DECKS Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

All Class III lesions should be filled with composite resin, because they are esthetically important.

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

NOTES:
Think closely, distolingual Class III lesions are relatively nonesthetic and the best material to be amalgam or direct gold.

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What is the ideal depth of an amalgam preparation and dentin remaining for adequate pulpal insulation?

a. 1.0mm into dentin, 2.0mm dentin remaining
b. 2.0 mm into dentin, 1.0 mm dentin remaining
c. 0.5 m into dentin, 2.0 mm dentin remaining
d. 2.0 mm into dentin, 0.5 mm dentin remaining

c. 0.5 m into dentin, 2.0 mm dentin remaining

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A patient comes in claiming that their holistic doctor told him that he has an allergy to mercury and needs only white fillings. Your best response is:

a. There is no such thing as a mercury allergy; plus, there is no mercury in amalgam fillings
b. You might have mercury allergy, but that is very rare; plus, there is no mercury in amalgam fillings
c. There is no such thing as a mercury allergy; plus, with proper isolation and technique, your exposure will be minimal
d. You might have a mercury allergy, but that is very rare; plus, with proper isolation and technique, your exposure will be minimal

d. You might have a mercury allergy, but that is very rare; plus, with proper isolation and technique, your exposure will be minimal

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A patient presents to your office with interproximal caries involving #4 disto-occlusal. The decision is made to do a Class II Inlay instead of a traditional amalgam restoration. The inlay preparation will include all of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Sharp Internal line angles
b. Slightly divergent walls occlusally
c. Proximal retentive grooves
d. Reverse bevel at the axial gingival line angle

c. Proximal retentive grooves❌ (Class 2 AMALGAM)

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You would prefer your assistant overtriturate the amalgam rather than undertriturate it.

This is because an undertriturated amalgam has less strength, faster corrosion, and a rougher finished surface.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true

a. Both statements are true

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Class V amalgam restorations rarely require retentive grooves, but if they are sed, they are placed at the incisoaxial and gingivoaxial line angles.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true

d. The first statement is false, the second is true
Class V amalgam restorations rarely require retentive grooves. ❌
Class V amalgam restorations COMMONLY require and utilize retention grooves.

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Delayed expansion of amalgam restorations is associated with which two factors?

a. Insufficient trituration and condensation
b. High residual mercury
c. The contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation
d. The failure to use a cavity varnish

a. Insufficient trituration and condensation
c. The contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation

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Proper condensation and carving makes an amalgam restoration stronger because it removes the mercury-rich gamma-two matrix.

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

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A high-copper amalgam is preferred over a lower-copper amalgam due to the undesirable clinical properties that present in which phase of the reaction?

a. Gamma
b. Gamma-one
c. Gamma-two
d. Gamma-three

c. Gamma-two

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Which of the following properties would not be beneficial to the retention and resistance of a Class II amalgam preparation?

a. Occlusal dovetail
b. Convergent buccal and lingual walls
c. Retentive proximal grooves
d. Axio-Gingival line angle greater than 90 degrees

d. Axio-Gingival line angle greater than 90 degrees❌
Axio-Gingival line angle EQUAL TO 90 degrees

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Beveling the gingival cavosurface margin of the proximal box of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth:

a. Should result in a long bevel
b. Is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam
c. Should remove unsupported enamel that may fracture
d. Is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong

c. Should remove unsupported enamel that may fracture

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Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal aspect for a restoration?

a. Mandibular first bicuspid
b. Mandibular second bicuspid
c. Maxillary first molar
d. Maxillary first bicuspid

a. Mandibular first bicuspid

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All of the following correctly describe the ideal preparation for a Class one amalgam EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. Convergent Buccal and Lingual walls
b. Pulpal floor extending 0.5mm into dentin
c. Divergent mesial and distal walls 1mm away from proximal surfaces
d. Rounded internal line angles

c. Divergent mesial and distal walls 1mm away from proximal surfaces

NOTES:
Mesial and distal walls should be at least 1.6 mm away from proximal surfaces on premolars and 2.0 mm away on molars to prevent marginal ridge fracture.

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The matrix band should be removed after condensation of the amalgam but prior to the final carving of the restoration. This is because the wedge compensates for the thickness of the matrix band.

b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related

NOTES:
Although the wedge is used to compensate for the thickness of the matrix band, the true reason for carving after the removal of the band is to gain proper access to all margins of the amalgam restoration.

