Definition Flashcards

1
Q

musculoskeletal system

A

Means pertaining to the muscles and the skeleton

All of the bones, joints, muscles, and related structures that function in the movement of body parts and organs make up the musculoskeletal system.

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2
Q

musculoskeletal disorders

A

Cells of the musculoskeletal system are derived from stem cells that mature, and then begin to function, is bone cells, muscle cells, and so on.

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3
Q

bone marrow

A

Is the soft tissue that fills the cavities of the bones.

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4
Q

Red bone marrow

A

Functions in the formation of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

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5
Q

bones store

A

And release minerals, especially calcium in our essential parts of mineral balance in the body.

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6
Q

fat

A

Is stored in the yellow bone marrow.

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7
Q

Two types of bone marrow

A

Red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow

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8
Q

intracellular substance of a bone

A

Contains an abundance of mineral salts, primarily calcium phosphate, and calcium carbonate, which gives bone its unique hardness

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9
Q

endocrine system

A

Controls the release of calcium from the bone when the level of calcium in the blood is decreased.
most of the calcium in our bodies is stored in the skeleton.

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10
Q

chief characteristic of bone

A

Is its rigid nature, but it’s important to remember that bone contains living cells and is richly supplied with blood vessels and nerves. Like other body tissues, bone requires oxygen and nutrients and produces waste, the end products of metabolism.

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11
Q

Bones may be classified

A

As long, short, flat, or irregular.
Examples of
Long bones: in the arms, leg, and thigh
Short bones: in the wrist
Flat bones: most of the bones of the skull
irregular bones: bones of the spine

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12
Q

Compact bone 

A

Hard, dense bony tissue (major feature of a long bone)

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13
Q

os
( plural, ossa)

A

Is used to write the formal names of bones

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14
Q

diaphysis

A

The long shaft of the long bone. This long shaft is thick, compact bone, that surrounds yellow, bone marrow in adults.

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15
Q

Epiphysis

A

The ends of a long bone

The long shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis, and the expanded portions at the ends are called…….

An expanded portion of each end of the diaphysis. The epiphysis is spongy bone that is covered by a thin layer of compact bone. The two ends are covered by articular cartilage to provide smooth surfaces for movement of the joints. Except in the areas where there is articular cartilage, the bone is covered with a tough membrane called periosteum.

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16
Q

peri/ost/eum
periosteum

A

around/bone/membrane

Most of the bone is covered with a tough membrane………….

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17
Q

Four types of bone tissue in the typical long bone

A

Periosteum: fibrous tissue that covers the bone

Compact bone: lies just beneath the periosteum and has a system of small canals (haversian canals) that run parallel to the bones long axis and contain blood vessels; canals are surrounded by concentric rings characteristic of the mature bone.

Spongy bone (Cancellous): lighter than compact bone and contains large spongy mesh works called trabecular: found largely in the epiphyses (plural form of epiphysis) and inner portions of long bones and is filled with red and yellow marrow
Yellow marrow: Found in the medullary cavity

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18
Q

haversia canals

A

they run parallel to the bone’s long axis and contain blood vessels; canals are surrounded by concentric rings characteristic of mature bone

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19
Q

trabeculae

A

large spongy mesh works, found largely in epiphyses (plural epiphysis) and inner portions of long bones and is filled with red and yellow marrow

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20
Q

medullary cavity

A
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21
Q

Calcium in bone

A

Is radiopaque; thus bones can obstruct x-rays so that they do not reach image receptors

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22
Q

calci/fication
calcification

A

is the process by which organic tissue becomes harden by deposit of calcium in tissue?
Normally calcium is deposited in bone in large amounts to give bone its hardness. Calcification in the soft tissue is abnormal.

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23
Q

myelo/blast
myeloblast

A

bone marrow/embryonic form
Embryonic, bone marrow cell, which mature into myelocytes

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24
Q

myelo/cyte
myelocyte

A

Is a cell found in the bone marrow

bone marrow/cell
Which mature into leukocytes normally found in blood

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25
Q

osteo/blast
osteoblast

A

bone/embryonic form

Is an embryonic form of a bone cell

an embryonic or early form of a bone cell that develops into a mature bone cell

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26
Q

osteo/cyte
osteocyte

A

bone/cell
mature bone cells that become embedded in the calcified intracellular substance of bone

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27
Q

osteo/genesis
osteogenesis
is also called
ossification

A

bone/producing or forming
Formation of bones substance; same as ossification. Human embryos contain no bone but do contain cartilage, which is a more flexible tissue that is shaped like bone; ossification begins at the start of the fetal period (after the eighth week)

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28
Q

ossi/fication
ossification

A

Formation of bone substance

Is the development of bone

human embryos contain no bone but do contain cartilage, which is a more flexible tissue that is shaped like bone; ossification begins at the start of the fetal period after the eighth week

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29
Q

Skeletal

A

Means pertaining to the skeleton. The human skeleton is the bony framework of the body..

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30
Q

skeletal system

A

Consists of the bones and the cartilages, ligaments, and tendons that are associated with the bones
Bones and muscles work together, to enable us to bend our arms and legs, turn our heads, and perform other voluntary movements

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31
Q

Adult human skeleton

A

usually consist of 206 named bones

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32
Q

axial skeleton

A

The division of the skeleton that forms the vertical axis of the body.

The skull, spinal column, sternum, and ribs make up the axial skeleton.

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33
Q

Appendicular skeleton
126 bones
designed for movement

A

The free appendages and their attachments are called

Includes the bones of the limbs and their attachments to the axial skeleton

many of these bones are small and are found in the hands and feet, but several of the remaining bones in this part of the skeleton are the longest bones in the body.

