Defences: insanity, duress, self defence Flashcards

(19 cards)

1
Q

define duress

A

it is when D has committed an offence, but she has done so because she was threatened by X with death or serious injury if she refused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does the defence of duress represents?

A

a concession (giving in) to human frailty (vulnerability)
- her decision to offend does not reveal a dangerous character deserving of criminal punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 3 main parts for duress by threats

A
  1. Exclusions
  2. X’s threat and demand
  3. D’s response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the offences to which D cannot raise duress?

A
  1. treason - collection of offences against the state
  2. murder
  3. attempted murder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What did the case of Hasan confirmed

A

confirms that duress will be excluded where D voluntarily associated with X in circumstances where a reasonable person would have foreseen (objective standard) and a risk of future coercion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

explain the element - X’s threat and demand

A
  1. content of the threat
    - to qualify for the defence, X’s threat must be of death or serious personal injury
    - a threat to rape D will be sufficient
    - ABH will not be sufficient
  2. who made the threat and demand, and who are they directed at?
    - threats and demands must still come from another party, they cannot originate from D herself
  3. content of the threat
    - where X makes an explicit demand that D should commit an offence
    - demand of criminal activity may also be vague/ implicit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

explain the element- D’s response to the threat

A

3 main issues to be considered

  1. necessary causal link between X’s threat/ demand AND D’s offence
    - direct
  2. imminence of the threat and opportunities for escape
    - D must have committed the offence because she had no other reasonable option to escape before the threat would be carried out
  3. reasonable steadfastness test
    - objective standard
    - requires that D should display a reasonable fortitude in resisting the threat and demand from X
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define the defence of necessity

A
  • based on Re A
  • Brooke LJ set out 3 requirements for the defence
    1. the act is needed to avoid inevitable and irreparable evil
    2. no more should be done than is reasonably necessary for the purpose to be achieved
    3. the evil inflicted must not be disproportionate for the evil avoided
  • ‘no but’ defence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is self-defence

A

also known as public and private defence
- private defence provides a defence where D used force to protect herself or another from physical harm, or the protection of property

  • public defence is where D used force to prevent a crime, or in effecting or assisting a lawful arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

self defence are most commonly used in?

A

murder, robbery, false imprisonment, OAPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do courts need to consider when determining whether self defence can be used

A
  1. trigger
  2. response
  3. exceptions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

explain the element of trigger - necessity for force (SD)

A
  • was it necessary to use any force against V based on the facts that D believed them to be?
  • test does not consider whether a reasonable person would have believed force was necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

explain the element of response- a reasonable degree of force (SD)

A
  • by asking whether the degree of force D used was objectively reasonable based on the subjective facts as D believed them to do
  • middle ground between subjective and objective approaches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the exceptions for SD

A
  1. householder defendants
  2. intoxicated defendants
    - intoxicated individuals cannot rely on honest but mistaken beliefs unless a reasonable sober person would have made the same mistake
  3. defendants with mental disorders or delusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is insanity

A

when the D did not know act was legally wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 2 requirements for insanity

A
  1. abnormality of mind
  2. substantially impaired his mental responsibility
17
Q

explain the requirement - abnormality of mind

A
  • from a condition of arrested or retarded development of mind or any inherent causes of induced by disease of injury
  • emphasises importance of medical testimony
18
Q

explain the requirement- substantially impaired his mental responsibility

A
  • moral question for the jury
  • was the responsibility substantially impaired?