DECKS Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

Sugars that contain aldehyde groups that are acids are classified as sugars.

a. oxidized, non-reducing
b. oxidized, reducing
c. reduced, non-reducing
d. reducing, oxidizing

b. oxidized, reducing

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Which of the following glycosaminoglycans can be found functioning in synovial fluid?

a. heparin
b. keratan sulfate
c. hyaluronate
d. dermatan sulfate
e. chondroitin sulfate
f. heparan sulfate

c. hyaluronate

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Which intestinal enzyme breaks down the O-glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose?

a. maltase
b. lactase
c. sucrase
d. none of the above

c. sucrase

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Glucose, fructose, and galactose are classified as:

a. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides
c. oligosaccharides
d. polysaccharides

a. monosaccharides

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Which of the following are the main constituents of starch? Select 2.

a. amylose
b. insulin
c. cellulose
d. amylopectin

a. amylose
d. amylopectin

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The ground substance of the extracellular matrix is made up of:

a. type II collagen
b. type III collagen
c. proteoglycan molecules
d. fibrillin

c. proteoglycan molecules

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In which of the following structures are chondroitin sulfates chiefly located? Select 3.

a. cartilage
b. mast cell granules
c. cornea
d. aorta
e. cell membranes

a. cartilage
d. aorta
e. cell membranes

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Dextrans are polysaccharides of glucose produced extracellularly by bacteria and yeast.

The enzyme used to produce dextrans is glucosyl transferase (dextran sucrase), and the substrate is sucrose.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

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All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. rods contain rhodopsin - a photopigment
b. cones are responsible for color vision
c. rods are used for dark adaptation
d. rods and cones are located in the retina
e. cones are more abundant than rods

e. cones are more abundant than rods❌
RODS are more abundant than CONES

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Which of the following structures of the eye functions like a shutter in the camera analogy, allowing more or less light into the eye?

a. lens
b. retina
c. cornea
d. iris

d. iris

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Which of the following is NOT an etiology of conductive hearing loss?

a. otitis media
b. ototoxic drugs
c. otosclerosis
d. impacted cerumen

b. ototoxic drugs

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Your patient just returned from an ophthalmology appointment where she received tropicamide to induce mydriasis. What significance does this have on her dental appointment?

a. the patient can’t distinguish colors when choosing denture teeth
b. the patient will be extra sensitive to the overhead dental light
c. the patient will have trouble seeing without bright light
d. the patient will experience blurry vision

b. the patient will be extra sensitive to the overhead dental light

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Mean corpuscular hemoglobin

a. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / hematocrit
b. Hematocrit (%) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)
c. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)

c. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)

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Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

a. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / hematocrit
b. Hematocrit (%) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)
c. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)

a. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / hematocrit

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Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

a. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / hematocrit
b. Hematocrit (%) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)
c. Hemoglobin (g/dL) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)

b. Hematocrit (%) / red blood cell count (10%/uL)

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Although albumin accounts for only 60% of the total plasma protein, it provides 80% of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma.

The colloid osmotic pressure is necessary to prevent edema.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

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The principal hormone for serum calcium regulation is:

a. calcitonin
b. parathyroid hormone
c. thyroid hormone
d. vasopressin/antidiuretic hormone

b. parathyroid hormone

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Which of the following blood equations is correct?

a. serum = plasma - fibrinogen
b. plasma = serum - fibrinogen
c. serum = hematocrit + plasma
d. hematocrit = fibrinogen - plasma

a. serum = plasma - fibrinogen

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The general term for reactions that prevent or minimize loss of blood from the vessels if they are injured or ruptured is:

a. erythropoiesis
b. syneresis
c. homeostasis
d. hemostasis

c. homeostasis

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Iron, the most important mineral in the formation of hemoglobin, is absorbed mainly in the ____ and is only absorbed as ____

a. ascending colon, Fe3+
b. sigmoid colon, Fe2+
c. duodenum, Fe2+
d. jejunum, Fe2+

c. duodenum, Fe2+

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O blood type is referred to as:

a. universal donor
b. universal recipient
c. neither of the above

a. universal donor

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The most important feature of the hemoglobin molecule is its ability to combine loosely and reversibly with oxygen.

Oxygen does not combine with the two positive bonds of the iron in the hemoglobin molecule. Instead it binds loosely with one of the so-called coordination bonds of the iron atom.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

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All of the following are common subunit hemoglobin chains EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a. alpha
b. beta
c. gamma
d. delta
e. epsilon

e. epsilon❌

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The most common form of hemoglobin in the adult human being is:

a. hemoglobin H
b. hemoglobin S
c. hemoglobin M
d. hemoglobin A
e. hemoglobin C

d. hemoglobin A

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In the normal person, about 90% of all erythropoietin is formed in ____; the remainder is formed mainly in the ____ a. kidneys, liver b. liver, kidneys c. bone marrow, kidneys d. kidneys, bone marrow

a. kidneys, liver

The following will shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right EXCEPT a. increased carbon dioxide concentration b. increased blood temperature c. increase in pH d. increased 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (BPG)

c. increase in pH

The oxyntic glands (gastric glands) in the stomach mucosa are composed of three types of cells. Which of the following is NOT a component of oxyntic gland? a. parietal cell b. mucous neck cell c. chief cell d. G cell

d. G cell

Brunner's glands are located at which of the following sites? a. ileum b. duodenum c. jejunum d. stomach

b. duodenum

Three of the following signaling molecules are important in causing pancreatic secretion. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. cholecystokinin b. secretin c. acetylcholine d. epinephrine

d. epinephrine

Which of the following is NOT an etiology of cobalamin deficiency? a. lack of intrinsic factors b. gastric resection c. inadequate sunlight d. strict vegan diet e. celiac disease

c. inadequate sunlight

With respect to gastric emptying, solids empty more rapidly than liquids. The presence of fats in the duodenum increases gastric emptying time. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true With respect to gastric emptying, solids empty more rapidly than liquids❌ With respect to gastric emptying, LIQUIDS empty more rapidly than SOLIDS (because solids must be triturated)

All of the following statements regarding human gastric lipase are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. it does not share homology with pancreatic lipase b. it is secreted by the chief cells in the fundus c. it acts on triglyceride to form fatty acids and diglyceride d. it works at an optimal pH of 7

d. it works at an optimal pH of 7❌

Arrange the three phases of gastric HCI secretion in the decreasing order of the amount of HCI secreted in each phase. a. gastric phase b. cephalic phase c. intestinal phase

(a) gastric phase (b) cephalic phase (c) intestinal phase

As an action potential reaches a skeletal muscle cell, what is the order of activation by which the signal is transmitted internally through the muscle cell so that contraction results? a. acetylcholine, calcium, troponin, tropomyosin, myosin heads b. calcium, acetylcholine, troponin, tropomyosin, myosin heads c. acetylcholine, calcium, tropomyosin, troponin, myosin heads d. calcium, acetylcholine, tropomyosin, troponin, myosin heads

c. acetylcholine, calcium, tropomyosin, troponin, myosin heads

The immediate source of energy for muscle contraction is ATP binding to myosin. The ATP pool, however, is extremely small and has three sources of replenishment. Which of the following is NOT a source? a. creatine phosphate b. lactic acid c. glycogen d. cellular respiration

b. lactic acid

As you complete the seating of a crown, you ask your patient to tap lightly on the articulating paper. Which of the following statements correctly describes the physiology responsible for a patient's light tapping on the articulating paper? a. the "all or nothing" phenomenon occurs; all fibers in the masseter and medial pterygoid are partially stimulated, causing a light contraction b. fractionation occurs; each muscle fiber involved is stimulated only by a fraction of the alpha-motor neurons innervating the fiber, and so the fibers contract lightly c. fractionation occurs; only a few small alpha-motor units are recruited, and the masseter and medial pterygoid muscles contract lightly d. the "all or nothing" phenomenon occurs; the muscles that close the mouth are stimulated fully but are countered by stimulation of the muscles that open the mouth, causing a slight closing of the mouth

c. fractionation occurs; only a few small alpha-motor units are recruited, and the masseter and medial pterygoid muscles contract lightly

All of the following statements comparing fast and slow-twitch muscle fibers are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. fast-twitch fibers are about twice as large in diameter than small twitch muscle fibers b. slow-twitch fibers have a greater resistance to fatigue than fast twitch muscle fibers c. the enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation are considerably more active in slow-twitch fibers than in fast twitch fibers d. fast-twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin than slow twitch muscle fibers e. fast-twitch fibers can deliver extreme amounts of power for a few seconds to a minute versus small twitch fibers

d. fast-twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin than slow twitch muscle fibers❌ SLOW-twitch fibers contain more mitochondria and myoglobin than FAST twitch muscle fibers

All of the following statements concerning muscle spindles are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. they are found within the belly of muscles b. they consist of small, encapsulated intrafusal fibers and run in parallel with the main muscle fibers (extrafusal fibers) c. the finer the movement required, the smaller the number of muscle spindles in a muscle d. they detect both static and dynamic changes in muscle length

c. the finer the movement required, the smaller the number of muscle spindles in a muscle❌ the finer the movement required, the GREATER the number of muscle spindles in a muscle