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34
Q

Cranium

A

Serves as protection for the brain informs the framework of the face. The common name for the cranium is skull

The portion of the skull that encloses the brain is composed of eight cranial bones (parietal, temporal, frontal, occipital, ethmoid, and sphenoid)

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35
Q

auditory ossicles

A

The skull is composed of three types of bones: cranial bones; facial bones; and the sixth auditory ossicles,

Three tiny bones in each middle ear cavity

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36
Q

foramen magnum

A

The opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes. The literal translation from Latin means large hole.

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37
Q

External auditory meatus meet us

A

Is the external opening of the ear

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38
Q

cranial bones

A

parietal (2) occipital (1)
temporal (2) ethmoid (1)
frontal (1) sphenoid (1)

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39
Q

Facial bones

A

maxilla (2) palatine (2)
zygomatic (2) inferior nasal concha (2)
mandible (1) lacrimal (2)
nasal (2) vomer (1)

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40
Q

Auditory ossicles

A

malleus (2)
incus (2)
staples (2)

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41
Q

Cranial

A

Means pertaining to the skull

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42
Q

Fontaneles (soft spots)

A

which are spaces covered by tough membranes between the soft bones of the skull. These accommodate passage to the birth canal, and allow for growth of the brain.

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43
Q

adult skull

A

Is made up of hard bones that serve as protection; however, newborns have soft spots, called fontanels

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44
Q

Vertebral column (spinal column)
(is attached at the base of the skull)

A

is commonly called the backbone or the spine, and it extends from the base of the skull to the pelvis. It encloses and protects the spinal cord, supports the head, and serves as a place of attachment for the ribs and muscles of the back.

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45
Q

spin/al
spinal

A

spine/pertaining to

means pertaining to the spine

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46
Q

Vertebrae plural
vertebra singular

A

The vertebral column is composed of 26 vertebrae.

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47
Q

inter/vertebral
intervertebral

A

Means between two adjoining vertebra

Means between two adjoining spinal bones

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48
Q

Intervertebral disks

A

Cushions of cartilage between two adjoining vertebrae.
these layers of cartilage absorb shock

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49
Q

Costa (singular)
costae (plural)

A

means rib

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50
Q

inter/costal

A

between/ribs
muscles lie between the ribs and draw adjacent ribs together to increase the volume of the thorax in breathing

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51
Q

sternum

A

The common name is the breastbone. The sternum is one of the bones that make up the thoracic cage, which protects the heart, lungs, and great vessels and also plays a role in breathing.

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52
Q

Thoracic Thor Actiq

A

means pertaining to the thorax (chest)

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53
Q

Cervical vertebrae C1-7

A

There are seven vertebrae in the neck region

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54
Q

thoracic vertebrae T1-12

A

There are 12 thoracic vertebrae behind the chest cavity.

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55
Q

lumbar vertebrae L1-5

A

Lower back

There are five lumbar vertebrae, supporting the lower back

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56
Q

Sacral vertebrae S1-5

A

There are five sacral vertebrae fused into one bone, called the sacrum

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57
Q

Coccygeal vertebrae

A

There are four coccygeal vertebrae fused into one bone called the coccyx

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58
Q

vertebrae location from above downward

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral (fused into the sacrum), coccygeal (fused into the coccyx) .

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59
Q

Thorax

A

The bones of the front part of the thorax:
Clavicle
Sternum
Ribs
the breastbone and the ribs are part of the axial skeleton:

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60
Q

thoracic cage

A

The ribs exist in pairs, 12 on each side of the chest, and are numbered from 1 to 12, beginning with the top rib. The upper seven pairs are joined directly with the sternum by a narrow strip of cartilage and are called “true ribs.” the remaining five pairs are referred to as “false ribs,” because they do not attached directly to the sternum. The last two pairs of false ribs, the “floating ribs,” are attached only on the posterior aspect.

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61
Q

Xiphoid process

A

The smallest and lowermost part of the sternum, which is often used as a point of reference when examining the chest.
composed of cartilage that is usually ossified in adults. The word xiphoid means shaped like a sword; however, the human xiphoid process varies in shape.

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62
Q

cost/al
costal

A

rib/pertaining to
pertaining to the ribs

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63
Q

infra/cost/al
infracostal
same as
sub/cost/al
subcostal

A

Beneath/under a Rib

beneath/rib/pertaining to
situated beneath a rib, or all the ribs

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64
Q

infra/stern/al
infrasternal Same as substernal

A

beneath/breastbone/pertaining to
beneath the sternum

Pertaining to beneath the breast bone

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65
Q

intra/stern/al
intrasternal

A

within/breastbone/pertaining to

within the sternum

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66
Q

retro/stern/al
retrosternal

A

behind/breastbone/pertaining to

situated or occurring behind the sternum

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67
Q

stern/al
sternal

A

Breastbone/pertaining to

pertaining to the sternum

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68
Q

sterno/cost/al
sternocostal

A

breastbone/rib/pertaining to

Pertaining to the sternum and the ribs

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69
Q

supra/cost/al
supracostal

A

above/rib/pertaining to

situated above or upon a Rib

pertaining to above a Rib

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70
Q

supra/stern/al
suprasternal

A

above/breastbone/pertaining to

Situated above the sternum

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71
Q

thoraco/lumb/ar
thoracolumbar

A

thorax/lumbar/pertaining to

Pertaining to the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
Pertaining to the chest in the lower back

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72
Q

vertebro/cost/al
vertebrocostal. Same as costovertebral

A

vertebra/rib/pertaining to pertaining to a vertebra and a rib

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73
Q

vertebro/stern/al
vertebrosternal same as sternovertebral

A

vertebra/breastbone/pertaining to

pertaining to vertebrae and the sternum

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74
Q

Shoulder girdle

A

Includes the clavicle and scapula

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75
Q

pelvic girdle

A

Includes the bones of the pelvis
ilium
pubis
ischium

Consists of two hip bones. Each of these bones consist of three separate bones in the newborn, but eventually the three fused to form one bone. (the pelvic bone)

ilium is the largest of the three bones. ischium is the posterior part of the pelvic girdle
pubis is the anterior part of the pelvic girdle