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The diagonal slot opening on the Tofflemire matrix retainer (also called the Universal matrix system) is always placed facing the gingiva. This:

a. Permits easy separation of the retainer from the band in an occlusal direction
b. Allows for better contour of band to tooth
c. Allows for easier wedge placement
d. Is less harmful on the gingiva

a. Permits easy separation of the retainer from the band in an occlusal direction

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Which of the following are true statements regarding the polishing of amalgam? Select 3.

a. It reduces marginal discrepancy
b. It should be done about 10 minutes after placement
c. Occlusion should not be checked prior to polishing
d. It prevents tarnishing of the restoration
e. It improves the appearance of the restoration
f. It should be done with a dry polishing powder

a. It reduces marginal discrepancy
d. It prevents tarnishing of the restoration
e. It improves the appearance of the restoration

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All of the following are true concerning a Class V amalgam preparation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin
b. The mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal wals of the cavity preparation diverge outward
c. The retention form is provided by the gingival retention groove along the gingivo-axial line angle and an incisal retention groove along the incisoaxial line angle
d. A cervical clamp is usually necessary to retract gingival tissues

a. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin❌
The outline form is determined primarily by the location AND SIZE OF THE CARIOUS LESION

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In regard to the selection and placement of amalgam restorations, all of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. High-copper amalgams are preferred over low-copper amalgams due to elimination of
the gamma two phase
b. Increased trituration time will increase compressive strength and decrease setting expansion compared to decreased trituration time
c. Ideal mercury content should range between 55%-60%
d. Tensile strength is 1/5-1/8 the compressive strength of set amalgam
e. The smaller the particle size the less expansion

c. Ideal mercury content should range between 55%-60%❌
Ideal mercury content should range between 45%-53%

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Amalgam restorations require an obtuse cavosurface margin because amalgam is a brittle material.

d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
Amalgam restorations require an obtuse cavosurface margin ❌
Amalgam restorations require an 80-90 degrees cavosurface margin

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High copper amalgams reduce gamma-two formation and marginal breakdown

Unreacted Agn gamma phase is the strongest and prevalent in triturated amalgam.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true

a. Both statements are true

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Which of the following statements are true regarding creep? Select 3.

a. Creep is a process that happens over time
b. Creep gradually increases the marginal integrity of an amalgam restoration
c. Undertrituration tends to increase the creep rate
d. Overtrituration tends to decrease the creep rate
e. Increasing the condensation pressure decreases the creep rate

a. Creep is a process that happens over time
c. Undertrituration tends to increase the creep rate
e. Increasing the condensation pressure decreases the creep rate

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There is no free mercury in triturated amalgam because trituration causes the alloy to dissolve in the mercury.

c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
because trituration causes the alloy to dissolve in the mercury.❌
because trituration COATS the alloy particles with mercury.

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Please rank the following in order of application thickness and consider which would be used to replace a large amount of dentin that has been destroyed.

a. Cement
b. Cavity Liner
c. Base

(b) Cavity Liner
(a) Cement
(c) Base

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The following statements are true regarding glass ionomer cements EXCEPT

a. Release fluoride
b. Good chemical adhesion
c. Good thermal insulator
d. Thermal expansion similar to tooth
e. High solubility after initial setting

e. High solubility after initial setting❌
LOW solubility after initial setting

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Glass ionomer cements generally contain fluoro-alumino-silica powder. The fluoro-alumino-silica is the portion responsible for one of the major advantages of glass ionomer. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

a. Both statements are true

ZOE cements make good temporary sedative restorations because their pH is very basic. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not because their pH is very basic.❌ because the pH is NEUTRAL

IRM (Intermediate Restorative Material) will interfere with subsequent placement of a resin filling. This is because IRM is a form of zinc oxide-eugenol. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

Zinc phosphate cement can cause irreversible pulpal damage because it shrinks slightly on setting. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related

Zinc phosphate cements should be mixed on a cool glass slab, adding a small amount of powder to the liquid every 20 seconds. This is done to gain the following advantages EXCEPT a. Stronger final set b. Lower solubility c. Greater viscosity

c. Greater viscosity❌ LOWER viscosity

A high caries risk patient with multiple anterior class five lesions presents to your office. All of the following would be reasons to choose a glass ionomer over composite EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Fluoride-releasing capability b. Chemical adherence to tooth structure c. Superior finishing potential d. Acceptable esthetic result

c. Superior finishing potential❌ (composite)

Which of the following materials could be used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical lesion? a. Glass ionomer b. Zinc oxide-eugenol c. Zinc polycarboxylate d. Zinc phosphate

a. Glass ionomer

All of the following are advantages for using a zinc polycarboxylate cement over a traditional zinc phosphate cement EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Higher Tensile strength b. Chemical Bonding to Tooth Structure c. Thin Film thickness d. Low pulpal irritation

c. Thin Film thickness ❌ (disadvantage)

When using a zinc phosphate cement you place the varnish first. This is because zinc phosphate cements are not biocompatible. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

A/An ___ base is a base that is typically placed over a calcium hydroxide base that has been placed over a pulp exposure. a. primary base b. secondary base c. direct base d. indirect base

b. secondary base

Solution liners should not be placed under composite restorations because composites do not require the pulpal protection. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not because composites do not require the pulpal protection❌ because they will inhibit the polymerization of the resin.