When a muscle is _____, the _____ reflex reacts. This reflex is considered ______, and the result is ______. a. contracted / golgi tendon / monosynaptic / contraction b. stretched / golgi tendon / disynaptic / relaxation c. stretched / stretch / monosynaptic / contraction d. contracted / stretch / disynaptic / relaxation e. stretched / stretch / monosynaptic / relaxation

c. stretched/stretch/monosynaptic/contraction

All of the following statements concerning reflexes are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. the Achilles tendon reflex is a deep tendon reflex b. a polysynaptic reflex arc involves one or more interneurons c. the knee jerk reflex is an example of a stretch reflex d. most reflex arcs have four basic elements

d. most reflex arcs have four basic elements❌ most reflex arcs have FIVE basic elements

In a single muscle, there are both intrafusal and extrafusal fibers. All of the following statements are true in the description of intrafusal fibers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. contain nuclear bag fibers that detect fast, dynamic changes b. innervated by gamma-motor neurons c. contain nuclear linking fibers that transmit afferent signals d. encapsulated in sheaths to form muscle spindles e. contain nuclear chain fibers that detect static changes

c. contain nuclear linking fibers that transmit afferent signals❌ contain nuclear CHAIN fibers that transmit afferent signals

Within the spinal cord, the H-shaped mass of gray matter is divided into horns, which cons mainly of neuron cell bodies. Cell bodies in the posterior (dorsal) horn relay: a. voluntary motor impulses b. reflex motor impulses c. sensory impulses d. all of the above

c. sensory impulses

Which of the following structures plays a role by associating with the corticospinal system to control complex patterns of motor activity? a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. basal ganglia d. thalamus

c. basal ganglia

The main structures of the hindbrain include which of the following EXCEPT a. medulla oblongata b. pons c. cerebral hemispheres d. cerebellum

c. cerebral hemispheres

Match the most appropriate lobe of the cerebrum that may not be functioning properly. Patient complaint: I always forget if I brushed my teeth already. I just cannot remember if I already did - so I just assume I did. A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe

B. Temporal lobe

Match the most appropriate lobe of the cerebrum that may not be functioning properly. Patient complaint: I... ummm... just cannot make my wrist move the brush ... um .. but…. and why why do I need to brush my teeth? A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe

A. Frontal lobe

Match the most appropriate lobe of the cerebrum that may not be functioning properly. Patient complaint: Every time I grasp my brush, it won't fit in my mouth. It also hurts to have the water on my teeth. A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe

D. Parietal lobe

Match the most appropriate lobe of the cerebrum that may not be functioning properly. Patient complaint: I brush every day, but I have trouble getting toothpaste on my brush. I have no trouble getting my brush to my mouth, but I just cannot manage to see the toothpaste and the brush. A. Frontal lobe B. Temporal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe

C. Occipital lobe

Which of the following has the thickest layer of muscle? a. veins b. arteries c. capillaries d. arterioles e. venules

b. arteries

Which of the following is the major regulator of blood flow? a. veins b. arteries c. capillaries d. arterioles e. venules

d. arterioles

Which of the following contain valves? a. veins b. arteries c. capillaries d. arterioles e. venules

a. veins

Which of the following are large vessels that contain deoxygenated blood? Is there an EXCEPTION to this rule? a. veins b. arteries c. capillaries d. arterioles e. venules

a. veins EXCEPTION: Pulmonary and Umbilical

Which has higher compliance, veins or arteries? a. veins b. arteries c. capillaries d. arterioles e. venules

a. veins

Which structures are the site of highest resistance in the cardiovascular system? a. veins b. arteries c. arterioles d. venules

c. arterioles

When the arterioles are acted on by nitric oxide or adenosine, they will ____ which will ____ the total peripheral resistance. a. constrict, increase b. constrict, decrease c. dilate, increase d. dilate, decrease e. stay the same, stay the same

d. dilate, decrease

Which circuit supplies the alveoli of the lungs? a. pulmonary circuit b. systemic circuit c. both d. neither

a. pulmonary circuit

Which circuit supplies the connective tissue of the lungs? a. pulmonary circuit b. systemic circuit c. both d. neither

b. systemic circuit

Which has a lower blood pressure? a. pulmonary circuit b. systemic circuit c. both d. neither

a. pulmonary circuit

Which has a greater volume of blood flow per minute? a. pulmonary circuit b. systemic circuit c. both d. neither

d. neither (they have the same, about 5 L/min)

Which circuit involves the thick-walled left ventricle? a. pulmonary circuit b. systemic circuit c. both d. neither

b. systemic circuit

Your patient tells you that he just had a heart bypass operation. He says that they used a vein from his leg and re-routed blood that previously flowed through his left anterior descending coronary artery (often referred to as the widow maker). Which of the following explanations is correct in answering how a vein can adequately replace an artery? a. although veins have higher compliance normally, when under high pressure, compliance decreases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions b. although veins have lower compliance normally, when under the high pressure, compliance increases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions c. although veins have higher resistance normally, when under the high pressure, resistance decreases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions d. although veins have lower resistance normally, when under high pressure, resistance increases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions

a. although veins have higher compliance normally, when under high pressure, compliance decreases and so the vein acts very similar to an artery when put in these conditions

Your patient presents with stage 1 hypertension. His blood pressure is 150 mmHg/99 mmHg, confirming his diagnosis. 1. Is his pulse pressure normal, high, or low? a. normal b. high c. low 2. To bring his blood pressure down to normal, he could attempt to do what to the total peripheral resistance? a. increase it b. decrease it 3. Normally, the mean pressure in the aorta is about 100 mmHg. Eventually, the blood will return via the vena cava at a pressure of 4 mmHg. Where did the blood pressure decrease the most as blood traveled through the body? a. large veins b. large arteries c. arterioles d. venules e. capillaries

1. b. high 2. b. decrease 3. c. arterioles (the site of highest resistance)

There are two general causes of extracellular fluid edema: (1) abnormal leakage of fluid from the plasma to the interstitial spaces accross the capillaries, and (2) failure of the lymphatics t o return fluid from the interstitium back into the blood The mosy common clinical cause of interstitial fluid accumulation is excessive capillary fluid filtration. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Your patient has just finished her 2-hour appointment and is eager to get out of the office. She stands up from the chair very fast, and quickly becomes dizzy and nearly faints. This is termed orthostatic hypotension. 1. Which of the following receptors are most important in the short-term regulation of her blood pressure and returning it to normal? a. stretch receptors in the carotid sinus b. chemoreceptors in the aortic bodies c. chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies d. stretch receptors in the pulmonary circulation 2. This drop in blood pressure will cause what to happen? a. sympathetic impulses to increase b. parasympathetic impulses to increase c. both to increase d. neither to increase 3. The effect on the heart will be: a. increased heart rate, decreased stroke volume b. increased heart rate, increased stroke volume c. decreased heart rate, decreased stroke volume d. decreased heart rate, increased stroke volume

1. a. stretch receptors in the carotid sinus 2. a. sympathetic impulses to increase 3. b. increased heart rate, increased stroke volume

It's 4 o'clock on a Friday afternoon, and you are about to do a quick preparation and restoration. When you give the injection, the patient complains of severe discomfort. You realize you forgot to aspirate the needle Your needle passed through the artery layers in which order? a. tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima b. tunica media, tunica intima, tunica adventitia c. tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia d. tunica adventitia, tunica intima, tunica media

a. tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima

Judging by their relative thicknesses, which is the toughest vessel to puncture? a. artery b. vein c. capillary

a. artery

Which layer is thicker? a. tunica media b. tunica adventitia

a. tunica media

Which layer is innervated by the autonomic nervous system? a. tunica intima b. tunica media c. tunica adventitia

b. tunica media

By puncturing this artery, you have hit the vessel with the greatest: a. resistance b. pressure c. cross-sectional area d. blood volume

b. pressure

In your practice, you see quite a few HIV/AIDS patients. These patients have a virus that has the unique ability to: a. produce (+) ssRNA from a (-) sRNA molecule b. produce (-) s R N A from a (+) ssRNA molecule c. produce DNA from an mRNA molecule d. produce dRNA from an ssRNA molecule

c. produce DNA from an mRNA molecule

Ribosomes are surrounded by a membrane and form a separate cellular compartment. In bacteria, they are either free-floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the plasma membrane, and in eukaryotes they are either free floating in the cytoplasm or bound to the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true Ribosomes are NOT surrounded by a membrane and DO NOT form a separate cellular compartment.

