 1215 MHz

165
Q

what is VORTAC

A

VOR is for VHF Omni directional range

TAC is for Tactical Air Navigation

A VORTAC combines the VOR and TACAN in one location. Civil users will use the VOR signals which have the same performance as ordinary VOR signals. In addition they use the DME from the TACAN. Effectively a VORTAC is like a VOR/DME.

166
Q

VOR/DME is

A

VOR is for VHF Omnidirectional Range

DME is part of TAC, which stands for Distance Measuring Equipment

167
Q

VFR minimum fuel requirement

A

Pilots must plan for enough fuel to fly to the point of intended landing, considering wind and weather, and 30 minutes (day), or 45 minutes (night) after that.

168
Q

VOR looks like

A

Pentagon

169
Q

VORTAC

A

Pentagon with 3 blocks

170
Q

VOR/DME

A

Pentagon inside a square

171
Q

Minimum fuel requirement calculation if given..

A

half of average fuel burn rate GPH…

172
Q

Decimal hour conversion
0.10
0.20
0.30
0.40
0.50
0.60
0.70
0.80
0.90

A

Min
6
12
18
24
30
36
42
48
52

173
Q

Aviation drift lines are how many degree

A

10 degree from arrival points

174
Q

Double Drift method

A
  • note the time in flight
  • note how many degrees off
    reverse degrees off by 2
  • fly in reversed direction same amount of time you’ve been flying
  • end up in original track
  • neutralize and follow original track
175
Q

Opening and closing method

A
  • take note of where you are
  • draw line from where you are to where your destination is
  • check how many degrees you need to fly to reach directly to destination
  • note what turn you need to do, left or right..
176
Q

1 and 60 method

A
  • note distance from starting point
  • note distance away from destination
  • note distance away from original track
  • distance from starting point divided by 60 x distance away from original track
  • distance from ending point divided by 60 x distance away from original track
  • add both
  • correction angle
  • gives heading correction angle
177
Q

Public Services and Services are different in the CFS why..

A

Public Services refer to things not in the aerodrome

Services are those that are

177
Q

To check elevation, refer to CFS REF and also…

A

its in ASL

178
Q

PF abbreviations
- B
- C
- D
1,2,3,4,5,6

A

B These facilities are on the aerodrome.
C These facilities exist within 5 nm of aerodrome.
D These facilities exist within 30nm of aerodrome.
1 Telephone.
2 Food.
3 Taxi.
4 Medical facilities (minimum available is that provided by a Registered nurse).
5 Accommodation (rental).
6 Car rental.

179
Q

What is TAS

A

True Air Speed

180
Q

Calculate TAS using EB6 steps

A
  • note pressure altitude bottom right gauge
  • note temperature in top right gauge
  • line up both gauges
  • inner line is indicated airspeed (IAS)
  • outside line is TAS
181
Q

When calculating climb speed, make sure to take note of what

A

ASL

take away the current elevation from destination altitude

182
Q

In the CFS REF
- A5000
- CAP
- RCAP
- OC

A
  • Aeronautical charts on which the
    aerodrome and/or its Nav Aid are
    or will be depicted.

CAP - Location has an IFR
approach published in
the Canada Air Pilot

RCAP - Location has a
Restricted Instrument
Approach (RIP)
published in the
Restricted Canada Air
Pilot (RCAP)

OC - Obstacle charts when available,
Aerodrome Obstacle Charts ICAO
Type A provide the data necessary
to enable an operator to comply
with the operating limitations of
ICAO Annex 6 Chapter 5.

183
Q

On the map, 628 🄻 50A123.0

what do they mean

A

628 - elevation in ASL
🄻 - Arcal Lighting
50 - 5000 Feet of runway
123.0 Unicom Frequency

UNICOM is a nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which may provide airport information at public use airports where there is no tower or FSS. On pilot request, UNICOM stations may provide pilots with weather information, wind direction, the recommended runway, or other necessary information.