Suspension liners, for example calcium hydroxide, harden intraorally by the: a. Chemical reaction of acids and bases b. Chemical reaction involving polymerization c. Chemical reaction involving chelation d. Physical reaction of drying e. Physical reaction of a sol-gel transformation

d. Physical reaction of drying

When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affected, but not infected, and therefore do not need to be removed? Select 2. a. Turbid dentin b. Infected dentin c. Transparent dentin d. Normal dentin e. Subtransparent dentin

c. Transparent dentin e. Subtransparent dentin

The rate of senile caries is increasing, in part, because of the increase in gingival recession. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

Chronic caries is characterized by which of the following. Select 2. a. Pain is common b. Slowly progressing or arrested c. Common in adults d. Entrance to the lesion is small e. Lesion is deep and narrow

b. Slowly progressing or arrested c. Common in adults

____ is degraded by Streptococcus mutans into ____ and ____ thereby causing caries initiation and progression. a. Sucrose, glucans, lactic acid b. Glucose, glucans, lactic acid c. Sucrose, glucose, acetic acid d. Glucose, sucrose, acetic acid

a. Sucrose, glucans, lactic acid

The initiation of caries requires four entities EXCEPT a. Host b. Bacteria c. Carbohydrates d. Saliva d. Time

d. Saliva

There is abundant evidence that the initiation of dental caries requires a high proportion of: a. Lactobacillus within saliva b. Streptococcus mutans within dental plaque c. Lactobacillus within dental plaque d. Streptococcus mutans within saliva

b. Streptococcus mutans within dental plaque

Streptococcus mutans are ____ and therefore____ a. acidogenic, cariogenic b. aciduric, cariostatic c. acidogenic, cariostatic d. aciduric, cariogenic

a. acidogenic, cariogenic

All of the following describe VLC systems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. 410-500 nm wavelengths b. <300 mW/Cm3 output c. 2.5 maximum cure depth d. Camphorquinone initiators

b. <300 mW/Cm3 output❌

All of the following statements are true concerning posterior composite restorations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Posterior composite restorations are frequently indicated in the treatment of occlusal lesions that allow conservative preparations b. Posterior composite restorations are contraindicated in a patient with heavy occlusion (bruxism) c. Posterior composites are contraindicated in patients with high caries risk d. Posterior composite restorations may be indicated for the restoration of Class I cavities in premolar teeth where the appearance is very important, the cavity margins are in the enamel, and the occlusal contacts are on the enamel e. Posterior composites are contraindicated for cusp replacements unless a dry operating field is maintained

e. Posterior composites are contraindicated for cusp replacements unless a dry operating field is maintained❌

Which property of filled resins is primarily to blame for the failure of Class II composite restorations? a. Low flexural strength b. Low compressive strength c. Low tensile strength d. Low wear resistance

d. Low wear resistance

Which composite type is 35% to 50% percent filled by volume and has an average particle size ranging from 0.04 to 0.1 um. a. Microfills b. Hybrids c. Microhybrids d. Packables e. Flowables

a. Microfills

Composite filler particles function to do all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Reduce the coefficient of thermal expansion b. Decrease the tensile strength and compressive strength c. Reduce the polymerization shrinkage d. Increase the hardness

b. Decrease the tensile strength and compressive strength❌ INCREASE the tensile strength and compressive strength

When comparing the physical properties of filled resins to unfilled resins, all of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Filled resins are harder b. Unfilled resins have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion c. Filled resins have a higher compressive strength d. Unfilled resins have a lower modulus of elasticity e. Filled resins have a lower tensile strength

e. Filled resins have a lower tensile strength❌ Filled resins have a HIGHER tensile strength NOTES: Filled: harder, ↑ Compressive Strength, ↑ Tensile Strength Unfilled: ↓MOE, ↑COTE

When restoring a darker shade of composite, keep in mind the following: a. UV light is better than visible light b. You must keep the light 2 mm away or more c. You should cure for longer than normal d. Darker shades have less chemical bonding

c. You should cure for longer than normal

Which of the following is commonly added to bis-GMA organic resins to reduce viscosity, increase cross-linking, and hardness? a. EGDMA b. UEDMA c. PMMA d. TEGDMA

d. TEGDMA

The main ingredient in traditional acrylic resin temporary materials for intraoral fabrication is: a. Ethyl methacrylate b. Isobutyl methacrylate c. Bis-GMA d. Ethylene imine e. Methyl methacrylate

e. Methyl methacrylate

When considering an unfilled resin material versus a filled resin product, please compare the properties of thermal conductivity and marginal leakage, respectively: a. Lower, Lower b. Lower, Higher c. Higher, Lower d. Higher, Higher

b. Lower, Higher Lower thermal conductivity Higher marginal leakage

Acid etching enamel prior to placement of a composite restoration is required for all of the following reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Conserves tooth structure b. Reduces microleakage c. Provides micromechnical retention d. Increases esthetics

d. Increases esthetics❌

Enamel etching is typically completed with: a. 37% phosphoric acid b. 13% phosphoric acid c. 37% hydrochloric acid d. 13% hydrochloric acid

a. 37% phosphoric acid

When preparing a Class V composite preparation, you can have ____ rounded internal line angles because it is ____ to compress composite into them than amalgam. a. more, easier b. less, harder c. more, harder d. less, easier

a. more, easier

Which one of the following is the most important event for dentin bonding? a. Smear layer removal b. Smear plug removal c. Peritubular dentin decalcification d. Intertubular dentin decalcification

d. Intertubular dentin decalcification

A gold onlay you placed last week fails. Which of the following reasons is most likely responsible for the failure? a. You "capped" the functional cusp b. You "shoed" the functional cusp c. You "capped" the nonfunctional cusp d. You "shoed" the nonfunctional cusp

b. You "shoed" the functional cusp NOTES: Shoeing" is never indicated on functional cusps.

