Defects of metabolic processes Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

What role do enzymes play in biochemical reactions in the human body?

A

Enzymes act as catalysts that increase reaction rates by more than a million-fold

Enzymes mediate the synthesis, transfer, use, and degradation of biomolecules.

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2
Q

What are the four primary groups of biomolecules?

A
  • Nucleic acids
  • Proteins
  • Carbohydrates
  • Lipids
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3
Q

What major metabolic pathways are involved in the metabolism of biomolecules?

A
  • Glycolysis
  • Citric acid cycle
  • Pentose phosphate shunt
  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogen and fatty acid synthesis and storage
  • Degradative pathways
  • Energy production
  • Transport systems
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4
Q

What is the most common monogenic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Galactosemia (classic galactosemia)

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5
Q

What is the cause of classic galactosemia?

A

Mutations in the gene encoding galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (GAL-1-P uridyl transferase)

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6
Q

What is the most common mutation associated with galactosemia in Western European populations?

A

p.Q188R in exon 6 of the GAL-1-P uridyl transferase gene

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7
Q

What are some symptoms of classic galactosemia if left untreated?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Hyperbilirubinemia
  • Coagulopathy
  • Hepatocellular damage
  • Shock leading to death
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8
Q

What is the primary treatment for classic galactosemia?

A

Eliminating dietary galactose

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9
Q

What are the possible long-term disabilities associated with classic galactosemia?

A
  • Poor growth
  • Developmental delay
  • Speech problems
  • Primary ovarian failure in females
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10
Q

What is hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI) caused by?

A

A deficiency of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate aldolase

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of hereditary fructose intolerance?

A
  • Poor feeding
  • Failure to thrive
  • Hepatic and renal insufficiency
  • Death
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12
Q

What is the most common defect of fructose metabolism?

A

Asymptomatic deficiency of fructokinase

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13
Q

What are the three categories of disorders associated with elevated plasma glucose?

A
  • Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)
  • Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
  • Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
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14
Q

What is the role of lactase-phlorizin hydrolase (LPH) in lactose metabolism?

A

LPH is an intestinal brush-border enzyme that metabolizes lactose

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15
Q

What is lactase nonpersistence?

A

A condition where individuals experience symptoms after ingesting lactose due to reduced LPH activity

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16
Q

What genetic factor influences lactase persistence in European populations?

A

A polymorphism in the minichromosome maintenance 6 (MCM6) gene

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17
Q

What is the most common storage form of carbohydrates in humans?

A

Glycogen

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18
Q

What are the two organs most affected by glycogen storage disorders?

A
  • Liver
  • Skeletal muscle
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19
Q

What is the treatment for some glycogen storage disorders?

A

Enzyme replacement therapy

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20
Q

What essential amino acid’s metabolism defects lead to hyperphenylalaninemias?

A

Phenylalanine

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21
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperphenylalaninemia?

A

Mutations in the gene encoding phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)

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22
Q

What is the prevalence of phenylketonuria (PKU) in European populations?

A

1 in every 10,000 people

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23
Q

What is the treatment approach for most hyperphenylalaninemias?

A

Restricting dietary intake of phenylalanine-containing foods

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24
Q

What is tetrahydrobiopterin necessary for?

A

The hydroxylation of phenylalanine

Tetrahydrobiopterin is a cofactor involved in the metabolic pathway of phenylalanine.