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76
Q

Bones of the lower extremities

A

calcaneus (heel bone)
femur (thigh bone)
fibula (calf bone)
metatarsals (bones of the feet)
patella (kneecap)
phalanx phalanges (toe)
tarsus (ankle)
tibia (shin bone)

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77
Q

Bones of the upper extremities

A

carpus (wrist)
humerus (upper arm bone)
metacarpals (bones of the hands)
phalanx phalanges (finger fingers)
radius (bone of the forearm
ulna (bone of the forearm)

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78
Q

The shoulder is the junction

A

of the clavicle, scapula, and humerus (where the arm attaches to the trunk of the body) (

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79
Q

Clavicle

A

Is also known as the collarbone

The clavicle’s are long, curved horizontal bones, that attached to the sternum and either the left or right scapula

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80
Q

scapula

A

Is a large triangular bone that is commonly called a shoulder blade. Each scapula is joint to the humerus.

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81
Q

Humerus

A

each scapula is joined to the humerus, the upper arm, bone, by muscles and tendons.

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82
Q

costo/clavicul/ar
costoclavicular

A

rib/clavicle/pertaining to

did you get it pertaining to or involving the ribs and the clavicle

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83
Q

humer/al
humeral

A

upper arm bone/pertaining to

pertaining to the humerus

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84
Q

humero/radi/al
humeroradial

A

humerus/radius/pertaining to

Pertaining to the humerus and the radius

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85
Q

humero/scapul/ar
humeroscapular

A

humerus/scapula/pertaining to

Pertaining to the humerus, and the scapula

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86
Q

humero/uln/ar
humeroulnar

A

humerus/ulna/pertaining to

Pertaining to the humerus in the ulna

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87
Q

infra/clavicul/ar
infraclavicular

A

Refers to beneath/under the collar bone

under/clavicle/pertaining to

Below the clavicle

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88
Q

infra/scapul/ar
infrascapular

A

under/scapula/pertaining to

Below the scapula

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89
Q

inter/scapul/ar
interscapular

A

between/scapula/pertaining to

Between the two shoulder blades

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90
Q

scapul/ar
scapular

A

scapula/pertaining to

pertaining to the scapula

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91
Q

scapulo/clavicul/ar
scapuloclavicular

A

scapula/clavicle/pertaining to

Pertaining to the scapula and the clavicle

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92
Q

sterno/clavicul/ar
sternoclavicular

A

breastbone/clavicle/pertaining to

Pertaining to the sternum and clavicle

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93
Q

ulno/radi/al
ulnoradial

A

ulna/radius/pertaining to

pertaining to the ulna and the radius

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94
Q

ulna
radius

A

Are bones of the forearm

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95
Q

carpals same as carp/al bones

A

Bones of the wrist (eight small bones)

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96
Q

Bones of the hand

A

Metacarpals and phalanges, which are bones of the fingers

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97
Q

metacarpals

A

Bones that connect the response to the phalanges

Connect the wristbones (carpals) to the phalanges. The metacarpals lie next to the carpals.
The five metacarpals constitute the palm. the proximal ends of the metacarpals join with the distal role of the carpal bones
The distal ends of the metacarpals join with the phalanges.

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98
Q

Metacarpophalangeal (MCP)

A

Pertains to the metacarpals and phalanges of the fingers.

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99
Q

phalanges

A

Are bones of the fingers, as well as bones of the toes

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100
Q

carpophalangeal

A

Pertains to the corpus, and the phalanges. (fingers in this case)

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101
Q

Each finger (except the thumb has 2)

A

has three phalanges in each finger Proximal phalanx
Middle phalanx
Distal phalanx

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102
Q

sesamoid bone

A

it’s a small, round bone imbedded in the tendon that provides added strength for the thumb

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103
Q

Wrist

A

8 small carpal bones make up the wrist

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104
Q

Palm of the hand

A

Contains five metacarpal bones, which are numbered 1 to 5, starting at the thumb side

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105
Q

Female pelvis

A

The size and shape vary in our important in childbirth. The female pelvis is generally less massive, but wider and more circular than the male pelvis.

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106
Q

Pubic symphysis

A

Is the interpubic joint where the two pubic bones are joined

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107
Q

pubes

A

The hairs growing over the pubic region
Is also used to denote the “pubic region.”

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108
Q

ilio/pub/ic
iliopubic

A

ilium/pubis/pertaining to
pertaining to the ilium and the pubis

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109
Q

ischio/coccyg/eal
ischiococcygeal

A

ischium/coccyx/pertaining to

pertaining to the ischium and the coccyx

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110
Q

ischio/pub/ic
ischiopubic

A

ischium/pubis/pertaining to
pertaining to the ischium and the pubis

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111
Q

sub/pub/ic
subpubic

A

below/pubis/pertaining to

pertaining to a location beneath the pubis

t

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112
Q

supra/pub/ic
suprapubic

A

above/pubis/pertaining to

pertaining to above the pubis

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113
Q

Two bones of the forearm

A

Radius
Ulna

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114
Q

Lower extremities, 60 bones

A

in the thigh, leg, foot, and the kneecap (or patella)

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115
Q

femur (thigh bone)

A

Is the longest and heaviest bone in the body?

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116
Q

Lower extremity

A

Consists of the bones of the thigh, leg foot, and patella

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117
Q

calcane/al
calcaneal

A

calcaneus/ pertaining to

pertains to the calcaneus

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118
Q

calcaneo/planter
calcaneoplanter

A

calcaneus/sole/pertains to the

Pertains to the calcaneus and the sole

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119
Q

plantar

A

Is a word that means concerning the sole

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120
Q

Metatarsals (in the foot)

A

The bones between the Tarsis and the toes.
The distal end of the metatarsals joins with the toes.