Rapid cooling (by immersion in water) of a dental casting from the high temperature at which it has been shaped is referred to as: a. Annealing b. Tempering c. Quenching d. None of the above

c. Quenching

Which of the following situations defines an indication for a Class II gold inlay? a. A young patient with high caries rate b. A patient with little money to invest in dental work c. A patient very concerned about esthetics d. A patient with a large lesion, buccal-lingually e. A patient with low caries rate but a history of periodontal problems

e. A patient with low caries rate but a history of periodontal problems

Gold alloys ____ upon solidification in the investment. This needs to be compensated for by an equal amount of ___ the mold. a. shrink, expansion b. expand, shrinkage c. shrink, shrinkage d. expand, expansion

a. shrink, expansion

Which of the following finishing margins is essentially a hollow ground bevel, creating more bulk of restorative material near the margin and providing a greater cavosurface angle? a. Knife edge b. Beveled shoulder c. Chamfer d. Shoulder

c. Chamfer

Which of the following allows for proper retention when preparing a tooth for a disto-occlusal Class Il gold inlay? a. Undercut on mesial b. Undercut on buccal and lingual walls c. Occlusal lock (dovetail) d. None of the above

c. Occlusal lock (dovetail)

A patient arrives at your office with their full gold crown in hand. They explain to you that another dentist delivered it just last week. You then examine the crown and the preparation. What is the most likely reason the the crown fell off? a. There was very little cement in the crown b. The preparation was only 4 mm high c. The preparation walls were tapered at about 15° d. The margins were jagged and undefined

c. The preparation walls were tapered at about 15°

The lab calls your office and asks if you want a particular casting done in a base or a noble metal. Which of the following responses is appropriate? a. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit b. Noble, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit c. Base, because the patient wants a gold tooth d. Noble, because the patient wants a gold tooth

a. Base, because the patient has a bad bruxing habit

Of the following, which is a correct match between the gold cast alloy component and its effect EXCEPT a. Gold — decreases ductility and malleability b. Gold — increases resistance to tarnish and corrosion c. Copper — hardens the alloy d. Silver — color modifying

a. Gold — decreases ductility and malleability❌ Gold — INCREASES ductility and malleability

High-gold alloys used for cast restorations are: a. Greater than 20% gold or other noble metals b. Greater than 30% gold or other noble metals c. Greater than 50% gold or other noble metals d. Greater than 75% gold or other noble metals

d. Greater than 75% gold or other noble metals

The following statements describe an MOD gold cast onlay preparation. Which would you have to change to ensure that the onlay will be successful? a. The mesial box has an axiopulpal line angle that is longer from facial to lingual than the axiogingival line angle b. From facial to lingual, the distal axiopulpal line angle is longer than the mesial axio- pulpal line angle c. The mesial and distal axial walls converge d. The distal box has an axiopulpal line angle that is shorter from facial to lingual than the axiogingival line angle

d. The distal box has an axiopulpal line angle that is shorter from facial to lingual than the axiogingival line angle

When preparing a Class V cavity preparation for direct filling gold, you should ensure that you have all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Rounded internal line and point angles b. Smal retentive undercuts placed in the axio-occlusal and axio-gingival line angles c. Mesial and distal walls that flare and meet the cavosurface at a 90° angle d. An axial wall that is convex and follows the external contour of the tooth 0.5 mm into dentin

a. Rounded internal line and point angles❌

The purpose of a sprue former is to create a passage for material to flow into the investment. The diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or greater than the thickest portion of the pattern. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

a. Both statements are true

Dental wax patterns (i.e., inlays, onlays, crowns) should be invested as soon as possible after fabricating to minimize change in the shape caused by: a. Reduced flow b. Drying out of the wax c. Relaxation of internal stress d. Continued expansion of the wax

c. Relaxation of internal stress

After waxing a pattern for a full-gold crown on #30, you proceed to creating an investment using a gypsum-bonded material. You read that the investment contains 65% silicon dioxide filler in the material. What is the primary purpose of this material? a. Provide strength for the set investment to withstand casting forces b. Increase the setting time to give you more time to work c. Create a detailed negative reproduction of your casting pattern d. Provide thermal expansion properties to compensate for casting shrinkage

d. Provide thermal expansion properties to compensate for casting shrinkage

All of the following are indications for a cast gold onlay EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Restoration of large lesions b. Restoration of ideal occlusion in cases of drifting, hypo- and hyper eruption, etc. c. Restoration of optimum contour and proximal contact d. Restoration of brittle teeth (endodontically treated) e. Restoration of a tooth as an abutment for removable prosthesis, creating ideal guiding planes, rest seats, and undercuts f. Restoration of teeth to meet patient preference for gold g. Restoration of a tooth with minimal ferrule, where a full-coverage crown would not have enough retention

g. Restoration of a tooth with minimal ferrule, where a full-coverage crown would not have enough retention