Genetic recombination experiments depend heavily upon the action of which enzymes? Select 2. a. dna ligases b. alkaline phosphatase c. creatine kinase d. restriction endonuclease

a. dna ligases d. restriction endonuclease

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. the replication of DNA involves some RNA intermediates b. the replication of DNA involves DNA ligase linking DNA molecules together c. the replication of DNA requires unzipping of the DNA molecule d. the replication of DNA involves the building of the new ssDNA strand from 3' to 5'

d. the replication of DNA involves the building of the new ssDNA strand from 3' to 5'❌

Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in unwinding, unzipping, and rezipping the DNA molecule during replication? a. topoisomerases b. helicases c. gyrases d. polymerases

d. polymerases

Which of the following is contained in a nucleoside? Select 2. a. nitrogen base b. phosphate c. ribose/deoxyribose sugar d. serine e. nitrate

a. nitrogen base c. ribose/deoxyribose sugar

Which of the following are the same in RNA and DNA molecules? a. the purines b. the pyrimidines c. both the purines and pyrimidines d. neither the purines and pyrimidines

a. the purines

Which of the following RNA mutations is least likely to have a significant effect on the product protein? a. the elimination of the third nucleotide of a codon b. the elimination of the first nucleotide of a codon c. a substitution of the third nucleotide of a codon d. a substitution of the first nucleotide of a codon

c. a substitution of the third nucleotide of a codon

A sequence of DNA reads "A-T-T-G-C-A." How many hydrogen bonds wouls you expect to see holding this sequence to its complementary strand? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18

b. 14 (2 in each A-T pairing and 3 in each G-C pairing)

A sequence of DNA is "T-A-G-T-A-T-C-A-T". What would the complementary RNA sequence be? a. A-T-C-A-T-A-G-T-A b. A-U-C-A-U-A-G-U-A c. U-T-C-U-T-U-G-T-U d. A-G-C-A-U-A-G-T-U

b. A-U-C-A-U-A-G-U-A

All of the following statements concerning the backbone of DNA are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. it is constant throughout the molecule b. it consists of deoxyriboses linked by "phosphodiester bridges" or "phosphodiester bonds" c. it is hydrophobic d. it is highly polar

c. it is hydrophobic

Which type of RNA is the least abundant in the cell? a. messenger RNA b. transfer RNA c. ribosomal RNA

a. messenger RNA

The activity level of which enzyme controls the rate of glycolysis? a. aldolase b. phosphoglucose isomerase c. phosphofructokinase d. triose phosphate isomerase

c. phosphofructokinase

All of the following are the m o s t useful enzymes for the diagnosis of acute mycardial infarction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. creatine kinase (CK) b. lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) c. alanine transaminase (ALT) d. aspartate transaminase (AST)

c. alanine transaminase (ALT)

All of the following statements concerning transamination reactions are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. these reactions involve the transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to an a-keto acid b. the enzymes that catalyze these reactions are known as transaminases or aminotransferases c. glutamate and a-ketoglutarate are often involved in these reactions, serving as one of the amino acid/a-keto acid pairs d. pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which is derived from vitamin Be serves as the cofactor for these reactions e. all amino acids participate in these reactions at some point in their catabolism

e. all amino acids participate in these reactions at some point in their catabolism

All of the following are true of oxidative deamination reactions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. provide a-ketoacids for energy b. provide ammonia for urea synthesis c. occur mainly in the liver and kidney d. provide a detoxification mechanism

d. provide a detoxification mechanism

The carbonic acid formation by the conversion of COz and H20 during aqueous humor production is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes? a. carbonic anhydrase b. carbamylase c. carbonic deoxygenase d. zinc carboxypeptidase

a. carbonic anhydrase

Which of the following components of the electron transport chain accepts only electrons? a. FMN (flavin mononucleotide) b. coenzyme Q (ubiquinone) c. cytochrome b d. oxygen

c. cytochrome b

Which of the following is NOT an enzyme classification? a. oxidoreductase b. ligase c. transferase d. oxygenase e. hydrolase f. isomerase

d. oxygenase

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for dissolving blood clots? a. prothrombin b. thrombin c. fibrinogen d. plasmin

d. plasmin

A zymogen is converted to its active enzyme form by which of the following mechanisms? a. removal of a peptide fragment b. addition of a peptide fragment c. addition of an amino group d. removal of an amino group

a. removal of a peptide fragment

Starch molecules are broken down by enzymes known as: a. oxygenases b. isomerases c. peroxidases d. amylases

d. amylases

Your patient's medical history says that she has von Gierke's disease. She is missing the enzyme _____, which converts _____. a. glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate to glucose b. glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate c. pyruvate carboxylase, pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate d. pyruvate carboxylase, pyruvate to 2-phosphoglycerate

b. glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate

Km is the substrate concentration at which the enzyme is half-saturated with its substrate. Km is also the substrate concentration at which the reaction is half maximal. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Al of the following statements concerning allosteric enzymes are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. they frequently catalyze a committed step early in a metabolic pathway b. they often have two or more subunits, each with substrate binding sites that exhibit cooperativity c. allosteric activators cause the enzyme to bind substrate more readily d. allosteric inhibitors cause the enzyme to bind substrate less readily e. they follow the Michaelis-Menton kinetics

e. they follow the Michaelis-Menton kinetics

What is the substrate for glycogen synthesis? a. UDP-glucose b. TDP-glucose c. ADP-glucose d. CP-glucose e. GTP-glucose

a. UDP-glucose

Which of the following best describes an "uncompetitive inhibitor"? a. essentially a noncompetitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached b. essentially a competitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached c. a noncompetitive inhibitor that can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration d. an irreversible inhibitor (the two are synonyms)

a. essentially a noncompetitive inhibitor that can bind only when the substrate is attached

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme: a. increases Km without affecting Vmax b. decreases Km without affecting Vmax c. increases Vmax without affecting Km d. decreases both Vmax and Km

a. increases Km without affecting Vmax

Trypsinogen is activated either by trypsin or by the duodenal enzyme: a. endopeptidase b. alanine aminotransferase c. enteropeptidase d. pancreatic lipase

a. endopeptidase

Which enzyme is derived from osteoblasts and its serum level rises in bone conditions with increased osteoblastic activity? a. lactate dehydrogenase b. alanine transaminase c. alkaline phosphatase d. acid phosphatase

c. alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following equations is correct? a. haloenzyme + cofactor = cohaloenzyme b. apoenzyme + cofactor = haloenzyme c. coenzyme + cofactor = enzyme d. coenzyme + apoenzyme = coapoenzyme

b. apoenzyme + cofactor = haloenzyme

Which of the following functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration? a. pyridoxal phosphate b. biocytin c. thiamine pyrophosphate d. tetrahydrofolate

c. thiamine pyrophosphate

All of the major anterior pituitary hormones, EXCEPT for growth hormone exert their principal effects by stimulating target glands such as the thyroid gland, adrenal cortex, ovaries, testicles and mammary glands. Growth hormone, in contrast to other hormones, does not function through a target gland but exerts its effects directly on all or almost all tissues of the body. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Testosterone and pituitary FSH are required for normal sperm production. Many cells express the androgen receptor and the FSH receptor. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is true, the second is false Many cells express the androgen receptor and the FSH receptor.❌

All of the following hormones use the adenylyl cyclase-cAMP second messenger system EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) b. calcitonin c. glucagon d. somatostatin e. thyroid-releasing hormone

e. thyroid-releasing hormone

Which of the following is the best-known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion by the anterior pituitary gland? a. exposure to heat b. exposure to cold c. exposure to stress d. exposure to relaxation

b. exposure to cold

Releasing hormones are synthesized in the: a. posterior pituitary b. hypothalamus c. anterior pituitary d. ovary

b. hypothalamus

ADH is formed primarily in the paraventricular nuclei and oxytocin is formed primarily in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. ADH and oxytocin are secreted by the posterior pituitary. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true ADH is formed primarily in the paraventricular nuclei and oxytocin is formed primarily in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus.❌ ADH is formed primarily in the SUPRAOPTIC nuclei and oxytocin is formed primarily in the PARAVENTICULAR nuclei of the hypothalamus.

All of the following are factors and conditions that decrease insulin secretion EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. decreased blood glucose b. fasting c. somatostatin d. increased blood free fatty acids e. alpha-adrenergic activity

d. increased blood free fatty acids

Glucagon, a hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans whem blood glucose concentration falls, has several functions that are diametrically opposed to those of insulin. The most important function of glucagon is to increase the blood glucose concentration, an effect that is exactly the opposite that of a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

As the acidic stomach contents pass into the small intestine, the low pH triggers secretion of the hormone into the blood. a. cholecystokinin b. gastric inhibitory peptide c. gastrin d. secretin

d. secretin

The enterogastric reflex, which is initiated when the duodenum fills with ____, inhibits the "pyloric pump," thereby inhibiting gastric motility and emptying. a. bicarbonate b. acid chyme c. enkephalins d. water

b. acid chyme

All of the following statements concerning aldosterone are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. causes Na+ retention b. causes K+ excretion c. renin controls it d. acts at the distal tubule e. is produced in the kidney

e. is produced in the kidney❌ is produced in the ADRENAL CORTEX

Oral contraceptives work by: a. inhibiting follicle formation by eliminating the LH surge b. inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the LH surge c. inhibiting follicle formation by eliminating the FSH surge d. inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the FSH surge

b. inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the LH surge

About 93% of the metabolically active hormones secreted by the thyroid gland is thyroxine (Ta), and 7% triiodothyronine (Ts). Ta is deiodinated and then T, typically binds to the TH receptor. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Catecholamines are synthesized from: a. alanine b. tyrosine c. proline d. arginine

b. tyrosine

All o f the following are affected by epinephrine and/or norepinephrine EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. blood glucose b. total peripheral resistance c. heart rate d. kidney function

d. kidney function

Parathyroid hormone causes which of the following to occur? a. removal of calcium via the kidney b. removal of calcium from bone c. removal of calcium via the GI system d. none of the above

b. removal of calcium from bone

Which of the following hormones' secretion is stimulated by stomach distention? a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin (CCK) c. secretin d. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) e. all of the above

a. gastrin

Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones seems to be the most potent in causing a moderate increase in insulin secretion? a. gastrin b. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) c. cholecystokinin (CCK) d. secretin

b. gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

A tumor of the adrenal gland is causing your patient to conserve sodium in the renal tubules causing increased blood volume, pressure and edema. Where is the location of this adenoma? a. zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex b. zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex c. zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex d. adrenal medulla

a. zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

Cortisol is the primary glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex gland. Cortisol's principal physiological actions include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. increase hepatic gluconeogenesis b. increase hepatic glycogenolysis c. increase protein catabolism d. stimulation of fat deposition and inhibition of lipolysis e. inhibit ACTH secretion (negative feedback mechanism) f. maintenance of blood pressure by sensitizing arterioles to the action of noradrenaline g. renal excretion

d. stimulation of fat deposition and inhibition of lipolysis

Which of the following is classified as a "stress hormone"? a. growth hormone (GH) b. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