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121
Q

Great toe

A

There are two bones in the great toe and three in each of the lesser toes

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122
Q

carpo/ped/al
Carpopedal

A

wrist/foot/pertains to

Pertains to the corpus (wrist) and the foot.

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123
Q

Carpopedal spasm

A

Is involuntary contraction of the muscles of the hands and feet

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124
Q

scapulo/clavicul/ar
acapuloclavicular

A

shoulder blade/collarbone/pertaining

pertaining to the shoulder blade and the collarbone

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125
Q

carpo/phalang/eal
carpophalabgeal

A

wrist/fingers/pertaining to

Pertaining to the wrist and fingers

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126
Q

ischio/pub/ic
isxhiopubic

A

ischium/pubis/pertaining to
pertaining to the Ischium and the pubis

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127
Q

ilio/femor/al
iliofemoral

A

ilium/thigh bone/pertaining to

pertaining to the ilium, and the thighbone 

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128
Q

sterno/clavicul/ar
sternoclavicular

A

sternum/clavicle/pertaining to

Pertaining to the sternum and the clavicle

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129
Q

calcaneo/fibula/ar
calcaneofibular

A

calcaneus/fibula/pertaining to

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130
Q

calcaneo/tibi/al
calcaneotibial

A

calcaneus/tibia/pertaining to

pertaining to the calcaneus and the tibia (shin bone)

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131
Q

ilio/femor/al
iliofemoral

A

ilium/femur/pertaining to

pertaining to the ilium the femur

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132
Q

infra/patell/ar
infrapatellar

A

beneath/patella/pertaining to

Pertaining to below the patella

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133
Q

ischio/femor/al
Ischiofemoral

A

ischium/femur/pertaining to

Pertaining to the ischium in the femur

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134
Q

patello/femor/al
patellofemoral

A

patella/femur/pertaining to

Pertaining to the patella, and the femur

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135
Q

pubo/femor/al
pubofemoral

A

pubis/femur/pertaining to

Pertaining to the pubis in the femur

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136
Q

Connective tissues

A

Tissues that supports and binds other body tissue and parts

Are characterized by an abundance of intercellular material and relatively few cells, support and bind other body tissues and parts.
Bone (the most rigid), cartilage, tendons, and ligaments are all connective tissues because they support and bind other tissues

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137
Q

Joints or articulation

example the ankle, wrist, and knee

A

Is a place of union between two or more bones.
Joints are classified according to their structure and the amount of movement they allow. Types of joints and examples are immovable (sutures in the skull), slightly movable (joints that connect the ribs to the sternum), and freely movable (knee, shoulder, elbow).

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138
Q

articul/ar
articular

A

joint/pertaining to

Means pertaining to a joint

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139
Q

nonarticular

A

Means not related to or involving the joints

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140
Q

Synovial joints

A

Most joints in the adult body or freely movable joints, which are also called…..

Freely, movable joints are filled with fluid for lubrication

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141
Q

tibio/femor/al
tibiofemoral

A

The knee, the tibiofemoral joint, is an example of the synovial joint.
It is the body’s largest joint.

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142
Q

metatarsophalangeal joints

A

Connect the toes with the metatarsals

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143
Q

articular cartilage

A

provides protection and support for the joints.
Some joints also have pads and cushions that help stabilize the joint and act as shock absorbers.

Covers the ends of the opposing bones in a synovial joint, and they are separated by a space called the joint cavity that is filled with synovial fluid for lubrication.

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144
Q

synovial fluid

A

There’s also called Sanovia

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145
Q

bursae

A

Are special structures that act as protective questions.

Are fluid filled sacs that help reduce friction in a joint. Bursa are commonly located between the skin and the underlying bone or between tendons and ligaments.

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146
Q

Knee joint

A

is a complex hinged joint that connects the femur with the tibia. Its joint permits flexion, extension, and rotation. It’s a common place for dislocation and sprains.

12 Ligaments, flexible bands of fibrous tissue, bind the structures of the need to provide strength.

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147
Q

embryos

A

Contain a great deal of translucent, elastic tissue, that, for the most part, is transformed into bone as the embryo matures.

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148
Q

Cartilage

A

Is elastic tissue.
Not all cartilage becomes bone, as evidenced by cartilage found in several parts of the adult body, such as the nose and the ear.

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149
Q

chondr/al
chondral

A

cartilage/pertaining to

means pertaining to cartilage

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150
Q

chondr/oid
chondroid

A

cartilage/resembling
Means resembling cartilage

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151
Q

chondro/cost/al
chondrocostal

A

cartilage/ribs/pertaining to

Means pertaining to the ribs and their associated cartilage.

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152
Q

vertebro/chondr/al
vertebrochondral

A

vertebra/cartilage/pertaining to

means pertaining to a vertebra and the adjacent cartilage

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153
Q

menisci

A

are special structures that act as protective cushions

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154
Q

Perichondrium

A

Is the membrane around the surface of cartilage

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155
Q

Perichondrial perichondrium

A

Means pertaining to, or composed of perichondrium.

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156
Q

temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A

Is the dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint

Is one of a pair of joints connecting the mandible of the jaw to the temporal bone of the skull

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157
Q

tendons

A

Fibrous tissue that attaches the muscles to the bones

are bands of strong, fibrous tissue that attach muscles to bones.

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158
Q

Ligaments

A

Connect bones or cartilage and serve to support and strengthen joints

connective tissue that connects bones or cartilages and supports and strengthens joints is

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159
Q

Yeah,

A
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160
Q

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

A

most common knee injury

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161
Q

Patella

A

kneecap
Is anterior to the knee joint

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162
Q

Lower leg

A

is composed of two bones, the tibia and the fibula
The tibia or shin bone is the larger of the two bones.

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163
Q

fibul/ar
fibular

A

fibula/pertaining to

pertaining to the fibula

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164
Q

Foot

A

Is composed of the ankle, instep, and toes.