On delivery of your first crown, you notice that the margins are open when you attempt to seat the crown in the mouth. Which of the following should you check first? a. The occlusal contacts b. The proximal contacts c. For a void on the crown's interior d. For a nodule on the crown's interior

b. The proximal contacts

If a lab is getting a high occurrence of surface nodules on the castings they make, what might you suspect about their investing process? a. They are vacuum-investing b. They are hand-investing c. Nothing in particular, hand- and vacuum investing are the same thing d. None of the above

b. They are hand-investing

You are preparing tooth #19 for a MODB gold onlay and tooth #18 for a MODB amalgam restoration. Which of the following TWO statements correctly describe the difference in your preparations of the functional cusp? a. You will need 2.5 to 3 mm of reduction for gold b. You will need 2.5 to 3 mm of reduction for amalgam c. You will need 1.5 mm of reduction for gold d. You will need 1.5 mm of reduction for amalgam

b. You will need 2.5 to 3 mm of reduction for amalgam c. You will need 1.5 mm of reduction for gold

The modified pen grasp is the most common instrument grasp in dentistry; this is because it allows for the greatest intricacy and delicacy of touch. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

Soft materials, such as acrylics, are cut most effectively with: a. Zero rake angle burs b. Positive rake angle burs c. Negative rake angle burs

b. Positive rake angle burs NOTES: The rake angle = the angle made between the line connecting the edge of the blade to the axis of the bur and the rake face. This angle may be positive or negative.

The _____ angle is the angle formed between the ____ face and ____ face. a. edge, rake, clearance b. rake, edge, clearance c. clearance, rake, edge

a. edge, rake, clearance

What is the blade length of a cutting instrument with the following formula: 10 - 85 - 8 - 14 a. 10 m m b. 1.0 mm c. 0.85 mm d. 8.0 mm

d. 8.0 mm NOTES: 4-number formula - W - width of the blade in 10 of a millimeter - C - cutting edge angle in centigrate - L - length of blade - A - angle of blade relative to long axis of the handle

Chisels are used primarily to cut dentin. Hatchets are primarily used to cut enamel. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

d. The first statement is false, the second is true Chisels are used primarily to cut dentin❌ Chisels are used primarily to cut ENAMEL

Sharpening line angles and convenience points for gold foil preps a. Hoes b. Angle formers c. Ordinary hatchet d. Spoons

b. Angle formers

Preparing retentive areas on anterior teeth a. Hoes b. Angle formers c. Ordinary hatchet d. Spoons

c. Ordinary hatchet

It is used to remove carious dentin and sometimes to carve amalgam a. Hoes b. Angle formers c. Ordinary hatchet d. Spoons

d. Spoons

For class III and V preps for direct gold a. Hoes b. Angle formers c. Ordinary hatchet d. Spoons

a. Hoes

You set down the hand piece after preparing a Class II amalgam on tooth #4. Your assistant hands you a ___ so you can remove the last bit of caries, and then the ___ so you can plane the facial and lingual walls of the prep. a. spoon excavator, enamel hatchet b. spoon excavator, straight chisel c. gingival margin trimmer, enamel hatchet d. gingival margin trimmer, straight chisel

a. spoon excavator, enamel hatchet NOTES: The enamel hatchet is the only instrument that will allow the dentist to have proper access to the margins and that will impart the proper cavosurface angle to the margins.

To polish a restoration, you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades. This is because a bur with less cutting blades will cut more efficiently. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct To polish a restoration, you will likely use a bur with less cutting blades.❌ To polish a restoration, you will likely use a bur with GREATER NUMBER OF cutting blades NOTES: The greater the number of cutting blades on a bur results in less efficient cutting but a smoother surface (polishing burs are of this type). A lesser number of blades on a bur results in more efficient cutting but a rougher surface. Crosscut fissure burs at high speed or low speed are of this type.

There are several types of bleaching products available for use at home, which can either be dispensed by a dentist or purchased over-the-counter. Currently, only dentist-dispensed home-use ____ tray-applied gels carry the ADA Seal of Acceptance. a. 30% carbamide peroxide b. 15% hydrogen peroxide c. 20% hydrogen peroxide d. 10% carbamide peroxide

d. 10% carbamide peroxide

All of the following are a zone in four-handed dentistry EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Operator zone b. Assistant zone c. Transfer zone d. Patient zone e. Static zone

d. Patient zone

Xerostomia is the most common adverse side effect of medications. This is attributed to the cholinergic effects of many medications. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

c. The first statement is true, the second is false This is attributed to the cholinergic effects of many medications.❌ This is attributed to the ANTICHOLINERGIC effects of many medications.