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25
What is the main treatment for hyperphenylalaninemias?
Restricting dietary intake of phenylalanine-containing foods ## Footnote Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid, so a balance must be maintained.
26
What is the consequence of a complete lack of phenylalanine?
Fatality ## Footnote Adequate phenylalanine is crucial for normal growth and development.
27
What diet must a person with PKU follow?
A phenylalanine-restricted diet for life ## Footnote Life-long treatment is necessary for individuals diagnosed with PKU.
28
What form of treatment was recently approved for adults with PKU?
Enzyme substitution therapy ## Footnote This therapy helps reduce phenylalanine levels when dietary restriction is insufficient.
29
What can hyperphenylalaninemia in a pregnant woman cause in the fetus?
Poor growth, birth defects, microcephaly, and intellectual disability ## Footnote These effects occur regardless of the fetus’s genotype.
30
What is the most important component of therapy for inborn errors of metabolism?
Manipulation of the diet ## Footnote This may include substrate restriction, avoiding fasting, and replacing deficient cofactors.
31
What dietary management is required for newborns with PKU?
A low-phenylalanine diet ## Footnote Breast milk contains too much phenylalanine to be used as the only nutrient source.
32
How does the diet for a child with PKU change as they grow older?
Low-protein food substitutes are introduced ## Footnote This includes low-protein breads and pasta to meet dietary needs.
33
What is the phenylalanine content of regular bread?
Three or four slices meet a child's dietary phenylalanine limit ## Footnote Regular bread has a high protein content that contributes to phenylalanine intake.
34
What is required on products containing aspartame for persons with PKU?
A warning label ## Footnote Aspartame contains phenylalanine, which is harmful to those with PKU.
35
What is hereditary tyrosinemia type 1 (HT1) caused by?
A deficiency of fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH) ## Footnote This enzyme catalyzes the last step in tyrosine catabolism.
36
What are the symptoms of hereditary tyrosinemia type 1 (HT1)?
Dysfunction of renal tubules, peripheral neuropathy, and progressive liver disease ## Footnote HT1 also has a high risk for developing liver cancer.
37
What is the management for HT1?
Dietary restriction of phenylalanine and tyrosine, and administration of NTBC ## Footnote NTBC inhibits an enzyme upstream of FAH.
38
What is maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) caused by?
Defects in branched-chain α-ketoacid dehydrogenase (BCKAD) ## Footnote MSUD is characterized by a sweet odor in the urine.
39
What is the treatment for MSUD?
Dietary restriction of branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) ## Footnote Supportive care is also required during crises.
40
What is the most common inborn error of fatty acid metabolism?
Medium-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency ## Footnote This condition leads to episodic hypoglycemia, especially during fasting.
41
What happens during fasting in patients with MCAD deficiency?
Accumulation of fatty acid intermediates and exhaustion of glucose supplies ## Footnote This can lead to cerebral edema and encephalopathy.
42
What is the main treatment for MCAD deficiency?
Avoidance of fasting and ensuring an adequate source of calories ## Footnote Supportive care is needed during periods of nutritional stress.
43
What is the first step in long-chain acyl-CoA fatty acid metabolism?
Catalyzed by long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCAD) ## Footnote This is part of a sequence of steps for fatty acid metabolism.
44
What has made it possible to offer direct DNA testing as a reliable diagnostic tool?
Advancements in technology ## Footnote This includes the ability to perform inexpensive diagnostic tests.
45
What condition meets the criteria for newborn screening?
MCAD deficiency ## Footnote Testing for MCAD deficiency has been added to newborn screening programs in all fifty states of the U.S.
46
What is the first step in the metabolism of long-chain acyl-CoA fatty acids?
Controlled by long-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCAD) ## Footnote This initiates the sequence of steps involved in fatty acid metabolism.
47
What is LCHAD deficiency one of the most severe forms of?
Fatty acid oxidation (FAO) disorders ## Footnote It is characterized by severe liver disease and other systemic complications.
48
What treatment is suggested for LCHAD deficiency?
Avoidance of fasting, low-fat diet, medium-chain triglycerides, carnitine supplementation ## Footnote These measures help manage the condition and prevent complications.
49
What severe liver diseases have been associated with LCHAD deficiency in pregnant women?
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) and HELLP syndrome ## Footnote These conditions are hypothesized to be linked to the fetus's inability to metabolize free fatty acids.
50
What is the final step of cholesterol biosynthesis catalyzed by?
Δ7-sterol reductase (DHCR7) ## Footnote This step is crucial in the production of cholesterol.
51
What syndrome is caused by mutations in the DHCR7 gene?
Smith–Lemli–Opitz (SLO) syndrome ## Footnote SLO is characterized by reduced cholesterol levels and various congenital anomalies.
52
What is the carrier frequency of mutant DHCR7 alleles in populations of European ancestry?