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165
Q

ankle or tarsus

A

consist of a group of seven short bones that resemble the bones of the wrist but larger
The ankle is composed of seven tarsal bones called the tarsals

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166
Q

tars/al
tarsal

A

Tarsus/pertaining to

pertaining to the tarsus

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167
Q

calcaneus or heel bone

A

Refers to the heel bone

One of the tarsal bones

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168
Q

Metatarsals

A

bones of the feet

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169
Q

phalanges

A

bones of the toes or fingers

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170
Q

myo/blast
myoblast

A

Is an embryonic cell that will become a cell of the muscle fiber

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171
Q

muscle

A

Is a type of tissue that is composed of fibers are cells that are able to contract, causing movement of the body parts or organs.

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172
Q

skeletal muscle contracts

A

Before a skeletal muscle contracts, it receives an impulse from a nerve cell. The muscle exerts force on tendons, which intern, pull on bones, producing movement.

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173
Q

Hypertonicity

A

of muscles is abnormally increased muscle tone or strength

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174
Q

hypotonicity

A

is diminished tone or tension in any body structure, such as in paralysis

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175
Q

muscul/ar
muscular

A

muscle/pertaining to
Means pertaining to muscle

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176
Q

Muscular system

A

is also closely associated with the nervous system, as indicated by the term neuromuscular, because a muscular fiber must first be stimulated by a nerve impulse before it can contract.

177
Q

Three types of muscle tissue in the body

A

SKELETAL MUSCLE with the primary function of movement of the body and its parts, is voluntarily controlled by the nervous system.
VISCERAL MUSCLE which is located in the walls of organs and blood vessels, is involuntary and controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
CARDIAC MUSCLE is only located in the heart, is involuntary, and is also called myocardium.

178
Q

skeletal muscle cells (fibers)

A

Functions and movement of the body; voluntary

Are long and cylindrical with alternating light and dark bands that give the cell a striated appearance. skeletal muscles are also known as voluntary muscles, because we have conscious control over them.

179
Q

visceral muscle cells

A

Located in the walls of blood vessels and organs; involuntary

Are elongated, spindle shaped, and involuntary. Visceral muscle is also called smooth muscle, because it lacks striations.

180
Q

Cardiac muscle cells (myocardium)

A

Located in the heart; involuntary

are cylindrical and striated, but they are shorter than skeletal muscle cells and are involuntary. These cells branch and interconnect.

181
Q

More than 600 skeletal muscles

A

are attached to and control movement of the skeletal bones.
most skeletal muscles have names that describe some feature of the muscle, sometimes with several features combined in one name.

More skeletal muscles are attached to bones by tendons that span joints. When the muscle contracts, one bone moves relative to the other bone, and muscles, sometimes work in groups to form a particular movement.

182
Q

pectoralis muscle (major)-large size

A

Tells us it is a large muscle of the chest

183
Q

fascia

A

A fibrous membrane that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

184
Q

fascial

A

Means pertaining to a fascia

185
Q

Antagonistic pairs

A

Muscles are arranged in antagonistic pairs.
this means that when one muscle of the pair is contracted, the other is relaxed. For example, the biceps brachii muscle on the anterior arm bends the forearm at the elbow; the triceps brachii muscle on the posterior arm straightens the forearm at the elbow. When the former muscle contracts, the other is relaxed .

186
Q

Extension

A

Movement that strengthens a limb

187
Q

Flexion

A

Bending of a limb at a joint

Is the act of bending, being bent

Movement that bends a limb

The movement that means to bend a limb

188
Q

extensor and flexors

A

The muscles responsible for extension (straightens limbs) and fluxion (bends a limb)

189
Q

Abduction

A

Is the drawing away from the midline of the body, and the responsible muscles are called abductors

190
Q

Abductors

A

Make movement possible away from the midline of the body

191
Q

adduction

A

Is drawing toward the midline of the body

192
Q

adductors

A

The muscles responsible for adduction

193
Q

abductors

A

The muscles responsible for abduction

194
Q

Circumduction

A

A circular movement of a limb at the far end, it is sometimes described as a combination of several movements (abduction, adduction, extension, and flexion)

195
Q

Supination

A

Rotation that turns the palm of the hand up

The rotation that allows the palm of the hand to turn up

196
Q

pronation

A

The rotation that turns the palm of the hand backward

197
Q

Eversion

A

movement that allows turning the sole outward

is a turning outward or inside out, such as a turning of the foot outward at the ankle

198
Q

inversion

A

Turning inward, such as turning of the foot inward at the ankle

199
Q

rotation

A

Is the movement of a bone around its own axis, and the muscle that is responsible for rotation is called a rotator

200
Q

rotator

A

The muscle that is responsible for rotation

201
Q

Rotator cuff

A

is a group of muscles and their tendons in the shoulder that provides mobility and strength to the shoulder joint .
Young people usually sustain a tear of the rotator cuff by substantial injury( throwing a ball or heavy lifting)
however, older adults may experience tears related to aging or repetitive motions.

202
Q

A torn rotator cuff

A

The acronym, and extension of the scapula, forms a joint with the clavicle. Manifestation of a tear in the rotator cuff include shoulder weakness and pain, as well as decreased ROM. A tear in the rotator cuff may result from gradual, degenerative changes of aging, repetitive stress of overhead arm motions, or injury. Young adults with a torn rotator cuff usually have had substantial trauma, such as a fall, heavy lifting, or repetitive overhead motions of swimming, weight lifting, or swinging a racket.

203
Q

Range of motion (ROM)

A

Is measured as either active range of motion (AROM) or passive range of motion (PROM)

204
Q

AROM

A

Is the range of movement through which a patient can actively, without assistance, move a joint by the adjacent muscles

205
Q

PROM

A

Is the maximum range of movement through which the examiner can safely move a persons joint.