184
Q

When decending, at what hight ASL crossing field to observe wind sock

A

2200 ASL

185
Q

How soon to notify ATC of flight plan deviation

A

As soon as practical

186
Q

1 US Gallon is how many litre

A

3.785 litre

187
Q

1 lit

A

0.264 gal

188
Q

If weight is increased, how is Vs affected

A

The indicated stall speed would be higher

189
Q

What is Vs

A

VS means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.

190
Q

What is VSO

A

VS0 means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

191
Q

What is VS1

A

VS1 means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration.

192
Q

What is Vfe

A

The Top of the White Arc depicts the Maximum Flap Extended Speed. Velocity with Flaps Extended

193
Q

What is included in the White Arc of the airspeed indicator

A

Vs, VSO, VFE

194
Q

What Velocities are included in the green arc

A

Vs1 or Vs, Vno

195
Q

What is Vno

A

Velocity at normal operation, don’t exceed unless in smooth air

196
Q

Characteristics of Yellow Arc

A

only operate in smooth air,

197
Q

Vne is

A

Velocity Never Exceed

198
Q

How does airframe icing affect Vs

A

it would cause an increase in the stall speed because of the rougher surface, increased weight and change of airfoil shape

199
Q

What would cause an increase in the stall speed because of the rougher surface, and increased weight and change of airfoil shape

A

airframe icing

200
Q

Effect of Temperature on Take-Off Climb chart is straight forward

A

its also given

201
Q

Under hot ambient condition, how is takeoff distance and climb rate affected

A

Under hot ambient conditions, takeoff distances will be increased and climb rates will be decreased.

202
Q

Affects of rain on the windscreen of an airplane have on the appearance of summits of hills, etc

A

They appear lower than reality

203
Q

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to do what

A

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move about when stared at for many seconds. The disoriented pilot could lose control of the aircraft in attempting to align it with the false movements of this light.

204
Q

What is a black hole approach

A

A black-hole approach occurs when the landing is made from over water or non-lighted terrain where the runway lights are the only
source of light. Without peripheral visual cues to help, orientation is difficult. The runway can seem out of position (down-sloping or
up-sloping) and in the worst case, results in landing short of the runway.

205
Q

_______ occurs when the landing is made from over water or non-lighted terrain where the runway lights are the only
source of light. Without peripheral visual cues to help, orientation is difficult. The runway can seem out of position (down-sloping or
up-sloping) and in the worst case, results in landing short of the runway.

A

Black Hole approach

206
Q

Effects of Haze during flight

A

atmospheric haze can create an illusion of being at a greater distance and height from the runway. As a result, the pilot will have a tendency to be low on the approach. A. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.

207
Q

______ can create an illusion of being at a greater distance and height from the runway. As a result, the pilot will have a tendency to be low on the approach. A. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.

A

Effects of Haze

208
Q

According to PPL examiners, early signs of carbon monoxide poisoning is

A

Sluggishnss and warmth

209
Q

Effects of Hypoxia

A

euphoric feeling
blue fingertips and lips
slurring of speech
headache
slowed response time
Lightheaded or dizzy sensation
Tingling in fingers and toes

209
Q

4 types of Hypoxia

A

Hypoxic hypoxia
Hypemic hypoxia
Stagnant hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia

210
Q

Histotoxic hypoxia

A

The inability of the tissue to use the oxygen in the blood, due to drugs or alcohol

211
Q

The inability of the tissue to use the oxygen in the blood, due to drugs or alcohol

A

Histotoxic hypoxia

212
Q

Stagnant hypoxia

A

Stagnant means the blood is not flowing and transporting oxygen, an example of this could be high G-forces

213
Q

Stagnant means the blood is not flowing and transporting oxygen, an example of this could be high G-forces

A

Stagnant hypoxia

214
Q

Hypemic hypoxia

A

Blood not able to bind to and transport oxygen from lungs to the rest of your body. Most commonly CO poisoning for pilots

215
Q

Blood not able to bind to and transport oxygen from lungs to the rest of your body. Most commonly CO poisoning for pilots