ACTH stimulates the excretion of: a. cortisol b. adrenalin c. aldosterone d. two of the above

a. cortisol

Cortisol (hydrocortisone) has a direct inhibitory effect on which structures? Select 2. a. adrenal cortex b. hypothalamus c. anterior pituitary gland d. posterior pituitary gland

b. hypothalamus c. anterior pituitary gland

The placenta secretes five hormones that are essential to pregnancy. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. oxytocin b. progesterone c. relaxin d. estrogen e. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) f. human placental lactogen (hPL)

a. oxytocin❌

Somatostatin acts by both endocrine and paracrine pathways to affect its target cells. A majority of the circulating somatostatin appears to come from the ____ and ____ a. gallbladder, large intestine b. pancreas, gastrointestinal tract c. stomach, adrenal medulla d. bladder, small intestine

b. pancreas, gastrointestinal tract

Prolactin is said to be under "predominant inhibitory control." Which of the following explains why? a. In normal conditions, prolactin is constantly synthesized in the anterior kick iny. Only when prolactin is not needed does the inhibitory mechanism b. In normal conditions, prolactin inhibitory factor is produced by the hypothalamus. Only when prolactin is needed does the hypothalamus stop synthesis and secretion. c. In normal conditions, prolactin is synthesized by the hypothalamus. However, prolactin inhibitory hormone prevents the secretion unless prolactin is needed. d. In normal conditions, prolactin inhibitory factor is produced by the anterior pituitary. Only when prolactin is needed does this stop and the ovaries are able to produce prolactin.

b. In normal conditions, prolactin inhibitory factor is produced by the hypothalamus. Only when prolactin is needed does the hypothalamus stop synthesis and secretion.

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine in the adrenal medulla? a. cyclooxygenase b. phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase c. adenylyl cyclase d. phospholipase C

b. phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase

Calcitonin, a peptide hormone secreted by the thyroid gland, tends to decrease plasma calcium concentration. In general, calcitonin has effects opposite to those of parathyroid hormone. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Which of the following hormones is synthesized from tyrosine? a. thyroid hormone b. insulin c. progesterone d. parathyroid hormone

a. thyroid hormone

On his 21st birthday, John celebrates with his first few beers. He notices (along with other symptoms of inebriation) that he has an increased need to urinate. This is physiologically caused by a decrease in production of: a. oxytocin b. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. parathyroid hormone (PTH) d. aldosterone

b. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Polypeptide and protein hormones are stored in secretory vesicles until needed. Steroid hormones are usually synthesized from cholesterol and are not stored. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

All cells have a resting potential. During the upstroke of the action potential, the cell repolarizes, or becomes less positive. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is true, the second is false During the upstroke of the action potential, the cell repolarizes, or becomes less positive.❌ During the upstroke of the action potential, the cell repolarizes, or becomes less NEGATIVE

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. peripheral nerve fibers can sometimes regenerate if the soma (cell body) is not damaged and some of the neurilemma remains intact b. the neurilemma forms a regeneration tube through which the growing axon reestablishes its original connection c. if the nerve originally led to a skeletal muscle, the muscle atrophies in the absence of innervation but regrows when the connection is re-established d. nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the thickest neurilemma

d. nerve fibers of the CNS (brain and spinal cord) possess the thickest neurilemma

The primary action of local anesthetics in producing a conduction block is to decrease the permeability of the ion channels to: a. calcium ions b. chloride ions c. potassium ions d. sodium ions

d. sodium ions

Discriminating touch and pressure sensations: a. Lateral spinothalamic b. Anterior spinothalamic c. Fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus d. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar

c. Fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus

Unconscious kinesthesia: a. Lateral spinothalamic b. Anterior spinothalamic c. Fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus d. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar

d. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar

Pain, temperature, and crude touch; opposite side: a. Lateral spinothalamic b. Anterior spinothalamic c. Fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus d. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar

a. Lateral spinothalamic

Crude touch and pressure: a. Lateral spinothalamic b. Anterior spinothalamic c. Fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus d. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar

b. Anterior spinothalamic

Spatial summation occurs when: a. two inhibitory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron within 1 minute of each other b. two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron simultaneously c. two inhibitory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron 10 seconds apart d. two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession

b. two excitatory inputs arrive at a postsynaptic neuron simultaneously

Saltatory conduction happens in myelinated neurons only. Which of the following are effects of saltatory conduction compared to conventional conduction? Select 2. a. conduction is faster b. conduction is slower c. conduction is at the same rate d. conduction consumes more energy e. conduction consumes less energy f. conduction consumes the same energy

a. conduction is faster e. conduction consumes less energy

In most instances, acetylcholine has an inhibitory effect. GABA is believed always to cause inhibition. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true In most instances, acetylcholine has an inhibitory effect.❌ In most instances, acetylcholine has an EXCITATORY effect.

A patient of yours presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease. He claims that the physicians have not diagnosed him with Parkinson's because it was due to trauma. The trauma affected which part of his brain? a. pons b. parietal lobe c. basal ganglia d. thalamus

c. basal ganglia

The two classes of acetylcholine receptors in autonomic ganglia are: a. nicotinic and alpha b. alpha and beta c. nicotinic and muscarinic d. muscarinic and beta

c. nicotinic and muscarinic

Motor signals are transmitted directly from the cortex to the spinal cord through corticospnal tract and indirectly through multiple accessory pathways that involve the basal ganglia, cerebellum and various nuclei of the brain stem. The most important output pathway from the motor cortex is the corticospinal tract, also called the pyramidal tract. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

The effectors of the autonomic nervous system include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. smooth muscle b. cardiac muscle c. glands d. skeletal muscle

d. skeletal muscle

The action potential is generated by the rapid opening and subsequent voltage inactivation of voltage-dependent ____ channels and the delayed opening and closing of voltage-dependent ____ channels. a. Na+, Cl- b. K+, Na+ c. Na+, K+ d. K+, Cl-

c. Na+, K+

A patient of yours lists a selective ß-blocker in her medication list. You know that this is for her hypertension. What is the mechanism of this drug? a. blocks B1,-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction b. blocks ß2-cholinergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction c. blocks ß1-cholinergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction d. blocks ß2-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction

a. blocks B1,-adrenergic receptors in the heart, causing a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction

All cells, including neurons, have a resting membrane potential that is typically around (-)70 mV. An action potential is propagated with the same shape and size along the entire length of the axon. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Exteroreceptors signal internal events. Sensory receptors can be classified in terms of the types of energy that they transduce or according to the sources of the input. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false d. the first statement is false, the second statement is true

d. the first statement is false, the second statement is true Exteroreceptors signal internal events.❌ INTERORECEPTORS signal internal events

When scaling and root planing, you are using a firm finger rest for minutes at a time. Which of the following are the receptors that are used in sensing this continuous pressure? a. Pacinian corpuscles b. Meissner's corpuscles c. Ruffini's corpuscles d. Krause's corpuscles

c. Ruffini's corpuscles

Which of the following are the receptors used when you are manipulating an instrument in your fingers? a. Pacinian corpuscles b. Meissner's corpuscles c. Ruffini's corpuscles d. Krause's corpuscles

a. Pacinian corpuscles

The primary functional unit of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is the: a. one-neuron motor pathway b. two-neuron motor pathway c. three-neuron motor pathway d. four-neuron motor pathway

b. two-neuron motor pathway

All preganglionic neurons are _____ in both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems. a. dopaminergic b. serotonergic c. cholinergic d. adrenergic

c. cholinergic

Nerves connects with muscles at the ____. There, the ends of nerve fibers connect to special sites on the muscle's membrane called _____. These plates contain receptors that enable the muscle to respond to _____. a. gap junction, motor end plates, norepinephrine b. mucocutaneous junction, visceral end plates, epinephrine c. neuromuscular junction, motor end plates, acetylcholine d. neuromuscular junction, sensory end plates, norepinephrine

c. neuromuscular junction, motor end plates, acetylcholine

The entry of which of the following into the presynaptic terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitter? a. sodium b. potassium c. chloride d. calcium

d. calcium

Strictly speaking, the all-or-none principle refers to the: a. strength of muscle contraction b. resting potential c. action potential d. excitatory postsynaptic potential

c. action potential

Tracts descending to the spinal cord are concerned with voluntary motor function, muscle tone, reflexes, equilibrium, visceral innervation, and modulation of ascending sensory signals. The largest and most important of these tracts that controls skilled voluntary movement is the: a. rubrospinal tract b. vestibulospinal tract c. reticulospinal tract d. corticospinal tract

d. corticospinal tract

There are two major groups of descending tracts from the brain: the corticospinal, or pyramidal tracts, and the extrapyramidal tracts. The pyramidal tracts descend directly without synaptic interruption, from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Which of the following characteristics is shared by simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose? a. it is saturable b. requires metabolic energy c. occurs down an electrochemical gradient d. require a Na gradient

c. occurs down an electrochemical gradient

Which of the following patients has the least chance of edema formation? a. a patient with inflammation b. a patient who is standing c. a patient with venous constriction d. a patient with arteriolar constriction

d. a patient with arteriolar constriction

A solution that when placed on the outside of the cell will cause osmosis out of the cell a. Isotonic b. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic

c. Hypertonic

A solution that when placed on the outside of the cell wall will cause osmosis into the cell a. Isotonic b. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic

b. Hypotonic

A solution that when placed on the outside of the cell will not cause osmosis a. Isotonic b. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic

a. Isotonic

Which of the following is NOT an oncogene? a. HER-2/neu b. ras c. myc d. src e. CAAT

e. CAAT

The organic part of bone matrix is mainly composed of type III collagen. The collagen fibers provide bone with great tensile strength, while the inorganic salts allow bone to withstand compression. both statements are true a. both statements are false b. the first statement is true, the second is false c. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is false, the second is true The organic part of bone matrix is mainly composed of type III collagen❌ The organic part of bone matrix is mainly composed of type II collagen

