Defences Flashcards

1
Q

Self defence: prevention of crime (statutory defence)

A

S3(1) criminal law act 1967

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Self defence: legal test

A

. Was the force necessary
. Was the force reasonable in the circumstance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Self defence: the force was necessary as he was going to be attacked

A

Hussain and another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Self defence: protect themselves, another person and or property

A

Common law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Self defence: if there was an honest mistaken belief of a threat the defence is still available

A

Williams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Self defence: if the D makes the mistaken belief because they where voluntarily intoxicated

A

O’Grady

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Self defence: don’t have to retreat from an attack

A

Bird

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Self defence: if the D fears and attack they can prepare for an attack

A

Attorney general reference (No2 of 1983)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Self defence: if the D uses aggression in order to escalate the situation into a more violent one then the defence is unavailable

A

Rashford

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Self defence: the force used by the D must be reasonable in the circumstance as the D believes them to be

A

Palmer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Self defence: if disproportionate force is used the defence is unavailable

A

S76(6) criminal justice and immigration act 2008

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Self defence: extend the D appreciated the exact same measure of necessary action

A

S76(7)(a) criminal justice and immigration act 2008

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Self defence: there is evidence to support the D honest and instinctively believed they took reasonable action

A

S76(7)(b) criminal justice and immigration act 2008

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Consent: if it is not in the interest of the public to allow people to consent to harm greater than common assault unless it is one of the public policy exceptions

A

Attorney general reference (No 6 of 1980)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Consent: harm caused within the rules of a game is lawful

A

Barnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Consent: harm outside the rules of the game is unlawful

A

Billinghurst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Consent: deliberately and unnecessarily sets out to injure another person is unlawful

A

Johnson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Consent: lawful and reasonable chastisement of children is permitted. But if ABH or greater harm occurred defence is unavailable

A

S58 children act 2004

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Consent: an adult can refuse / surgical interference

A

Blaue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Consent: a child below the age of 16 can consent to treatment or refuse treatment as long as they have ……… competence, they have sufficient intelligence and understanding of there decision

A

Gillick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Consent: if a person lacks mental capacity to consent to medical treatment, it can be provided, as long as medical staff are acting in their best interest

A

F v West Berkshire HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Consent: a person consenting to body adornment must have the mental capacity to consent

A

Burrell & Hammer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Consent: body adornment between consenting spouses that result in harm is lawful

A

Wilson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Consent: if the D has a genuine mistaken belief that the V was consenting to horseplay, this is lawful