A

Hypemic hypoxia

216
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen available to the lungs

217
Q

Lack of oxygen available to the lungs

A

Hypoxic hypoxia

218
Q

at 20,000 ASL useful consciousness is about ____

A

30 min

219
Q

Visual impairment
Unconsciousness
Lightheaded or dizzy sensation
Tingling sensations
Hot and cold sensations
Muscle spasms

example of what

A

Hyperventilation

220
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Visual impairment
Unconsciousness
Lightheaded or dizzy sensation
Tingling sensations
Hot and cold sensations
Muscle spasms

221
Q

Signs: of CO poisoning are headache, blurred vision, dizziness, drowsiness, and/or loss of muscle power.

A

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

222
Q

how long to wait to fly after scuba diving

A

12 hours after diving that does not require controlled ascent (nondecompression stop diving)

24 hours after diving that does require controlled ascent (decompression stop diving).

223
Q

A major sign of early hypoxia according to the PPl examiners is

A

A feeling of well being

224
Q

During engine run up when no carburetor icing is present, what effect would the application of full carburetor heat have on RPM

A

A slight drop in rpm due to warm air causing less combustion

225
Q

Operate carb heat only in what velocity

A

at the green arc

226
Q

warm air is ____ dense than cold air

A

less dense

227
Q

What is Magnetic Deviation

A

instruments in your airplane cause interference that affects your compass, and that interference is called deviation.

228
Q

What is Magnetic Variation

A

Variation is the difference between true north and magnetic north. Isogonic lines are drawn on your sectional charts to show different lines of magnetic variation to help with planning your magnetic heading.

229
Q

How to find magnetic course

A

To find your magnetic course (in no wind, the heading you see on your compass), you’ll either subtract easterly variation or add westerly variation. A great memory tool for this is “East is least, West is best.”

In this example, the variation is 14 degrees East, so you’d subtract 14 degrees from your true course to get your magnetic course.

230
Q

What is Magnetic Dip

A

Magnetic dip creates the most substantial errors in a compass. As you get closer to the North or South Pole, magnetic flux lines point downwards towards the poles, and your compass magnets dip towards the low side of a turn.

231
Q

What happens at Magnetic Dip

A

shifts the center of gravity of the compass card, causing temporary inaccurate readings when turning north or south. As the aircraft turns, the force that results from the magnetic dip causes the float assembly to swing in the same direction that the float turns.

232
Q

Acceleration And Deceleration Error

A

Another major problem with magnetic compasses in airplanes is acceleration error. In the Northern Hemisphere, as you accelerate, your compass will show a turn to the North. And as you decelerate, your compass will show a turn to the South. When the speed stabilizes, the compass returns to normal. This error is greatest on East or West headings.

233
Q

At the NDA, Acceleration causes compass to swing where

A

compass turns north

234
Q

At the NDA, Deceleration causes compass to swing where

A

compass turns south

235
Q

During turns, compass swings where

A

Northerly heading, the compass briefly indicates a turn in the opposite direction

Southerly heading, the compass indicates a turn in the correct direction, but at a faster rate than is actually being turned.

236
Q

Affects of vertical component of earth’s magnetic field have on the compass

A

Magnetic dip

237
Q

in the NDA, acceleration in the westerly heading causes compass to

A

swing north

238
Q

What causes the true airspeed of an aero plane to differ from its indicated airspeed

A

Instrument and position error and a change in density altitude

239
Q

What is position error

A

The residual error at any given angle of attack is called the position error.

ex. during skids

240
Q

if needle is right of center an the ball is centered, what is happening

A

coordinated right turn

241
Q

if needle is right of center an the ball is opposite, what is happening

A

A slip

242
Q

What is skid

A

To much rudder during a turn

243
Q

What is slip

A

Aircraft moves sideways and forward, banking but not turning

244
Q

Parasite Drag is

A

Parasite drag is one of the two main categories of drag. It is caused by something about the aircraft’s materials, shape, or construction type that generates resistance. Parasite drag is unrelated to lift and can come in the form of skin friction drag, form drag, or interference drag.