All of the following bonds are considered to be weak bonds EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. hydrogen bonds b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. van der Waals forces

c. covalent bonds

Weak bonds are involved in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. secondary structure of proteins b. cell membrane c. dsDNA structure d. amino acid linkage

d. amino acid linkage

The pitch of a sound is related mainly to which of the following characteristics of a sound wave? a. amplitude of the sound wave b. frequency of the sound wave c. superimposed wave d. secondary waves e. length of the sound wave

b. frequency of the sound wave

The major intracellular cation is: a. sodium b. potassium c. magnesium d. chromium

b. potassium

The temperature of the body is regulated by neural feedback mechanisms that operate primarily through the hypothalamus. Shivering is the most potent mechanism for increasing heat production. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Which of the following solutions has an osmotic pressure different from the other two solutions? a. 1M glucose b. 1M sodium chloride c. 1M potassium chloride d. they all have the same osmotic pressure

a. 1M glucose

Which of the following statements concerning the two principal laws of thermodynamics is FALSE? a. they apply only to closed systems, that is, entities within which there can be no loss of energy or of mass b. the first law says that the total quantity of energy in the universe remains constant (this is the principle of the conservation of energy) c. the second law states that the quality of this energy is degraded irreversibly (this is the principle of the degradation of energy) d. the second law, known as Carnot's principle, is controlled by the concept of entropy e. the two laws describe the concept that Delta G is positive in an exergonic reaction

e. the two laws describe the concept that Delta G is positive in an exergonic reaction

Isotopes of an element: a. have different chemical properties but the same weights b. have the same chemical properties but different weights c. have different chemical properties and weights d. have the same chemical properties and weights

b. have the same chemical properties but different weights

Growth and preparation of the chromosomes for replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle? a. G0 b. S c. G2 d. M e. G1

e. G1 NOTES: The cell cycle consists of the following: • G1 (GAP 1)= growth and preparation of the chromosomes for replication • S (SYNTHESIS) = synthesis of DNA (and centrosomes) • G2 (GAP 2) = preparation for mitosis • M = MITOSIS

Which class of antibody is the first antibody to appear in the circulation after antigen stimulation? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM

e. IgM

Three patients ingest three different substances. Match the substance to the description of the patient's urine. 1. Jim ate a substance that is filtered into the renal tubules but is then reabsorbed fully 2. Art ate a substance that is filtered and secreted, so the entire amount of substance was released in the first pass 3. Matt ate a substance that was freely filtered and neither secreted or reabsorbed a. Inulin b. Glucose c. Para-aminohippurate (PAH) 4. Which patient is being tested for his glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

1. b. Glucose 2. c. Para-aminohippurate (PAH) 3. a. Inulin 4. Matt

The thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is called the "diluting segment" because: a. sodium chloride (NaCI) is reabsorbed with a proportional amount of water b. water is reabsorbed from the tubular lumen c. water is secreted into the tubular lumen d. sodium chloride (NaCI) is reabsorbed without water e. sodium chloride (NaCi) is reabsorbed and water is secreted

d. sodium chloride (NaCI) is reabsorbed without water

The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by the a. secretion of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption ofhydrogen ions (H-) b. secretion of hydrogen ions (H+) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) c. secretion of both hydrogen (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the renal tubules d. reabsorption of both hydrogen (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

b. secretion of hydrogen ions (H+) into the renal tubules and the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

_____ is the best overall index of kidney function. a. CPR b. TFR c. APR d. GFR

d. GFR

The countercurrent mechanism is a system in the renal ____ that facilitates the ____ of the urine. The system is responsible for the secretion of ____ urine in response to ____ plasma osmolarity. a. cortex/ concentration/ hyperosmotic/ elevated b. medulla/ dilution/ hypo-osmotic/ depressed c. cortex/ dilution/ hypo-osmotic/ depressed d. medulla/ concentration/ hyperosmotic/ elevated

d. medulla/ concentration/ hyperosmotic/ elevated

Reabsorption of glomerular filtrate would be most affected if modifications were made to the permeability of which section of the nephron? a. descending loop of Henle b. distal convoluted tubule c. proximal convoluted tubule d. ascending loop of Henle

c. proximal convoluted tubule

Your afternoon patient complains that she has consumed "tons of liquids" today. The patient asks if this will have an effect on her urine concentration. What would you say in response to this question? a. Your plasma osmolarity is lower than normal, and you will likely excrete a large amount of concentrated urine b. Your plasma osmolarity is lower than normal, and you will likely excrete a large amount of dilute urine c. Your plasma osmolarity is higher than normal, and you wil likely excrete a large amount of concentrated urine d. Your plasma osmolarity is higher than normal, and you will likely excrete a large amount of dilute urine

b. Your plasma osmolarity is lower than normal, and you will likely excrete a large amount of dilute urine

What are the normal values for daily glomerular filtrate amount and excretion amount, respectively? a. 150 - 250 L; 1 - 2 L b. 150 - 250 L; 12 L c. 45 - 75 L; 1 - 2 L d. 45 - 75 L; 12 L

a. 150 - 250 L; 1 - 2 L

Ammonia is produced from the metabolism of a variety of compounds. Which compound listed below is quantitatively the most important source of ammonia? a. glutamine b. amino acids c. amines d. purines and pyrimidines e. triglycerides

b. amino acids

Ammonia is produced from the metabolism of a variety of compounds. Which compound is not a source of ammonia? a. glutamine b. amino acids c. amines d. purines and pyrimidines e. triglycerides

e. triglycerides

Ammonia is produced from the metabolism of a variety of compounds. Which compound is converted to ammonia mainly in the kidney? a. glutamine b. amino acids c. amines d. purines and pyrimidines e. triglycerides

a. glutamine

Which of the following processes is not involved in the formation of urine? a. filtration b. reabsorption c. excretion d. secretion

c. excretion—urine is excreted once it is formed, excretion is not part of formation

Which two of the following processes in the formation of urine involve the most similar amounts of fluid transport? a. filtration b. reabsorption c. excretion d. secretion

a. filtration b. reabsorption NOTES: About 99% of the filtrate is reabsorbed

Which two processes supplement each other, working in the same direction? a. filtration b. reabsorption c. excretion d. secretion

a. filtration d. secretion (tubular) NOTES: Both end substances from blood to tubules

Which process is most affected by levels of ADH? a. filtration b. reabsorption c. excretion d. secretion

b. reabsorption

Which process occurs in Bowman's capsule? a. filtration b. reabsorption c. excretion d. secretion

a. filtration

Cardiac muscle has a shortened action potential compared to skeletal muscle. In cardiac muscle, the action potential is caused by opening of two types of channels. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true Cardiac muscle has a shortened action potential compared to skeletal muscle. ❌ Cardiac muscle has a LONG (15x) action potential compared to skeletal musccle

The bicuspid or mitral valve is located between which two chambers of the heart? a. the right and left ventricles b. the right atrium and the left ventricle c. the right and left atria d. the left atrium and the left ventricle

d. the left atrium and the left ventricle

Which valve is unique in having a different number of cusps than the others? a. mitral valve b. tricuspid valve c. pulmonary semilunar valve d. aortic semilunar valve

a. mitral valve

An electrocardiogram is a graphic illustration of the: a. cardiac cycle b. cardiac conduction system c. cardiac output d. systemic and pulmonary circuits

b. cardiac conduction system

Cardiac function is the volume of blood pumped each minute, and is expressed by which equation? a. CO = SV - HR b. CO = SV + HR c. CO = SV x HR d. CO = SV / HR

c. CO = SV x HR W h e r e : • CO is cardiac output expressed in L/min • SV is stroke volume per beat • HR is the number of bears per minute

The Bainbridge Reflex is a positive feedback mechanism in which there is a compensatory increase in heart rate, due to a rise in right atrial pressure. It is commonly referred to as an Atrial Reflex. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Your patient has a defective mitral valve, allowing backflow. Which of the following cardiac phases will be least affected by this defect? a. isovolumetric contraction b. filling phase c. isovolumetric relaxation d. ejection phase

b. filling phasephase (because the mitral valve is open through this phase normally)

Normally, which phase would have the highest ventricular pressure? a. isovolumetric contraction b. filling phase c. isovolumetric relaxation d. ejection phase

d. ejection phase (isovolumetric contraction would have an increasing pressure right up until the ejection where the pressure would be the highest)

The first heart sound ("Lub") is associated with the closure of the: a. aortic and mitral valves b. mitral and tricuspid valves c. aortic and pulmonary valves d. tricuspid and pulmonary valves

b. mitral and tricuspid valves

Choose which portion of the conduction system is most likely malfunctioning. Craig has a higher than normal heart rate (tachycardia). a. sinoatrial node b. atrioventricular node c. internodal pathways d. atrioventricular bundle e. Purkinje fibers

a. sinoatrial node (the pacemaker of the heart)

Choose which portion of the conduction system is most likely malfunctioning. Gary's ventricles contract nearly simultaneously with the atria. a. sinoatrial node b. atrioventricular node c. internodal pathways d. atrioventricular bundle e. Purkinje fibers

b. atrioventricular node ( the portion responsible for delaying impulses as they pass from the atria to the ventricles)

Choose which portion of the conduction system is most likely malfunctioning. Ashley's right ventricle does not contract on the lateral side. a. sinoatrial node b. atrioventricular node c. internodal pathways d. atrioventricular bundle e. Purkinje fibers

e. Purkinje fibers (they are not transmitting impulses to the lateral side of the right ventricle)

Choose which portion of the conduction system is most likely malfunctioning. Jimmy's entire left ventricle does not contract. a. sinoatrial node b. atrioventricular node c. internodal pathways d. atrioventricular bundle e. Purkinje fibers

d. atrioventricular bundle (the AV bundle is divided, and the left bundle is not transmitting impulses). Note: Technically he could have a problem with all Purkinje fibers on the left side of his heart, but the most likely problem would be at the source of the split (the AV bundle).