3% to 4% ## Footnote This high frequency suggests a higher incidence of SLO than is commonly observed.
53
What is the most common defect of cortisol synthesis?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) ## Footnote CAH is primarily caused by mutations in the CYP21A2 gene.
54
What are the three major classes of steroid hormones derived from cholesterol?
* Glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol) * Mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone) * Androgens (e.g., testosterone) ## Footnote These hormones play crucial roles in various physiological processes.
55
What genetic pattern do CAIS and PAIS syndromes follow?
X-linked recessive pattern ## Footnote These conditions are caused by mutations in the androgen receptor gene.
56
What is the most severe form of Zellweger spectrum disorders?
Zellweger syndrome ## Footnote Symptoms include severe hypotonia and progressive brain disease, typically leading to death in infancy.
57
What do lysosomal storage disorders result from?
Accumulation of undegraded substrates ## Footnote This accumulation results from enzyme deficiencies within lysosomes.
58
What are mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS disorders) caused by?
Reduced ability to degrade glycosaminoglycans ## Footnote These disorders can be distinguished by clinical, biochemical, and molecular analyses.
59
What is the hallmark of Hurler syndrome?
Coarse face, hepatosplenomegaly, corneal clouding ## Footnote It is one of the mucopolysaccharidoses characterized by intellectual disability.
60
What causes system deterioration leading to hearing, vision, joint, and cardiovascular dysfunction?
Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS disorders) ## Footnote MPS disorders include Hurler, severe Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes, which are characterized by intellectual disability.
61
What is the enzyme deficient in Hurler–Scheie syndrome (MPS-I)?
α-L-Iduronidase ## Footnote Clinical features include coarse face, hepatosplenomegaly, corneal clouding, dysostosis multiplex, and intellectual disability.
62
What are the clinical features of Hunter syndrome (MPS-II)?
Coarse face, hepatosplenomegaly, dysostosis multiplex, intellectual disability, behavioral problems ## Footnote Hunter syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder.
63
List the clinical features of Sanfilippo A (MPS-IIIA).
Behavioral problems, dysostosis multiplex, intellectual disability ## Footnote Sanfilippo syndromes are characterized by similar features but differ by enzyme deficiency.
64
What is dysostosis multiplex?
A distinctive pattern of changes in bone ## Footnote Includes a thickened skull, anterior thickening of the ribs, vertebral abnormalities, and shortened and thickened long bones.
65
What is the primary enzyme deficiency in Tay–Sachs disease?
β-Hexosaminidase A ## Footnote Clinical features include hypotonia, spasticity, seizures, and blindness.
66
What are the common clinical features of Gaucher disease?
Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, bone marrow infiltration ## Footnote Gaucher disease is caused by a deficiency of glucosylceramidase.
67
What is the most common type of Gaucher disease?
Type 1 ## Footnote Type 1 is nonneuropathic and does not involve the central nervous system.
68
What is the main treatment for Hurler syndrome?
Bone marrow transplantation (BMT) ## Footnote BMT has shown to improve coarse facial features and mitigate neurological deterioration.
69
What is the role of the urea cycle?
To prevent the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes by incorporating nitrogen into urea ## Footnote Urea is subsequently excreted by the kidney.
70
What happens in urea cycle disorders?
Accumulation of urea precursors like ammonium and glutamine ## Footnote This can lead to progressive lethargy and coma.
71
What is the most prevalent urea cycle disorder?
Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency ## Footnote OTC deficiency is X-linked and can cause significant clinical variability.
72
What is the significance of the OXPHOS system in energy production?
Transfers electrons to oxygen (O2) and produces ATP ## Footnote OXPHOS consists of five multiprotein complexes located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
73
What is the effect of defects in the OXPHOS system?
Leads to complex phenotypes due to varying metabolic requirements ## Footnote More than twenty clinical disorders are associated with OXPHOS defects.
74
What is the treatment approach for urea cycle disorders?
Low-protein diet, ammonia scavenging drugs, and sometimes hemodialysis ## Footnote Goal is to prevent hyperammonemia and support normal growth.
75
What are the clinical features of I-cell disease?
Coarse facial features, skeletal abnormalities, hepatomegaly, corneal opacities, intellectual disability ## Footnote Caused by recognition marker deficiency for lysosomal enzymes.
76
What is the significance of the gene GBA in Gaucher disease?
Encodes glucosylceramidase, mutations lead to Gaucher disease ## Footnote More than 400 mutations have been identified in this gene.
77
What pattern of inheritance is associated with glutaric acidemia type II?
Autosomal recessive pattern
78
What proteins allow electrons to enter the OXPHOS system?
Electron transfer flavoprotein (ETF) and ETF-ubiquinone oxidoreductase (ETF-QO)
79
What are the characteristic symptoms of glutaric acidemia type II?
* Hypotonia * Hepatomegaly * Hypoketotic or nonketotic hypoglycemia * Metabolic acidemia
80