245
Q

______ is one of the two main categories of drag. It is caused by something about the aircraft’s materials, shape, or construction type that generates resistance. _____ is unrelated to lift and can come in the form of skin friction drag, form drag, or interference drag.

A

Parasite Drag

246
Q

Skin Friction Drag is

A

Skin friction drag is a type of parasite drag caused by rough spots on the skin of the plane. Anything that takes away from a clean, smooth, perfectly aerodynamic surface causes skin friction drag.

247
Q

______ is a type of parasite drag caused by rough spots on the skin of the plane. Anything that takes away from a clean, smooth, perfectly aerodynamic surface causes skin friction drag.

A

Skin Friction Drag

248
Q

Form Drag / Pressure Drag is

A

Form drag or pressure drag is a type of parasite drag caused simply by the overall shape of the plane and how that shape interacts with the airflow. Some shapes are more aerodynamic than others, and the more cleanly the plane slices through the air, the less drag it will create.

249
Q

________ is a type of parasite drag caused simply by the overall shape of the plane and how that shape interacts with the airflow. Some shapes are more aerodynamic than others, and the more cleanly the plane slices through the air, the less drag it will create.

A

Form Drag / Pressure Drag

250
Q

Interference Drag is

A

As air flows around our aircraft, we often think about how it tracks over the wings but forget that it is also interacting with other components like the fuselage, wing struts, landing gear struts, and more

251
Q

As air flows around our aircraft, we often think about how it tracks over the wings but forget that it is also interacting with other components like the fuselage, wing struts, landing gear struts, and more

A

Interference Drag

252
Q

______ a type of drag that is produced as a byproduct of lift.

A

induced drag

253
Q

induced drag

A

a type of drag that is produced as a byproduct of lift.

254
Q

relative wind is

A

the direction of movement of the atmosphere relative to an aircraft or an airfoil. It is opposite to the direction of movement of the aircraft or airfoil relative to the atmosphere.

255
Q

the direction of movement of the atmosphere relative to an aircraft or an airfoil. It is opposite to the direction of movement of the aircraft or airfoil relative to the atmosphere.

A

relative wind

256
Q

Relationship of induced drag and airspeed

A

As airspeed increases, induced drag decreases.. since its a by product of life..

257
Q

Relationship of parasite drag and airspeed

A

An airspeed increase, parasite increases.

258
Q

When angle of attack is increases, what happens to lift and drag

A

lift decreases and drag increases

259
Q

Stall happens at what angle of attack

A

15 degrees

260
Q

To achieve the best gliding speed, life and drag ratio should be ____

A

Best glide ratio is obtained at the best life to drag ratio

261
Q

When landing in gusty winds, what should you do

A

When you’re dealing with a gusty day, the FAA recommends that you add half the gust factor to your final approach speed. For example, if the winds are reported at 18 knots, gusting 30 knots, it means you have a gust factor of 12 knots (30-18 = 12).

262
Q

According to Pilot instructor, if aft center of gravity is present during a spin, the plane _____

A

Spins flatter and faster

263
Q

If plane has an Aft center of gravity, what happens

A

An aircraft with an aft CG is less stable. While the aircraft is more responsive to control inputs (more maneuverable), this comes with a trade-off. Recovering from a stall or spin is more challenging due to reduced stability.

264
Q

To calculate pressure altitude with a formula you need what

A

Altimeter setting and altitude

265
Q

Pressure altitude formula is

A

((29.92 - Altimeter setting) x 1000) + elevation = true altitude

266
Q

Density altitude calculation needs 2 things

A

Pressure altitude in feet

and Out side temperature

USE EB6 RIGHT boxes

267
Q

Formula for DA is

A

PA + (OAT - ISA) = DA

268
Q

For ground roll calculations things to note

A
  • temp
  • wind speed and direction, add or subtract depending on direction
  • Pressure altitude
  • type runway, add depending on type
  • type of
269
Q

hyperventilation is caused by

A

deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood

270
Q

As an aircraft climbs to a higher altitude, what happens to TAS, IAS, and CAS

A

The difference between the true air speed and the indicated air speed will increase and true air speed will remain constant with Calibrated air speed

Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is the IAS corrected for instrument and position error.