When restoring a Class II or Class III lesion, it is important to create properly shaped embrasures for all of the following reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Create a spillway for food during mastication b. Make the teeth self-cleansing c. Protect the gingival tissue, while also allowing stimulation of it d. Provide arch stability

d. Provide arch stability❌

A tooth was restored 3 months ago by a new associate of yours. The patient is complaining of mobility and thermal sensitivity. You take a periapical radiograph. You could see all of the following in that radiograph to confirm your suspicions, EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Hypercementosis b. Root resorption c. Periodontal pockets d. Alteration of the lamina dura e. Widening of the periodontal ligament space

c. Periodontal pockets❌

When restoring the embrasures of posterior teeth, the contact should be formed slightly buccal from center. This will create a wider facial embrasure. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

c. The first statement is true, the second is false This will create a wider facial embrasure❌ This will create a wider LINGUAL embrasure AND A NARROW FACIAL EMBRASURE

A patient presents to your office complaining of pain upon biting on her lower right side. Upon examination, the offending tooth appears to have disto-occlusal clinical caries. The patient reports a positive response to cold testing lasting 12 seconds. The pulpal diagnosis is: a. Normal pulp b. Reversible pulpitis c. Irreversible pulpitis d. Pulpal necrosis

b. Reversible pulpitis NOTES: Cold Test 10-15 sec: Reversible pulpitis > 15 sec: Irreversible pulpitis EPT <10 sec: Reversible pulpitis > 10 sec: Irreversible pulpitis

On the first day in your solo private practice, you have a pulp exposure. Which of the following are favorable factors in avoiding root canal treatment? Select 3. a. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm b. The tooth had never been symptomatic c. The pulp tissue appears pink d. The hemorrhage is severe e. It is a pinpoint carious exposure

a. It is a mechanical exposure of 1 mm b. The tooth had never been symptomatic c. The pulp tissue appears pink

The ideal amount of time from placing an indirect pulp cap until reopening the tooth to remove the remaining decay is: a. 7 - 10 days b. 2 - 3 weeks c. 1 month d. 3 - 4 months e. 1 year f. Never, unless the tooth becomes symptomatic there is no need for further treatment

d. 3 - 4 months

A patient walks into your office for an emergency visit. He asks the receptionist for a cold glass of water and seems to be tilting his head sideways as to hold the water on one side of his mouth. Immediately, you suspect which reason for his visit? a. Pulp necrosis b. Reversible pulpitis c. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis d. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis

c. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

A cold test reveals a lingering pain. You ask the patient to raise her hand until the pain subsides. The patient raises her hand for about 8 seconds. What does this data suggest? a. Pulp necrosis b. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis c. Reversible pulpitis d. Symptomatic apical periodontitis

c. Reversible pulpitis

What was previously an MOD amalgam in #20 now shows that the entire lingual portion of the tooth has fractured off. You believe that the tooth is restorable with a pin-retained amalgam restoration/core. How many pins will you likely use and why? a. One, because you are missing the lingual cusp only b. Two, because you are missing both the mesio- and disto-lingual line angles c. Three, because you are missing the mesial, distal, and lingual walls

b. Two, because you are missing both the mesio- and disto-lingual line angles NOTES: The rule of thumb is one pin per missing line angle.

The most retentive style of pin is the self threaded pins because they are cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not they are cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself.❌ they are NOT cemented into pinholes that are smaller than the pin itself.

A patient presents with DL cusp fracture of #14 which you decide to repair with a pin-retained amalgam core. Regarding pin placement, you are likely to do all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Use one pin at the DL axial line angle b. Place the pin 2mm into dentin and restorative material c. Place the pin at the DEJ to ensure adequate distance from the pulp d. Bend the pin axially to allow for Amalgam condensation

c. Place the pin at the DEJ to ensure adequate distance from the pulp❌ NOTES: Pin should be placed entirely in dentin approximately 0.5mm to 1mm.

When preparing a pin channel, you perforate into the vital pulp chamber. What best describes your next step. a. Explain to the patient the need for root canal treatment b. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place calcium hydroxide c. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place pin to depth of 1 mm as to not enter the pulp chamber d. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place pin elsewhere, and restore with amalgam

b. Allow bleeding to stop, dry with paper point, place calcium hydroxide

The two most frequently quoted disadvantages of using the rubber dam are: a. Time consumption b. Patient objection c. Cost d. Staff allergies to material

a. Time consumption d. Staff allergies to material

The rubber dam can still be used effectively even if teeth are crowded and overlapped because the hole punch pattern does not always have to be followed. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

The Young rubber dam frame is used more than the Woodbury version, because it provides less soft tissue retraction. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related NOTES: It is true that the Young rubber dam frame provides less soft tissue retraction than the Woodbury. However, that is not why it is used - it is simply more convenient.

Put the following steps in order for proper sealant placement. a. Apply acid etch b. Place the low viscosity sealant material c. Apply bonding agent d. Wash acid etch away e. Use rubber prophy cup with pumice

(e) Use rubber prophy cup with pumice (a) Apply acid etch (d) Wash acid etch away (c) Apply bonding agent (b) Place the low viscosity sealant material

The light cured sealants require UV light. The light cured sealant types are shown to be clinically better than chemical cured sealants. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

b. Both statements are false The light cured sealants require UV light.❌ The light cured sealant types are shown to be clinically better than chemical cured sealants.❌ NOTES: Light cured materials are all cured by visible light nowadays, not UV. Also, both light cured and chemical cured sealants have indistinguishable results.