A

Jones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Consent: a person cannot consent to being killed
Pretty
26
Consent: a person cannot give consent for someone to inject them with unlawful drugs
Cato
27
Consent: not all fraudulent conduct will be cancel out the Vs consent
Linekar
28
Consent: if the D makes out they are someone they are not, the V consent is invalid
Elbekkay
29
Consent: the V knew the nature and quality of the conduct
Tabbassum
30
Consent: a person cannot consent out of fear
Olugboja
31
DBT: governed by
Common law and Hasan
32
DBT: defence is unavailable for murder (1) and attempted murder (2)
1. Howe 2. Gotts
33
DBT: the D should be heroic and sacrifice their own life rather than that of another
Lord Hailsham
34
DBT: the threat must be one of death or serious harm
Hasan, Graham
35
DBT: as long as one of the threat of either death or serious harm, the cumulative effect of all the threats can be considered
Valderrama-vega
36
DBT: a threat to rape is sufficient
Ashley
37
DBT: a threat to damage property is insufficient
Brandford
38
DBT: a threat to reveal someone’s homosexuality is insufficient
Valderrama-vega
39
DBT: a threat of psychological injuries is insufficient
Baker and Wilkins
40
DBT: the threat doesn’t have to be immediate but has to be imminent
Abdul Hussain
41
DBT: the threat can be toward the D or someone for whom they feel responsible
Wright
42
DBT: the threat can be toward the D or their family or someone close to them
Hasan
43
DBT: the test is used in order to determine if the D responded reasonably to the threat
Graham test
44
DBT: a reasonable and genuine perception of a threat of serious injury
Cairns
45
DBT: did they respond as a sober person with reasonable firmness sharing the characteristics of the D would have done
Bowen
46
DBT: characteristics that are permitted
Age, gender, pregnancy
47
DBT: characteristics that are not permitted
Low IQ, timidity and self induced abuse
48
DBT: there must be a link between the threat and the type of crime committed
Cole
49
DBT: if there is a safe avenue of escape the D can avoid the threat, the defence is unavailable
Gill
50
DBT: if the threat is still operating in the Ds mind at the time the offence is committed, despite to others there appears to be a safe avenue of escape, the defence is still available
Hudson and taylor
51
DBT: the D knowlingly and voluntarily associated with a criminal gang known for violence
Sharp
52
DBC: governed by
Graham test confirmed by Martin and updated by Hasan
53
DBC: is available for all offences except murder and attempted murder
Pommell
54
DBC: the circumstances the D has found themselves in has caused them to have a reasonable and genuine perception of death or serious harm
Cairns
55
DBC: the threat doesn’t have to be immediate but has to be at least imminent
Abdul Hussain
56
DBC: threat can be toward the D or someone who they feel responsible for
Wright
57
DBC: the threat can be towards the D or their family or someone close to them
Hasan
58
DBC: the test to determine if the D is responsible to the threat
Graham test confirmed by Martin and updated by Hasan
59
DBC: a reasonable and genuine perception of a threat of serious physical injury
Cairns
60
DBC: did they respond as a sober person of reasonable firmness sharing the characteristics of the D would have done
Bowen
61
DBC: If there is a safe avenue of escape so the D can avoid the threat the defence is unavailable
Gill
62
DBC: if the threat is still operating in the Ds mind at the time of the offence is committed, despite there being a safe avenue of escape, the defence is available
Hudson and taylor
63
DBC: if the D knowlingly and voluntarily associates with a criminal gang known for violence, defence is unavailable
Sharp
64
Insanity: governed by
M’naghten Rules
65
Insanity: the D must have suffered from a complete loss of reasoning and not confusion or absent mindedness
Clarke
66
Insanity: the defect of reason may be permanent or temporary
Sullivan
67
Insanity: the disease of the mind must be cause by an internal factor
Quick
68
Insanity: it is any condition which impairs the mental faculties of reason, memory and understanding
Sullivan
69
Insanity: it can be temporary and/or a medical condition that affects the brain
Kemp
70
Insanity: hyperglycaemic episodes are classed as insanity
Hennessy
71
Insanity: voluntary intoxication is an external factor
Coley
72
Insanity: sleep walking is an internal factor
Burgess
73
Insanity: the D knew the nature and quality of the act
Cordere
74
Insanity: the D didn’t know the nature and quality of the act
Oye
75
Insanity: D knew the act was legally wrong
Windle
76
Automatism: governed by
Common law, bratty define by Lord denning
77
Automatism: D must have a total destruction of voluntary control, this means they have 100% involuntary
Attorney general reference (no 2 of 1992)
78
Automatism: actions where completely involuntary
Woolley
79
Automatism: the D will have to provide evidence that they where in an automatic state at the time of the incident
Hill v Baxter
80
Automatism: hypoglycaemic episode is an external factor
Quick
81
Automatism: must be caused by an external factor
Butterworth
82
Automatism: who provides the rules for self induced automatism
Bailey
83
Intoxication: if the D is voluntarily intoxicated and cannot form the MR of the Specific intent offence, it will be a full defence. However not for alternative basic intent offence, recklessly intoxicated
Sheehan and Moore
84
Intoxication: if the D forms the MR of a specific intent offence the defence is unavailable
Coley
85
Intoxication: Drunken intent is still intent
Gallagher
86
Intoxication: basic intent offence are governed by
Majewski
87
Intoxication: if the D commits a basic intent offence whilst voluntarily intoxicated, they would be guilty of this offence, as their decision to be intoxicated was reckless
Majewski
88
Intoxication: if the jury finds that the D would have realised the risk if sober then the defence is available
Richardson and Irwin
89
Intoxication: involuntarily intoxication is a full defence to both SIO and BIO (1) unless the D forms the MR of the offence (2)
1. Hardie 2. Kingston
90
Intoxication: the rules for intoxicated mistake is governed by
Lipman
91
Automatism: demonstrated some control over there actions then the defence is unavailable
Brooke v Perkins