The ventricles are completely depolarized during which isoelectric portion of the ECG? a. QRS complex b. Q-T interval c. S-T segment d. P wave e. P-R interval

c. S-T segment

This portion of the ECG represents atrial depolarization a. QRS complex b. Q-T interval c. S-T segment d. P wave e. P-R interval

d. P wave

This portion of the ECG represents the segment between depolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricle. a. QRS complex b. Q-T interval c. S-T segment d. P wave e. P-R interval

e. P-R interval

Venous return (VR) i s the flow of blood back to the heart. Under steady-state conditions, venous return must equal ____ when averaged over time because the cardiovascular system is essentially a closed loop. a. SV b. CO c. HR d. BP

b. CO

Which of the following equations correctly defines blood flow through the vasculature? a. flow = (initial pressure - final pressure) x resistance b. flow = (initial pressure - final pressure ) / resistance c. flow = resistance / (initial pressure - final pressure)

b. flow = (initial pressure - final pressure ) / resistance

Changes in vessel are most important quantitatively for regulating blood flow within an organ, as well as for regulating arterial pressure. a. thickness b. length c. diameter d. viscosity

c. diameter

The contraction of _____ (skeletal / cardiac / smooth) muscle a(n) _____ (increase / decrease) in intrathoracic pressure. The presence of venous ______ (valves / peristalsis) a(n) _____ (increase / decrease) in venous compliance.

The contraction of SKELETAL muscle a DECREASE in intrathoracic pressure. The presence of venous VALVES a DECREASE in venous compliance.

Which of the following parameters is decreased during exercise? a. heart rate b. cardiac output c. total peripheral resistance d. stroke volume e. arterial pressure

c. total peripheral resistance

Parasympathetic fibers innervate the heart by way of the vagus nerves. The right vagus nerve goes to the AV node while the left vagus nerve goes to the SA node. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is true, the second is false The right vagus nerve goes to the AV node while the left vagus nerve goes to the SA node.❌ The right vagus nerve goes to the SA node while the left vagus nerve goes to the AV node.

If a patient's SA and AV nodes fail, what is the most likely situation the patient will be in? a. dead; the patient's heart will fail immediately b. both the atria and ventricles will continue to contract on the pace of the bundle of His (30-40 impulses per minute) c. the ventricles will contract and passively fill, keeping the patient alive for a short period d. the atria will take over and contract; the ventricles will allow the blood to flow through and out to the periphery of the body

b. both the atria and ventricles will continue to contract on the pace of the bundle of His (30-40 impulses per minute)

The isoelectric point (pl): a. is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges on a molecule equal each other b. is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges in a solution equal each other c. can be determined using the Henderson Hasselbalch equation d. is the pKa of a solution at which it is neither basic nor acidic e. two of the above

a. is the pH at which the number of positive and negative charges on a molecule equal each other

Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that has a 10 ^-4 M concentration of OH ion? a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 7 e. 10

e. 10

Carbonic acid/bicarbonate is the most important physiological buffer system in the body. Proteins also participate in pH buffering, mainly through their histidine side chains. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false e. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

The famous relationship stated in the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation can be used to: a. predict the pH that acid buffers work best at b. predict the pK, that acid buffers work best at c. predict the dissociation constant of a weak acid only d. predict the dissociation constant of a strong acid only e. predict the dissociation constant of any acid

. predict the pH that acid buffers work best at

All of the following are mechanisms the body uses to control the blood's acid-base balance EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. excess acid is excreted by the kidneys b. pH buffers are found in the blood c. excretion of carbon dioxide d. filtering blood by the spleen

d. filtering blood by the spleen

Respiratory acidosis results from hyperventilation. Metabolic acidosis results from excessive vomiting. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

b. both statements are false Respiratory acidosis results from hyperventilation.❌ Respiratory ALKALOSIS results from hyperventilation Metabolic acidosis results from excessive vomiting.❌ Metabolic ALKALOSIS results from excessive vomiting.

The cell (plasma) membrane is a fluid mosaic of: a. lipids and carbohydrates b. proteins and carbohydrates c. lipids and proteins d. carbohydrates

c. lipids and proteins

Proteins account for about one quarter of the total mass in most membranes Membrane proteins are globular proteins. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true Proteins account for about one quarter of the total mass in most membranes❌ Proteins account for about one HALF of the total mass in most membranes

Molecules that can easily penetrate a biologic membrane are usually: a. large and nonpolar b. small and polar c. large and polar d. small and nonpolar

d. small and nonpolar

The organic matrix of enamel is made from noncollagenous proteins only and contains several enamel proteins and enzymes. Of the enamel proteins, 90% are a heterogenous group of low-molecular-weight proteins known as amelogenins. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

All of the following statements concerning enamel hypoplasia are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. it is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix b. the enamel of primary and permanent teeth appear pitted c. radiographically, the enamel is either absent or very thin over tips of cusps andinterproximal areas d. it can be caused by nutritional deficiencies

a. it is a defect in the mineralization of the formed enamel matrix❌ it is a defect in the FORMATION of the enamel matrix

Caries activity is directly proportional to all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. the consistency of fermentable carbohydrates ingested b. the quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested c. the frequency of ingesting fermentable carbohydrates d. the oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates ingested

b. the quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested

The primary physiologic control of the salivary glands is by the sympathetic nervous system. Control of salivary secretion is exclusively neural. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true The primary physiologic control of the salivary glands is by the sympathetic nervous system.❌ The primary physiologic control of the salivary glands is by the PARASYMPATHETIC nervous system.❌

All of the following characterize saliva EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. low K+ concentration b. low osmolarity c. the inorganic composition is entirely dependent on the stimulus and therate of salivary flow d. it is always hypotonic

a. low K+ concentration

The nonessential amino acids are synthesized either from common metabolic intermediates or from other amino acids. Only three amino acids, leucine, lysine and histidine, are exclusively ketogenic. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is true, the second is false Only three amino acids, leucine, lysine and histidine, are exclusively ketogenic.❌ Only TWO amino acids, LEUCINE and LYSINE are exclusively ketogenic.

In eukaryotes, DNA does not exist free; it is complexed with an approximately equal mass of basic proteins called histones. These histones contain a large portion of: a. cysteine and lysine b. arginine and lysine c. lysine and glutamine d. glutamine and arginine

b. arginine and lysine

Which one of the following statements about protein structure is correct? a. proteins consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure b. the formation of a disulfide bond in a protein requires that the two participating cysteine residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the protein c. the stability of quaternary structure in proteins is mainly due to covalent bonds among the subunits d. the information required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain

d. the information required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acids along the polypeptide chain

Most plasma proteins are derived from the: a. kidney b. liver c. plasma cells d. T cells

b. liver

A peptide bond forms between the group of one amino acid and the group of the adjacent amino acid. a. amino; amino b. carboxyl; carboxyl c. carboxyl; amino

c. carboxyl; amino

Both hemoglobin in RBCs and myoglobin in the muscles employ heme a s aprosthetic group. Myoglobin consists of a single polypeptide with a noncovalently bound heme group while hemoglobin has four polypeptides, each with its own heme. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

All amino acids found in proteins are of the: a. D-configuration b. L-configuration c. F-configuration d. C-configuration

b. L-configuration

In contrast to hemoglobin and myoglobin where the iron is always in the ferrous state (Fe2+), the heme iron of the cytochromes: a. is always in the Fe3+ state b. is always in the Fe4+ state c. is always in the Fe5+ state d. switches back and forth between Fe2+ and Fe3+

d. switches back and forth between Fe2+ and Fe3+

All amino acids have a carboxyl group and an amino group, both bound to the same carbon. This carbon is called the: a. α-carbon b. ß-carbon c. γ-carbon d. I-carbon

a. α-carbon

Glutamate can be synthesized by the addition of ammonia to α-ketoglutarate. All of the following amino acids can be derived from glutamate EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. asparagine b. glutamine c. proline d. arginine

a. asparagine

Elastin has an aberrant amino acid composition, with high proportions of: a. valine, phenylalanine and lysine b. tryptophan, histidine and methionine c. glycine, alanine and proline d. threonine, cysteine and glutamate

c. glycine, alanine and proline

Which of the following amino acids carry a positive charge on the side chain which malkes them basic? Select 3. a. lysine b. glutamate c. arginine d. histidine e. aspartate f. tyrosine

a. lysine c. arginine d. histidine

The primary structure of a protein refers to the spatial arrangement of The secondary structure of a protein refers to the irregular folding of a polypeptide chain (the overall three-dimensional conformation of the polypeptide) The secondary structure of a protein refers to the irregular folding of a polypeptide chain (the overall three-dimensional conformation of the polypeptide). a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

b. both statements are false The primary structure of a protein refers to the spatial arrangement of a portion of a polypeptide chain determined by the amino acids present.❌ The primary structure consists of a SEQUENCE OF AMINO ACIDS linked together by COVALENT PEPTIDE BONDS The secondary structure of a protein refers to the irregular folding of a polypeptide chain (the overall three-dimensional conformation of the polypeptide).❌ The secondary structure of a protein refers to the SPACIAL ARRANGEMENT of a portion of a polypeptide chain determined by the amino acids present (primary structure).