Regarding the benefits of fluoride, all of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Fluoride increase the hardness of the enamel b. Fluoride reduces the rate of enamel solubility c. Fluoride ions have greater affinity for hydroxyapatite than hydroxyl ions d. Fluoride inhibits bacterial intracellular polysaccharide formation

a. Fluoride increase the hardness of the enamel❌ NOTES: Fluoride does not make the enamel harder but reduces its rate of solubility.

All persons should know whether the fluoride concentration in their primary source of drinking water is below optimal ____ , optimal____, or above optimal ____ a. less than 0.5 ppm, 0.5-1.0 ppm, greater than 1.0 ppm b. less than 0.7 ppm, 0.7-1.2 ppm, greater than 1.2 ppm c. less than 0.8 ppm, 0.8-1.3 ppm, greater than 1.3 ppm d. less than 0.9 ppm, 0.9-1.4 ppm, greater than 1.4 ppm

b. less than 0.7 ppm, 0.7-1.2 ppm, greater than 1.2 ppm

Studies have established that root sensitivity is due, in part, to open dentinal tubules at the root surface. The hydrodynamic theory is the proposed mechanism for this sensitivity. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

a. Both statements are true

Which of the following types and concentrations of fluoride should be recommended for home-care custom tray use by a patient with head and neck cancer? a. 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride and 1% neutral sodium fluoride b. 0.4% stannous fluoride and 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride c. 0.4% stannous fluoride and 1% neutral sodium fluoride d. 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride, 0.4% stannous fluoride, and 1% neutral sodium fluoride

c. 0.4% stannous fluoride and 1% neutral sodium fluoride

Causes the most severe staining a. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) b. Stannous fluoride (SNF2) c. Sodium fluoride (NaF)

b. Stannous fluoride (SNF2)

Most common over-the-counter fluoride a. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) b. Stannous fluoride (SNF2) c. Sodium fluoride (NaF)

c. Sodium fluoride (NaF)

Most common in-office fluoride a. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) b. Stannous fluoride (SNF2) c. Sodium fluoride (NaF)

a. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF)

The pH of acidulated phosphate flouride is approximately: a. 1.0 b. 3.5 c. 7.0 d. 9.2

b. 3.5 NOTES: Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF)- 3.5 Stannous fluoride (SNF2)-2.1 to 2.3 Sodium fluoride (NaF)- 9.2

A 40kg child gets into the bathroom cabinet and eats one tube of toothpaste containing 230mg of fluoride. The mother calls you first before calling poison control asking whether her son would be OK. You tell the parent the toxic amount of fluoride based on the child's body weight is: a. 160 mg b. 200 mg c. 240 mg d. 280 mg

b. 200 mg NOTES: 40kg x 5mg/kg body = 200 mg

Sealants can be effective when placed over incipient carious lesions because caries is caused by anaerobic microorganisms. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not because caries is caused by anaerobic microorganisms❌ because caries is caused by AEROBIC microorganisms

Which of the following is least associated with the short-term strength of a material? a. Creep b. Modulus of elasticity c. Resilience d. Brittleness

a. Creep NOTES: Creep (strain relaxation) - deformations over time in response to a constant stress. The key term in the question is "short-term."

A particular material is said to have a high modulus of elasticity and low resilience. This means the material is: a. Flexible with low elastic limit b. Stiff with low elastic limit c. Flexible with high elastic limit d. Stiff with high elastic limit

b. Stiff with low elastic limit

In general, ductility _____ in temperature, whereas malleability _____ in temperature. a. increases with increase, decreases with increase b. decreases with increase, increases with increase c. none of the above

b. decreases with increase, increases with increase

Wetting is a way to measure adhesive potential of a material. In general, the ____ the contact angle, the ____ the wetting, and ___potential for adhesion. a. smaller, greater, lesser b. smaller, lesser, greater c. larger, lesser, greater d. larger, lesser, lesser

d. larger, lesser, lesser

Secondary dentin is formed in response to caries, operative procedures, or wear. The dentin formed in response is formed by secondary odontoblasts. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

d. The first statement is false, the second is true Secondary dentin is formed in response to caries, operative procedures, or wear❌ TERTIARY dentin is formed in response to caries, operative procedures, or wear

When preparing for an amalgam, an operator should allow for proper retention form. This is because improper preparations can cause fracture of amalgam restorations. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related NOTES: Resistance form is involved in fracture, not retention form.