206
Q

ROM (range of motion)

A

Is the maximum amount of movement that a healthy joint is capable of, and it is measured in degrees of a circle. Arrow M exercises are used to increase muscle strength and joint mobility.

goniometer is used to measure the angles of the ROM.

207
Q

Reflex action

A

Is the immediate and involuntary function or movement of an organ or body part in response to a particular stimulus.

208
Q

Reflex hammer

A

Is a mallet with a rubber head that is used to tap, tendons, nerves, or muscles to test reflex reaction

209
Q

electromyography EMG

A

is used to record the response of a muscle to electric stimulation.

The resulting record is called an electromyogram.

210
Q

bone density testing also called
bone densitometry

A

is any one of several methods of determining bone mass with machine that measures how well the rays penetrate the bone. This is helpful in diagnosing osteoporosis and determining the effectiveness of therapy.

211
Q

Computed tomography (CT)

A

Produces an image of a cross-section of tissue

212
Q

MRI magnetic resonance imaging

A

is used to view soft tissue (for example, to visualize a cartilage tear)

213
Q

Bone scan

A

Is often useful in demonstrating malignant bone, tumors, which appear as areas of increased uptake of radioactive material.

214
Q

CT, MRI, bone, scans, and biopsy

A

Are used to distinguish between benign and malignant tumors.

215
Q

Bone marrow studies

A

Are used to diagnose leukemia, identified tumors, or other disorders of the bone marrow, and determine the extent of myelosuppression.

216
Q

Myelosuppression
myelosuppression

A

Is inhibition of the bone marrow activity

217
Q

bone marrow aspiration

A

The posterior iliac crest is generally the preferred site for bone marrow aspiration. In adults the anterior iliac crest or the sternum may also be used.

218
Q

Arthroscopy of the knee

A

The examination of the interior of a joint is performed by inserting and
arthroscope through a small incision, and then sterile fluid is pumped into the space to expand the joint and aid and it’s visualization.

219
Q

arthroscope

A

Is a fiberoptic instrument used for direct visualization of the interior of a joint.
The process is called arthroscopy

This procedure permits, biopsy of cartilage or damaged synovial membrane, diagnosis of a torn cartilage, and in some instances, removal of loose bodies in the joint space.

Contains optical, fibers, and lenses that allow close visualization of the joint and is connected to a video camera. The doctor sees the appearance of the interior of the joint on a television monitor.

220
Q

Arthrocentesis

A

Is surgical puncture of a joint with a needle. This is performed to obtain samples of synovial fluid for diagnostic purposes, to remove excess fluid from joints to relieve pain, or to instill medications.

221
Q

Arthrography

A

Is radiographic visualization of the inside of a joint. This is usually done by a intraarticular injection of a radiopaque substance.

222
Q

intraarticular and intra-articular

A

Mean within the joint

223
Q

arthrogram

A

The radiographic record produced after introduction of opaque contrast material into a joint is

224
Q

Lumbar puncture (LP)

A

is performed for various therapeutic and diagnostic procedures.
Diagnostic purposes include obtaining cerebrospinal fluid, measuring its pressure, or injecting substances for radiographic studies of the nervous system.
Therapeutic indications include removing blood or pus, injecting drugs, and introducing an anesthetic for spinal anesthesia.

225
Q

lumbar puncture

A

Is so named because the needle is inserted between two lumbar vertebrae, usually L2-L3 or L3-L4.

226
Q

Flexed lateral position

A

Fetal position

227
Q

Important laboratory tests are used to assess musculoskeletal disorders

A

1)Antinuclear antibody test (ANA) serum is tested for antinuclear antibodies. Test is used primarily to diagnose, systemic lupus erythematosus although a positive result, may indicate other autoimmune diseases.
2)Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
This is the rate at which erythrocytes settle out in a tube of blood that has been treated to prevent clotting. Elevated levels are found in many inflammatory processes.
3) Rheumatoid factor RF The RF test is positive in most patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
4)Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) increased levels are found in skeletal muscle disorders and myocardial infarction (death of a portion of cardiac muscle, which is commonly called a heart attack)

228
Q

serum calcium and serum phosphorus

A

Are decreased whenever there is excessive loss of calcium from the bone

229
Q

Calciuria

A

means calcium in the urine

230
Q

hypercalciuria

A

Is often seen in metastatic bone disease, in which there is rapid born destruction.

231
Q

electromyogram

A

The record produced by electric stimulation of a muscle

232
Q

injury

A

Is a primary cause of problems of the musculoskeletal system, the bones, muscles, and associated tissue are subject to various pathologies, including metabolic disturbances, infections, congenital disorders, and connective tissue diseases.

233
Q

myalgia and
myodynia

A

is muscular pain

234
Q

Muscle cramp

A

Is a painful, involuntary muscle spasm, often caused by inflammation of the muscle, but it can be a symptom of electrolyte imbalance.

235
Q

electrolyte imbalance

A

An example is tetany - a condition, characterized by cramps, convulsions, twitching of the muscles, and sharp flexion of the wrist and ankle joints. it is caused by an imbalance in calcium metabolism.

236
Q

tetany

A

Is a nervous condition characterized by continuous muscle contractions involving the extremities

A condition characterized by cramps, convulsions, twitching of the muscles, and sharp flexion of the wrist and ankle joints. it is caused by an imbalance in calcium metabolism.

237
Q

Common musculoskeletal injuries

A

Include simple muscle strains, sprains, dislocation, and fractures

238
Q

strain

A

Damage, usually muscular, results from excessive physical force

239
Q

Sprain

A

A traumatic injury to the tendons, muscles, or ligaments around a joint, characterized by pain, swelling, and discoloration of the skin over the joint.

240
Q

Dislocation

A

displacement of a bone from a joint; often evident on x-ray images of the affected bones

241
Q

fracture

A

A break in a bone; usually evident on x-ray images of the affected bones.