Patients with vitamin C deficiency (scurvy) form a collagen with insufficient: a. isoleucine b. hydroxylysine c. valine d. hydroxyproline

d. hydroxyproline

Which of the following serves as a principal source of carbon for nonessential amino acids? a. fats b. water c. carbohydrates d. urea

c. carbohydrates

A patient of yours suffers from phenylketonuria (PKU). Your dental assistant offers her a bottle of soda. The patient, a relatively intelligent dental student, responds by saying: a. I cannot have this because it contains tyrosine, which I am unable to metabolize b. I cannot have this because it contains phenylalanine, which I am unable to metabolize c. Thank you, I need to drink this to supplement my phenylalanine levels d. Thank you, I need to drink this to supplement my tyrosine levels

b. I cannot have this because it contains phenylalanine, which I am unable to metabolize

A patient of yours suffers from phenylketonuria (PKU). Which supplement would you expect this patient to be taking? a. tyrosine b. phenylalanine c. both tyrosine and phenylalanine d. neither, no supplement needed

a. tyrosine (she cannot produce this amino acid)

All G proteins exist in two forms: a. an inactive GTP-bound form that acts on the effector and an active GDP- bound form that does not b. an active GTP-bound form that acts on the effector and an inactive GDP-bound form that does not c. an active ATP-bound form that acts on the effector and an inactive ADP- bound form that does not d. an inactive ATP-bound form that acts on the effector and an active ADP-bound form that does not

b. an active GTP-bound form that acts on the effector and an inactive GDP-bound form that does not

In saturated fatty acids, the carbons are linked exclusively by single bonds. Monounsaturated fatty acids have one carbon-carbon double bond and polyunsaturated fatty acids have more than one. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Dietary triglycerides are digested and broken down to free fatty acids and 2-monoacylglycerol by pancreatic lipase which are absorbed with the help of: a. elastase b. pepsinogen c. trypsinogen d. bile salts

d. bile salts

A membrane phospholipid that does NOT contain glycerol is: a. lecithin b. sphingomyelin c. cerebroside d. cardiolipin

b. sphingomyelin

Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most dense to least dense? a. HDL- VLDL- chylomicrons- LDL b. LDL-chylomicrons-HDL-VLDL c. HDL-LDL-VLDL-chylomicrons d. VLDL-chylomicrons-LDL-HDL • chylomicrons-HDL-LDL-VLDL

c. HDL-LDL-VLDL-chylomicrons

Which of the following statements about plasma lipoproteins are correct? Select 2. a. chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues b. HDL particles are produced from LDL particles in the circulation by the action of lipoprotein lipase c. HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells in extrahepatic tissues d. very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles are the precursors of LDL in the circulation

a. chylomicrons are synthesized in the intestinal mucosal cells and transport triacylglycerol to the peripheral tissues d. very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles are the precursors of LDL in the circulation

Ketone bodies are formed only in the: a. stomach b. kidney c. pancreas d. liver

d. liver

All of the following are sources of acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. creatinine b. pyruvate c. glucose d. citrate

a. creatinine

Which of the following is involved in both fatty acid catabolism and synthesis? a. carnitine b. coenzyme A c. malonyl-CoA d. alcohol dehydrogenase

b. coenzyme A

A patient of yours has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. This causes ketosis, or high levels of ketone bodies, in the body tissues and fluid. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of this condition? a. fruity breath b. lowered pH of the blood c. decreased potassium in the urine d. ketone bodies in the urine

c. decreased potassium in the urine

All of the following statements concerning fatty acid synthesis are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. fatty acid synthesis involves two carbon additions primarily from acetyl-CoA b. the important step in fatty acid synthesis is the first one in which acetyl-CoA, ATP and bicarbonate form malonyl-CoA c. fatty acid synthesis is not a simple reversal of -oxidation used for the catabolism of fatty acids d. fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)

d. fatty acid synthesis takes place in the mitochondria while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm)❌ fatty acid synthesis takes place in the CYTOSOL while fatty acid breakdown (catabolism) occurs in the MITOCHONDRIA

Choline is required for synthesis and release of acetylcholine. Choline is also a precursor for synthesis of the phospholipids phosphatidyicholine (lecithin) and sphingomyelin. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

The binding of glucagon to its receptor: a. deactivates adenylate cyclase b. activates adenylate cyclase c. causes the breakdown of cyclic AMP to ATP d. causes the production of ATP from cAMP e. deactivates protein kinase

b. activates adenylate cyclase

The electron transport or respiratory chain gets its name from the fact that electrons are transported to meet up with oxygen from respiration at the end of the chain. The overall electron chain transport reaction is: a. (1H+) + (1e+) + (2 02) → H20 + energy b. (2H+) + (2e+) + (1/2 02)→ H20 + energy c. (3H+) + (3e+) + (1 02) → H20 + energy d. (4H+) + (4e+) + (2 02)→ H20 + energy

b. (2H+) + (2e+) + (1/2 02)→ H20 + energy

Which complex contains cytochromes b and c, and an Fe-S center? a. complex I b. complex Il c. complex III d. complex IV

c. complex III

All of the following statements concerning the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. the cycle starts with the 4-carbon compound oxaloacetate, adds 2 carbons from acetyl-CoA, loses 2 carbons as COz and regenerates the 4-carbon compound oxaloacetate b. the pyruvate that enters this cycle is generated by the glycolysis of glucose or protein catabolism c. this cycle is controlled by regulation of several enzyme activities. The most important of these regulated enzymes are citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase and a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex c. the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol d. aspartic acid and oxaloacetic acid are interconvertible

c. the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the cytosol❌ the enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle are found in the MITOCHONDRIA

Which of the following is the pace-setting enzyme of glycolysis? a. hexokinase b. phosphoglucose isomerase c. phosphofructokinase d. aldolase e. triose phosphate isomerase f. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase g. phosphoglycerate kinase h. phosphoglyceromutase i. enolase j. pyruvate kinase

c. phosphofructokinase

Which of the following is the first step to use energy rather than produce it? a. hexokinase b. phosphoglucose isomerase c. phosphofructokinase d. aldolase e. triose phosphate isomerase f. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase g. phosphoglycerate kinase h. phosphoglyceromutase i. enolase j. pyruvate kinase

a. hexokinase (traps glucose ito the cell)

Which of the following is the enzyme that produces two distinctcarbon-based molecules? a. hexokinase b. phosphoglucose isomerase c. phosphofructokinase d. aldolase e. triose phosphate isomerase f. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase g. phosphoglycerate kinase h. phosphoglyceromutase i. enolase j. pyruvate kinase

d. aldolase

Which of the following is the metabolic pathway in which there is a shuttling of glucose and lactate between muscle and liver during physical exercise? a. hydrologic cycle b. cori cycle c. carbon cycle d. glucose cycle

b. cori cycle (Lactic acid cycle)

Lactic acid fermentation is a reaction which occurs in cells without ____ or in cells when ___ is limited. a. nucleoli; CO2 b. mitochondria; O2 c. cytoplasmic granules; H+ d. mitochondria; CO2

b. mitochondria; O2

The most common pathway of glycolysis is: a. the Entner-Doudoroff pathway b. the Embden-Meyerhof pathway c. the Pentose Phosphate pathway d. the Urea pathway

b. the Embden-Meyerhof pathway

All of the following are characteristic of the pentose phosphate pathway EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. it produces COz b. it is controlled by inhibition of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH c. it requires ATP for phosphorylation d. it produces ribose 5-phosphate e. it involves the breakage and formation of C-C bonds

c. it requires ATP for phosphorylation

Oxidative phosphorylation is the major source of ATP in aerobic organisms. The generation of GTP from succinyl CoA is an example of substrate level-phosphorylation in which the production of high-energy phosphate is coupled to the conversion of substrate to product, rather than resulting from oxidative phosphorylation. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Theoretically, in most human cells, one glucose molecule produces enough usable chemical energy to synthesize: a. 30-32 ATP molecules b. 32-34 ATP molecules c. 36-38 ATP molecules d. 44-48 ATP molecules

c. 36-38 ATP molecules

Gluconeogenesis is the reverse of glycolysis. Gluconeogenesis produces glucose from amino acids, lactate and glycerol. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true Gluconeogenesis is the reverse of glycolysis.❌ Gluconeogenesis uses the reversible reactions of glycolysis while bypassing the irreversible ones.