271
Q

Ground effect

A

Ground effect basically comes down to how big your wingtip vortices are, and how much downwash they’re creating.

less incuded drag, creating cushioning.

272
Q

Types of turning tendencies

A

Torque Reaction

Spiraling Slipstream

P-factor

Gyroscopic precession

273
Q

Torque tendency

A

As the propeller spins clockwise (as viewed from the pilot seat), the airplane experiences a rotating force in the opposite direction.

Torque increases with an increase in power.

274
Q

As the propeller spins clockwise (as viewed from the pilot seat), the airplane experiences a rotating force in the opposite direction.

Torque increases with an increase in power.

A

Torque tendency

275
Q

Spiraling slipstream

A

The propeller creates a spiral of air that spins about the airplane, eventually contacting the left side of the rudder. As power is increased and the propeller spins faster, the force on the rudder is stronger, causing more of a yawing motion to the left.

276
Q

The propeller creates a spiral of air that spins about the airplane, eventually contacting the left side of the rudder. As power is increased and the propeller spins faster, the force on the rudder is stronger, causing more of a yawing motion to the left.

A

Spiraling slipstream

277
Q

P-factor

A

When the airplane is flying level, both blades of the propeller have the same angle of attack. But in a climb, the descending blade (right on American-made airplanes) has a higher angle of attack, which means it creates more lift. And that yaws the aircraft to the left. P-factor is especially noticeable at high power settings with a high nose attitude.

278
Q

When the airplane is flying level, both blades of the propeller have the same angle of attack. But in a climb, the descending blade (right on American-made airplanes) has a higher angle of attack, which means it creates more lift. And that yaws the aircraft to the left. P-factor is especially noticeable at high power settings with a high nose attitude.

A

P-factor

279
Q

Gyroscopic precession

A

As a rapidly rotating disc, the propeller acts like a gyroscope. When a tailwheel airplane is on the takeoff roll and the tail comes up, the propeller disc rotates forward. That’s akin to someone pushing on the top of the disc. The force results 90 degrees ahead, or on the right side, pushing the nose left.

280
Q

As a rapidly rotating disc, the propeller acts like a gyroscope. When a tailwheel airplane is on the takeoff roll and the tail comes up, the propeller disc rotates forward. That’s akin to someone pushing on the top of the disc. The force results 90 degrees ahead, or on the right side, pushing the nose left.

A

Gyroscopic precession

281
Q

What is the Angle of Attack?

A

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind

282
Q

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind

A

Angle of Attack

283
Q

CTAF on the sectional map indicates what

A

The dark blue circle with a ‘C’ means that the airport uses the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF), which allows passing pilots to self-announce their location and intention. This implies that, although the airport has a control tower, it only operates part-time.

284
Q

the *L in the sectional map airport description

A

It is lighted,
which is denoted by the L, the star in front of it means the lighting operations are limited so
check the A/FD

285
Q

To get crosswind component you need to what

A
  • take the difference between runway and wind direction
  • apply difference to the chart
  • on that line, align wind speeds on the curved vertical chart with the difference line
  • on the horizontal line will give you the crosswind component
286
Q

You just passed your checkride and received your PPL. When will you need to do your first flight review to continue to act as PIC?

A

Within 24 calendar months

287
Q

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

A

Magnetic Variation

288
Q

______ a compass error caused by local magnetic fields.

A

Magnetic Deviation

289
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required in order to operate in Class B airspace?

A

Private pilot certificate or Student pilot certificate with appropriate endorsement

290
Q

You are flying through Class D airspace at 3,000’ AGL. What are the minimum visibility requirements?