The outline form of a cavity preparation is defined as: a. "That form the cavity takes to resist the forces of mastication" b. "That form the cavity takes to resist dislodgement or displacement of the restoration" c. "The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth" d. "The shape or form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated" e. "The shape or form the preparation assumes after the retention form has been completed"

c. "The shape or form of the cavity on the surface of the tooth"

A patient returns to your office only 24 hours after you cemented her new gold crown on tooth #19. She claims to feel a sharp electrical sensation in both her upper and lower jaw on the left side. When you explain to her what might be happening, you call it: a. Electromagnetic pulse b. Alternating current corrosion c. Electrolyte explosion d. Galvanic shock

d. Galvanic shock

Please rank the following according to their coefficient of thermal expansion (least to greatest). Which material would allow the least amount of percolation and possibility of recurrent decay? a. Direct gold b. Amalgam c. Unfilled Resin d. Composite e. Tooth

(e) Tooth (a) Direct Gold (b) Amalgam (d) Composite (c) Unfilled Resin

Which cavities can involve any teeth, anterior or posterior? Select 3. a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV e. Class V f. Class VI

a. Class I e. Class V f. Class VI

Which organization maintains records on all diseases that occur in the United States? a. CDC (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention) b. OSHA (Occupational Safety & Health Administration) c. FDA (Food & Drug Administration) d. EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

a. CDC (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention)

A test result that erroneously assigns an individual to a specific diagnostic or reference group, due to insufficient exact methods of testing is called a: a. False negative test b. True negative test c. False positive test d. True positive test

c. False positive test

Which of the following is defined as the repeatability and reproducibility of a test? a. Validity b. Reliability c. p value d. Sensitivity

b. Reliability

Which of the following are elements of informed consent for a dental procedure? a. Explanation of a procedure b. Cost of the procedure c. Explanation of the risks and benefits of the procedure d. Explanation of the alternative choices e. A,B,C f. A,C,D g. All of the above

f. A,C,D a. Explanation of a procedure c. Explanation of the risks and benefits of the procedure d. Explanation of the alternative choices

Identify which TWO of the following indices were developed in an attempt to provide a standardized method of measuring periodontal disease, and, are criticized because they combine gingivitis and periodontitis measures into a common score ? a. PDI (periodontal disease index) b. OHI-S (simplified oral hygiene index) c. PI (periodontal index) d. GI (gingival index)

a. PDI (periodontal disease index) c. PI (periodontal index)

If the major purpose of an epidemiologist's study is to determine caries susceptibility instead of immediate treatment needs, the best caries index to use is: a. TSIF b. PSR c. DMFT d. CPITN

c. DMFT

According to the plaque index (PI) of Sillness & Loe, tooth #14 would have what PI score? Buccal- 2 Lingual-1 Mesial-2 Distal-3 a. 1.0 b. 1.5 c. 2.0 d. 2.5

c. 2.0 NOTES: 2 + 1 + 2 + 3 = 8/4= 2

Which one of the following describes the periodontal index (PI)? a. Reversible index b. Irreversible index

a. Reversible index

Identify which one of the following is a system where a provider of coverage contracts to pay for some of the patient's dental treatment: a. First-party dentistry b. Second-party dentistry c. Third-party dentistry d. Fourth-party dentistry

c. Third-party dentistry

The major objective of public health programs is: a. Prevention b. Cost efficiency c. Teamwork d. All of the above

a. Prevention

Fluoride supplements are available by prescription only. Fluoride mouth rinses are the most popular school-based fluoride regimen in the United States. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true

a. Both statements are true

In regards to reporting child abuse, a dentist is: a. Morally obligated to report suspected cases b. Ethically obligated to report suspected cases c. Legally obligated to report suspected cases d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Identify which one of the following describes the proportion of existing cases of disease in a population at one point in time, or, during a specified time: a. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Epidemiology d. Frequency

b. Prevalence

Random assignment and blinding are methods used in clinical trials to enhance study validity and a. Increase bias b. Decrease bias c. Have no change on bias d. None of the above

b. Decrease bias

The most important concept of public health as defined by C.E.A. Winslow is: a. To encourage mental and physical efficiency b. Promotion of health through organized community effort c. Individuals acting alone can solve any problem d. The science and art of preventing disease

b. Promotion of health through organized community effort

_____ is a worldwide epidemic. a. Endemic b. Pandemic c. Morbidity d. Mortality

b. Pandemic

A method of payment for dental services in which the provider is paid a fixed amount without regard to the actual number or nature of services provided to each patient is called a: a. Capitation fee b. Fixed fee c. Contractual d. Managed fee

a. Capitation fee

All of the following are fundamental principles as defined in the American Dental Association Code of Professional Conduct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Justice b. Autonomy c. Beneficence d. Maleficence e. Veracity

d. Maleficence❌

All of the following are true concerning the ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. A dentist cannot deny anyone care due to a disability b. Dental offices must structurally allow access for the disabled c. A dentist cannot dismiss an employee due to a disability d. A person with HIV is not protected by the ADA

d. A person with HIV is not protected by the ADA❌

A descriptive epidemiological study helps to define the a population. a. Cause b. Cure c. Extent d. Mortality

c. Extent

Identify which one of the following is the part of a published research study that includes the statement of intent, theory and hypothesis: a. Abstract b. Introduction & literature review c. Methods d. Results e. Discussion f. Summary & conclusion

b. Introduction & literature review

Which one of the following allows someone to generalize from the sample of data to a larger group of subjects? a. Inferential statistics b. Descriptive statistics c. Informative statistics d. Reliability statistics

a. Inferential statistics

The portion of covered dental care costs for which the covered person has a financial responsibility, usually a fixed percentage is called: a. Copayment b. Coinsurance c. Deductible d. Balance billing

b. Coinsurance

DECKS Flashcards

(150 cards)