Which of the following cells in the body metabolize glucose only through anaerobic pathways? a. muscle cells b. red blood cells c. hepatocytes d. neural cells

b. red blood cells

The common precursor of all three aromatic amino acids is: a. chorismate b. phosphoenolpyruvate c. shikimate d. ribose 5-phosphate

a. chorismate

A patient of yours fails to tell you about his or her allergy to latex. You walk into the room and begin treatment. The allergic reaction presenting causes histamine release. All of the following are responses to this EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. vasodilation (particularly the arterioles) b. secretion of HCL c. bronchoconstriction d. increased blood pressure e. increased vascular permeability (particularly in capillaries and venules)

d. increased blood pressure❌ DECREASED blood pressure

All of the following statements concerning heparin are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. unlike other glycosaminoglycans that are extracellular compounds, heparin is an intracellular component of mast cells that line arteries, especially in the liver, lungs and skin b. it serves as a powerful anticoagulant c. it is used in the treatment of certain types of lung, blood vessel and heart disorders,and during or after certain types of surgery (open heart or bypass surgeries) d. small quantities are produced by basophil cells of the blood e. it is usually found in large quantities in the blood

e. it is usually found in large quantities in the blood❌ NOTES: Its concentration in the blood is normally slight, so that only underlimited physiological conditions does heparin have significant anticoagulant effects.

An apprehensive dental patient comes in and states that he already took ibuprofen for the pain he anticipates from the appointment today. As you know, this inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins. All of the following statements are true about prostaglandins EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. they have a very short half-life b. they generally act locally on or near the tissue that produced them c. they are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex d. the common precursor of prostaglandins is arachidonic acid (an unsaturated fatty acid) e. their synthesis can be inhibited by a numberof unrelated compounds, including aspirin and cortisol

c. they are synthesized only in the liver and the adrenal cortex❌ they are synthesized BY A BROAD VARIETY OF TISSUES

All o f the following are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. prostaglandins b. prostacyclin c. leukotrienes d. thromboxanes

c. leukotrienes

The liver synthesizes all of the so-called nonessential amino acids. The liver plays an important role in glucose metabolism by engaging in gluconeogenesis. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

In a cotton-candy-eating competition, you consume 14 moderately sized and overpriced bags of threaded sugar. This causes your portal vein to drop tremendous loads of glucose to your hepatocytes soon after. Which of the following enzymes functions only when this happens? a. pyruvate kinase b. glucokinase c. phosphoructokinase d. hexokinase

b. glucokinase

The liver releases glucose back into the circulating blood during exercise. Which organs take up this extra glucose? Select all that apply. a. kidneys b. muscle c. heart d. brain e. lungs

b. muscle d. brain

One of the two nitrogen atoms in urea comes from ammonia via carbamoyl phosphate; and the other from: a. valine b. glycine c. aspartate d. isoleucine

c. aspartate

The major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is: a. thiolase b. HMG-CoA reductase c. HMG-CoA synthase d. HMG-CoA kinase

b. HMG-CoA reductase

Which of the following is a cofactor required for the hydroxylation of lysine and proline? a. riboflavin b. vitamin E c. vitamin C d. folacin

c. vitamin C

Which of the following is a part of active cytochrome oxidase? a. zinc b. vitamin C c. copper d. vitamin K e. magnesium

c. copper

A patient of yours with a PhD in nutrition tries to trip you up by saying that he supplements every morning with tocopherol. What is he talking about? a. riboflavin b. vitamin E c. vitamin C d. folacin

b. vitamin E

Which of the following is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet? a. pellagra b. megaloblastic anemia c. pernicious anemia d. beri-beri

d. beri-beri

Which of the following statements concerning niacin are correct? Select 2. a. a deficiency causes pellagra b. it is the precursor of FAD c. pork, whole grains, and legumes are the richest sources of niacin d. limited quantities of niacin can be obtained from the metabolism of tryptophan

a. a deficiency causes pellagra d. limited quantities of niacin can be obtained from the metabolism of tryptophan

Pernicious anemia is caused by the malabsorption of: a. vitamin A b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin C d. vitamin E

b. vitamin B12

Which vitamin plays a key role in amino acid metabolism? a. vitamin A b. vitamin B6 c. vitamin K d. vitamin B12

b. vitamin B6

Which of the following plays a key role in one-carbon metabolism, and is essential for the biosynthesis of the purines and the pyrimidine, thymine? a. biotin b. riboflavin c. pantothenic acid d. folic acid

d. folic acid

The determination of the prothrombin time is the most important laboratory test for the evaluation of the vitamin K status. Vitamin K deficiency is most common in the elderly. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is true, the second is false Vitamin K deficiency is most common in the elderly.❌ Vitamin K deficiency is most common in the NEWBORNS.

Pantothenic acid is a component of which of the following? Select 2. a. pyridoxal phosphate b. coenzyme A c. retinoic acid d. fatty acid synthase

b. coenzyme A d. fatty acid synthase

Biotin is a prosthetic group of: a. pyruvate carboxylase b. acetyl-CoA carboxylase c. propionyl-CoA carboxylase d. all of the above

d. all of the above

The biologically active forms of vitamin A are the flavoproteins. In vitamin A deficiency, columnar epithelia are transformed into heavily keratinized squamous epithelia, a process known as squamous metaplasia. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true The biologically active forms of vitamin A are the flavoproteins.❌ The biologically active forms of vitamin A are RETINAL and RETINOIC ACID

All of the following vitamins have little to no risk of overdose EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. niacin b. biotin c. vitamin C d. vitamin K

d. vitamin K

Vitamin D is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight. Cholecalciferol is not the active form of vitamin D and needs to be converted to active 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol) by successive hydroxylations in the liver and kidney. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

d. the first statement is false, the second is true Vitamin D is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight.❌ Vitamin D is required in the diet of individuals THAT IS NOT exposed to sunlight.

Riboflavin is a precursor of: a. NAD+and NADP+ b. ATP and ADP c. pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) d. FMN and FAD

d. FMN and FAD

All of the following are side effects associated with excess fluoride intake EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. bone fracture b. extrinsic tooth stain c. mottled enamel d. gastrointestinal tract damage

b. extrinsic tooth stain

Your dental assistant comes in one day all smiles. At lunch, she announces that she is pregnant. You recommend that she makes sure to keep her intake of this mineral high because it helps her immune system, as well as the growth and development of her and her unborn child. She often comes in with loads of perfume o n and you are hoping that this change in diet might also improve her sense of smell, so she tones it down a notch. Which mineral are we talking about? a. phosphorus b. cobalt c. copper d. zinc

d. zinc

During inspiration, there is a fall in: a. atmospheric pressure b. intraalveolar pressure c. intrapleural pressure d. intraalveolar and intrapleural pressure

d. intraalveolar and intrapleural pressure

The factors that influence the rate of g a s diffusion across the respiratory membrane include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. the thickness of the membrane b. the surface area of the membrane c. the temperature of the system d. the diffusion coefficient of the gas in the substance of the membrane e. the partial pressure difference of the gas between the two sides of the membrane

c. the temperature of the system

Alveolar ventilation is expressed as: a. respiratory rate × (tidal volume + dead air space volume) b. respiratory rate + (tidal volume + dead air space volume) c. respiratory rate × (tidal volume - dead air space volume) d. respiratory rate - (tidal volume - dead air space volume)

c. respiratory rate × (tidal volume - dead air space volume)

The major factor that influences ventilation is: a. pH of arterial blood b. arterial PCO2 c. arterial PO2 d. arterial albumin content

b. arterial PCO2

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the: a. vital capacity b. tidal volume c. residual volume d. functional residual capacity

c. residual volume

Which of the following factors has no direct effect on pulmonary ventilation? a. arterial PO2 b. arterial PCO2 c. arterial [H+] d. arterial [HCO3-]

d. arterial [HCO3-]

Stretch receptors that are distributed in the smooth muscle of airways are responsible for the Hering-Breuer reflex that is mediated via the vagus nerve The Hering-Breuer reflex occurs during normal breathing in adults. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

c. the first statement is true, the second is false The Hering-Breuer reflex occurs during normal breathing in adults.❌ The Hering-Breuer reflex DOES NOT occur during normal breathing in adults BUT IS SEEN IN NEWBORNS

An abnormally low arterial PCO, is called: a. apnea b. dyspnea c. hypercapnea d. hypocapnea

d. hypocapnea

The surface tension-reducing and antistick properties of surfactant diminish the work of breathing and help stabilize alveoli. The lung demonstrates anatomic and physiological unity; that is, each unit (bronchopulmonary segment) is structurally identical and it functions just like every other unit. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

Which of the following pituitary hormones regulate the Sertoli cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testes? a. follicle-stimulating hormone b. growth hormone c. prolactin d. luteinizing hormone

a. follicle-stimulating hormone

The first half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the luteal phase. The second half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the follicular phase. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

b. both statements are false The first half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the luteal phase.❌ The first half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the FOLLICULAR phase. The second half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the follicular phase.❌ The second half of the monthly menstrual cycle is referred to as the LUTEAL phase.

GnRH is produced by the: a. pituitary gland b. adrenal gland c. hypothalamus d. thyroid gland

c. hypothalamus

Initiation of the onset of puberty has long been a mystery. But now it has been determined that during childhood the hypothalamus simply does not secrete significant amounts of GRH. For reasons still not understood, at the time of puberty, the secretion of hypothalamic GRH breaks through the childhood inhibition and adult sexual life begins. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. the first statement is true, the second is false d. the first statement is false, the second is true

a. both statements are true

DECKS Flashcards

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