A

3 SM

291
Q

To act as Pilot in Command carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and landings in the same class, category, and type (if required) in the preceding

A

to act as PIC carrying passengers you must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the past 90 days.

292
Q

The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB report within how many days?

A

the NTSB requires the pilot of an aircraft involved in an accident to file an NTSB report within 10 days.

293
Q

A 26 year old female is issued a Third-Class Medical Certificate on August 15th. How long will her medical allow her to exercise the privileges of her Private Pilot Certificate?

A

a third class medical certificate expires the “60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate”.

294
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?
- glider
- single engine plane
- airship

A

glider

295
Q

How often must your transponder be tested and inspected?

A

the transponder needs to be inspected within the preceding 24 months of your flight.

296
Q

Filling the tanks after the last flight of the day is a good idea because…

A

Filling the tanks at the end of the day is common practice so you are not leaving room for moisture condensation which could result in water at the bottom of your tanks.

297
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally show a turn toward the north if.
- A right turn is entered from an east heading
- A left turn is entered from a west heading
- An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading

A

The acceleration/deceleration compass error states that if you accelerate while on a east or west heading, the weight in the compass will lag and the card will rotate towards the North.

298
Q

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing if there’s a right quartering tailwind (R) ?

A

Right aileron down, elevator down

The whole point of aileron deflection while taxiing is to prevent the wind from picking up a wing or the tail so to remedy that during a right quartering tailwind, the pilot will need to put the right aileron down and the elevator down.

299
Q

You fly from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting your altimeter. Your altimeter will read…

A

Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

When flying from a high pressure area to a low pressure area your aircraft’s altitude will decrease slowly while the altimeter reading will remain constant, therefore your altimeter is indicating higher than your aircrafts actual altitude.

300
Q

VOR stations have outer lines with their compass coordinates.. so..

A

no need to calculate is manually

301
Q

What are the 3 ingredients needed in order for a thunderstorm to develop?

A

Moisture, Lifting Mechanism, and Instability

302
Q

What action should a pilot take before entering Class B airspace?

A

Contact tower to get a clearance to enter the airspace

303
Q

Canada. In Canada, the radio frequencies assigned for UNICOM are _____

A

122.700 MHz. 122.725 MHz.

304
Q

122.700 MHz. 122.725 MHz.

A

Canada. In Canada, the radio frequencies assigned for UNICOM

305
Q

Moisture, Lifting Mechanism, and Instability

A

What are the 3 ingredients needed in order for a thunderstorm to develop?

306
Q

Contact tower to get a clearance to enter the airspace when entering what airspace

A

Class B

307
Q

What is the lowest height for VFR flights over congested areas?

A

1,000 feet

over a congested area an aircraft must remain 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

308
Q

Vno is _____

A

Normal operation range but more specifically

The normal maximum structural cruising speed which should only be exceeded in exceptional circumstances and in smooth air

309
Q

What is PIC

A

Pilot in Command

310
Q

When carrying passengers what obligation does the PIC have when it comes to the use of safety belts?

A

Must brief their passengers on the use of safety belts and to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing

311
Q

The four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are…

A

The four fundamentals of maneuvering an aircraft are, as defined in the Airplane Flying Handbook, Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents

312
Q

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is when

A

the greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow since a “dirty” configured plane hastens wake decay.

313
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitude of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day flight is …

A

the minimum visibility requirements in uncontrolled airspace at an altitude of more than 1,200’ AGL and less than 10,000’ MSL is 1 SM.

314
Q

The pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of…

A

the Pilot in Command is responsible for giving a pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seatbelts for a flight.

315
Q

What action should be taken by the pilot when operating VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A

VFR traffic can fly through an MOA without clearance but should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

316
Q

The pilot loses communications while in the air. What squawk code should be selected?

A

Squawk code for loss of communications is 7600. Squawk codes 7500 and 7700 are for hijacking and emergencies, respectively.

317
Q

How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 144 knots?