Fractures are described as complete or incomplete and simple versus compound.

242
Q

compression fracture

A

Is a bone break caused by excessive vertical force. Pieces of the bone tend to move out in horizontal directions, and the affected bone collapses. The spinal cord is sometimes damaged in compression fractures of the vertebrae.

243
Q

complete fractures

A

With the brake across the entire width of the bone, so that it is divided into two sections, or incomplete fractures

244
Q

compound fracture, which is also called an open fracture

A

Is a Greek with a Bonus protrudes skin. Also called an open fracture.

The bone protrude through the skin

245
Q

Simple or closed fracture

A

if a bone is fractured, but does not protrude through the skin

246
Q

greenstick fracture

A

is seen principally in children, whose bones are still pliant
An incomplete fracture in which the bone is bent and fractured on one side only

247
Q

Fractures types

A

1) impacted fracture: one bone fragment is firmly driven into the fractured end of another fragment

2) comminuted fracture: bone is broken into many small fragments

3) spiral fracture: bone is twisted apart (also shows displacement)

4) transverse fracture. The break in the bone is at right angles to the axis of the bone (also shows displacement)

248
Q

spiral and transverse fractures

A

Often result in open fractures

249
Q

immobilization of fractures

A

By use of a cast is common

250
Q

Atrophy

A

means a decrease in the size of an organ or tissue. this type of trophy is called disuse a trophy.

muscle shrinks, when a limb is immobilized for a long period.

251
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

Chronic condition of the wrist

A

Is an example of trauma that results from prolonged, repetitive movements. CTS is a condition in which the median nerve in the wrist becomes compressed, causing pain and discomfort, excessive hand exercise, a potential occupational hazard, can lead to a chronic condition of CTS.

Surgery to relieve the pressure on the nerve may be necessary

252
Q

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

Is the ankle version of CTS. Treatment is similar to that for CTS.

253
Q

Pain dysfunction syndrome or is sometimes shortened to TMJ temporomandibular joint

A

an abnormal condition, characterized by facial pain and by mandibular dysfunction, apparently caused by a defective or dislocated temporomandibular joint, some indications of this disorder are clicking of the joint when the jaw moves, Limitation of job, movement, and temporomandibular dislocation.

254
Q

tarsoptosis

A

Is prolapse of the tarsals/tarsus. This is commonly called flat foot.

255
Q

Hallux

A

Means the great toe

256
Q

Hallux valgus

A

is a deformity of the foot, which is sometimes called a bunion. The great toe deviates laterally at the metatarsalphalangeal joint.

257
Q

hammer toe

A

It’s a toll that is permanently flexed at the midphalangeal joint, producing a claw-like appearance. This common abnormality often occurs simultaneously with Hollux valgus. hammer told may be present in more than one digit, but the second toe is most often affected.

258
Q

corns

A

(hard masses of epithelial cells overlying a bony prominence) may develop on the dorsal side,

259
Q

calluses

A

(thickening of the outer layers of the skin at points of friction or pressure) may appear on the planter surface.

260
Q

Morton neuroma

A

A small, painful tumor grows in a digital nerve of the foot. Surgical removal of the neuroma is generally indicated if the pain persists and interferes with walking.

261
Q

Dupuytren contracture

A

is the cleaning and tightening of the Palmer fascia, causing the fourth and fifth finger to bend into the palm and resist extension. That causes not known.

262
Q

Spinal stenosis

A

often a result of spinal degeneration, is narrowing of the spaces at any point along the spine and may result in compression of the cauda equine in the lumbar spine. Symptoms include pain, paresthesias, and neurogenic cramp like pains in the lower extremities.

263
Q

Joint crepitus

A

The crackling sound produced when a bone rubs against another bone or roughened cartilage

264
Q

arthro/chondr/itis
arthrochondritis

A

joint/cartilage/inflammation
Inflammation of the articular cartilage

265
Q

burs/itis
bursitis

A

bursa/inflammation
Inflammation of a bursa, resulting from repetitive motion, trauma, infection, or other disorders of the musculoskeletal system

266
Q

calcane/itis
calcaneitis

A

heel bone/inflammation
Inflammation of the heel bone

267
Q

calcaneo/dynia
calcaneodynia

A

heel bone/pain
Painful heel

268
Q

chondr/algia
chondr algia

chondro/dynia
chondrodynia

A

Would be expected, if cartilage becomes damaged

cartilage/pain
Pain of the cartilage

269
Q

chondr/itis
chondritis

A

cartilage/inflammation
Inflammation of the cartilage

270
Q

osteo/chondr/itis
osteochondritis

A

bone/cartilage/inflammation
Inflammation of both bone and cartilage

271
Q

chondro/pathy
chondropathy

A

cartilage/disease
Any disease of a cartilage

272
Q

ischi/algia
ischialgia

A

ischium/pain
pain in the ischium

273
Q

ischio/dynia
ischiodynia

A

ischium/pain
pain in the ischium

274
Q

rachi/algia
rachialgia

rachio/dynia
rachiodynia

A

spine/pain
Painful condition of the spine

275
Q

sacro/dynia
sacrodynia

A

sacrum/pain
Pain in the sacrum

276
Q

spondyl/algia
spondylalgia

A

vertebra/pain
Pain in a vertebrae

277
Q

stern/algia
sternalgia

A

Sternum/pain
Pain in the sternum/ breastbone

278
Q

synov/itis
synovitis

A

synovial membrane/inflammation
Inflammation of a synovial joint

279
Q

ten/algia
tenalgia

teno/dynia
tenodynia

A

tendon/pain
Pain in a tendon

280
Q

tendin/itis
tendinitis** preferred spelling

tendon/itis
tendonitis

A

tendon/inflammation
Inflammation of a tendon. Sometimes occurs in conjunction with bursitis.