What metabolic pathway is primarily affected in tissues with high glycolytic activity?
Metabolism of pyruvate proceeds through pyruvate dehydrogenase, the citric acid cycle, and the OXPHOS system
81
What disorder is commonly caused by a deficiency of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
Lactic acidemia
82
What are the components of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
* E1 * E2 * E3 * X-lipoate * PDH phosphatase
83
What is cystine?
The disulfide derivative of the amino acid cysteine
84
What are the two diseases caused by abnormal cystine transport?
* Cystinuria * Cystinosis
85
What is the most common inherited disorder of metabolism that involves cystine transport?
Cystinuria
86
What treatment is used to manage cystinuria?
* Pharmacological amounts of water (4-6 L/day) * Alkalinizing the urine * Chelating agents such as penicillamine
87
What gene is associated with Type I cystinuria?
SLC3A1
88
What is the cause of cystinosis?
A diminished ability to transport cystine across the lysosomal membrane
89
What is the gene responsible for cystinosis?
CTNS
90
What is hereditary hemochromatosis?
A disorder characterized by excessive iron storage
91
What is the most common form of hereditary hemochromatosis?
An autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism
92
What are common symptoms of hereditary hemochromatosis?
* Fatigue * Joint pain * Diminished libido * Diabetes * Increased skin pigmentation * Cardiomyopathy * Liver enlargement * Cirrhosis
93
What gene is associated with hereditary hemochromatosis?
HFE
94
What is the primary treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis?
Reducing the accumulated iron in the body
95
What is Menkes disease?
An X-linked recessive disorder characterized by copper deficiency
96
What are the clinical features of Menkes disease?
* Intellectual disability * Seizures * Hypothermia * Twisted and hypopigmented hair * Loose skin * Arterial rupture
97
What is Wilson disease?
An autosomal recessive disorder caused by excess copper accumulation
98
What are common symptoms of Wilson disease?
* Acute or chronic liver disease * Neurological symptoms * Arthropathy * Cardiomyopathy * Kidney damage * Hypoparathyroidism
99
What gene is responsible for Wilson disease?
ATP7B
100
What is the treatment for Wilson disease?
* Chelating agents such as penicillamine and trientine * Zinc salts
101
What trace elements are essential for human metabolism?
At least twelve trace elements
102
What is the most sensitive indicator of Wilson disease?
Reduced incorporation of isotopes of copper into cells cultured in vitro
103
What is the role of copper in the body?
Cofactor in various enzymes, including tyrosinase and cytochrome c oxidase
104
What gene, when mutated, causes Wilson disease (WND)?
ATP7B ## Footnote ATP7B was cloned in 1993 and is predominantly expressed in the liver and kidney.
105
What is the protein product of ATP7A responsible for?
Supplying copper to various enzymes and mediating copper efflux into the bloodstream ## Footnote ATP7A redistributes to the plasma membrane to pump copper when its levels are high.
106
What types of mutations have been found in ATP7A in Menkes disease (MND) patients?
Missense, nonsense, splice site mutations, and large deletions ## Footnote Approximately 15% to 20% of mutations in ATP7A are large deletions.
107
What syndrome is associated with splice site mutations in ATP7A?
Occipital horn syndrome ## Footnote This syndrome includes mild intellectual disability and skin laxity.
108
What is the primary role of ATP7B?
Copper transport and excretion into the biliary tree ## Footnote ATP7B also aids in incorporating copper into ceruloplasmin.
109
What is the inheritance pattern of Wilson disease (WND)?
Autosomal recessive ## Footnote WND is characterized by progressive liver disease and neurological abnormalities.
110
What is Menkes disease (MND) characterized by?
Intellectual disability, seizures, and early childhood death ## Footnote MND results from a lack of copper and impaired enzyme function.
111
What causes acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE)?
A defect in the absorption of zinc ## Footnote AE is caused by mutations in SLC39A4.
112
What are the symptoms of acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE)?
Growth retardation, diarrhea, immune dysfunction, severe dermatitis ## Footnote Dermatitis typically affects the genitals, buttocks, mouth, and limbs.
113
How can acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE) be treated?
High doses of supplemental zinc ## Footnote This treatment is curative.
114
What is the role of ATP7A in the blood-brain barrier?
Transport of copper across the blood-brain barrier ## Footnote ATP7A is crucial for maintaining copper homeostasis in the brain.
115
What is the typical presentation age for children with acrodermatitis enteropathica (AE)?
After weaning ## Footnote AE can be fatal if untreated.
116
What is the significance of hemosiderin staining in liver conditions?
Indicates increased deposition of hemosiderin, associated with liver damage ## Footnote This can lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer.
117
What is the relationship between ATP7A and ATP7B?
They are highly homologous genes responsible for copper metabolism ## Footnote Mutations in ATP7A cause MND, while mutations in ATP7B cause WND.
118
What percentage of disease-causing alleles in northern Europeans is attributed to a single missense mutation in ATP7B?
About 40% ## Footnote This highlights the significance of specific mutations in genetic disorders.