A

144/60 = 2.4

2.4 * 7.5 = 18

318
Q

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A

Maneuvering speed is not depicted on the airspeed indicator as it changes with the weight of the aircraft. The red line on the top of the airspeed indicator indicates the never exceed speed. The maximum structural cruising speed is the top of the green arc on the airspeed indicator.

319
Q

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A

One purpose of wing flaps is to enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

Trim is what relieves pilots of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls. Flaps do not decrease the wing area.

320
Q

OBS is

A

it’s a selection knob in aircraft used in navigation instruments, namely the VOR or VHF Omnidirectional Range. This type of beacon uses concentrated radio waves to send out 360 different beams from its location.

321
Q

How to track to/from a VOR station

A

Tune and identify the radial, center needle, which give you FROM indication

top number indicated radial

322
Q

tracking a radial FROM means you are at what position

A

Same side as the radial line

323
Q

tracking a radial TO means you are at what position

A

Opposite side of the radial line

324
Q

Who to call when you have a weather update during flight

A

FSS

325
Q

How do you join the circuit at an uncontrolled airport?

A

Where no MF procedures are in effect, aircraft should approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side. Alternatively, once the pilot has ascertained without any doubt that there will be no conflict with other traffic entering the circuit or established within it, the pilot may join the circuit on the downwind leg.

altitude taken must be 500 to 1000 feet above aerodrome traffic circuit altitude (take 1500ft AGL as traffic circuit altitude if there is no published pattern altitude).

326
Q

When joining circuit, after initial arrival report, while continuous watch of ATF, also _____

A

report joining the circuit pattern, When on final approach, and when clear of runway

327
Q

CDI is

A

Course Deviation Indicator usually used during VOR Navigation

328
Q

If you were heading towards a VOR directly west, what would show on the indicator

A

OBS 090, TO, T/B Centered

329
Q

To find minimum fuel required for a trip you need _____

A
  • Gal for taxi and runup
  • Gal for climb
  • Distance / True airspeed x ghp
  • half of minimum fuel requirement
330
Q

To find ground speed given only distance , minutes it took

A

(Distance taken / minutes taken ) x 60 min

331
Q

CFS terms
- OPR
- PF
- CUST
- FLT PLN
- SERVICES
- RWY DATA
- LIGHTING
- COMM
- NAV
- PRO
- CAUTION

A
  • OPR
    operator of aerodrome with contact phone number, cert, public or private
  • PF
    Public Facilities
  • CUST
    customs available at that aerodrome
  • FLT PLN
    Flight planning information regarding weather and flight services
  • SERVICES
    Services available at the aerodrome such as fuel, oil, storage shown in coded
  • RWY DATA
    specific of runway and numbers, heading, length, width, etc
  • LIGHTING
    lighting system in use at the aerodrome, approach and runaway light type intensity
  • COMM
    comm freq available (tower, ground, mf)
  • NAV
    nav aids at or near aerdrome with freq and location
  • PRO
    procedures that may different from standard
  • CAUTION
    permanent hazards
332
Q

Radiation Fog forms

A

Radiation fog is a very common type of fog throughout the United States. It is most prevalent during the fall and winter. It forms overnight as the air near the ground cools and stabilizes. When this cooling causes the air to reach saturation, fog will form

333
Q

Anti-Cyclones circulate _____
Cyclones circulate ______

A

Clockwise
counter-clockwise

334
Q

In a climb, winds _____

A

In a climb from the surface to several thousand feet AGL, the wind will veer and increase. At night, surface cooling reduces the eddy motion of the air.

335
Q

At night, winds

A

At night, surface cooling reduces the eddy motion of the air. Surface winds will back and decrease. Conversely, during the day, surface heating increases the eddy motion of the air.

336
Q
  • elevation 3000
  • Altimeter setting 29.62
  • Pressure Altitude = ____
A

29.92 - alt setting x 1000 + elevation = 3300 ft

337
Q
A

Unit 1 (1 decks)

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