281
Q

tibi/algia
tibialgia

A

tibia/pain
Pain in the tibia

282
Q

Normal bone metabolism

A

Is affected by nutrition, hormones, and hereditary factors.

283
Q

Metabolic bone disorders:

A

Osteomalacia: which is characterized by decalcification, a loss of calcium, and softening of the bones, accompanied by weakness, fracture, pain, anorexia, and weight loss.

Osteoporosis: which is a reduction in the amount of bone mass and increase porosity. The bones appear thin and fragile, and fractures are common. Reduction in the amount of bone mass leads to subsequent fractures. It occurs most commonly in postmenopausal women, sedentary individuals, and patients receiving long term steroid therapy. Bones appear thin and fragile. Loss of height and spinal deformities are common.

Paget disease: which is a skeletal disorder of unknown cause characterized by excessive bone destruction (osteolysis). The disease is named for sir, James Paget, an English surgeon; it is also called osteitis deformans, because it was originally thought to be an inflammatory process.

284
Q

Dowager’s Hump

A

Is an abnormal curvature of the spine from front to back often seen in osteoporosis (caused by multiple fractures of the thoracic vertebrae).

285
Q

Osteomalacia

A

A condition that follows bone decalcification

Is abnormal softening of the bones due to decalcification
Is the adult equivalent of rickets in children

Which is characterized by decalcification, a loss of calcium, and softening of the bones, accompanied by weakness, fracture, pain, anorexia, and weight loss.

286
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Which is a reduction in the amount of bone mass and increase porosity. The bones appear thin and fragile, and fractures are common. Reduction in the amount of bone mass leads to subsequent fractures. It occurs most commonly and postmenopausal women, sedentary individuals, and patients receiving long-term steroid therapy. Bones appear thin and fragile. Loss of height and spinal deformities are common.

287
Q

Osteolysis

A

Excessive bone destruction

Is associated with Paget disease

288
Q

Paget disease

A

Which is a skeletal disorder of unknown cause characterized by excessive bone destruction. The disease is named for, sir, James Paget, an English surgeon; it is also called osteitis deformans.

289
Q

Osteosclerosis

A

Excessive formation can lead to abnormal hardness and unusual heaviness of bone

290
Q

Osteoporotic

A

Changes in the curvature of the spine.
These changes come around the age of 60 and 70 and they bring about a loss of as much as 6 to 9 inches in height, and the so-called dowager’s hump in the upper thoracic vertebrae.

291
Q

Rickets

A

Vitamin D and calcium deficiency in childhood, resulting in abnormal bone formation

This condition caused by deficiency of vitamin D results in abnormal bone formation, such as the bowed legs. (legs are bent outward at the knee)

Insufficient calcium for bone mineralization during the growing years causes rickets.
Skeletal deformities of rickets are much more severe than those of osteomalacia in adults.

292
Q

calci/penia
calcipenia

A

Calcium/deficiency
a deficiency of calcium in the body

293
Q

Vitamin D

A

Aids in the absorption of calcium from the intestinal tract. A deficiency of vitamin D results in insufficient calcium absorption and calcipenia.

294
Q

Osteopenia - reduce bone mass

A

Not a disease, but a condition that is common to metabolic bone disease. Is a reduced bone mass, which is usually the result of synthesis not compensating for the rate of destruction of bone.

295
Q

Osteitis

A

Is inflammation of a bone. It may be caused by infection, degeneration, or trauma.
Osteitis results in ostealgia, also called osteodynia, which means bone pain

296
Q

Ostealgia
Osteodynia

A

Bone pain

297
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation of the bone and bone marrow

Is an infection of the bone and bone marrow caused by infectious microorganisms that are introduced by trauma or surgery, by extension from a nearby infection, or via the bloodstream. Staphylococci are common causes of osteomyelitis.

298
Q

Myelitis

A

Means inflammation of either the bone marrow or the spinal cord

299
Q

Cellulitis

A

Is an acute spreading, swollen, pus-forming inflammation of the deep subcutaneous tissues. It may be associated with abscess formation. If the muscle is also involved, it is called myocellulitis

300
Q

Myocellulitis

A

Inflammation of muscle and deep subcutaneous tissue

An acute pus-forming inflammation of the tissues and muscle

301
Q

Benign bone tumors

A

Benign tumors arise from several types of tissue. The major classifications include chondrogenic tumors, osteogenic tumors, and fibrogenic tumors.

302
Q

Chondrogenic

A

Tumors develop in the cartilage.

303
Q

chondroma

A

Is a benign tumor or tumorlike growth of mature cartilage.

304
Q

osteochondroma

A

Which is composed of bone and cartilage, is the most common benign bone tumor.

305
Q

Osteogenic tumors

A

Arise in the bone. These are usually benign, but one type, giant cell tumor of the bone, sometimes metastasizes.

306
Q

Fibrogenic

A

Tumors are derived from fibrous tissue

307
Q

Metastatic bone cancer

A

Occurs far more frequently than primary bone cancer.
primary cancers of the breast, prostate, kidney, thyroid, and lung are sometimes called bone seeking cancers, because they frequently metastasize to bone tissue, especially bone marrow.

308
Q

Terms using the word part -sarcoma name or describe malignant tumors.

A

Osteosarcoma means a malignant primary neoplasm of bone

There may be rare instances of misnomers. Osteosarcoma is the most common type of primary malignant bone tumor. In addition to osteosarcoma, other primary bone tumors, include these cancers.
Chondrosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Ewing sarcoma

309
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A

Malignant tumor derived from cartilage, spreads to the bone, and destroys it.

310
Q

Fibrosarcoma

A

Arises from fibrous tissues. Ewing sarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor.

311
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

Is a malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow that disrupts and destroys bone marrow function. Both multiple myeloma and leukemia are white blood cell cancers with proliferation of certain types of cells, and limited production of normal red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

312
Q

Leukemia

A

Is a blood condition with many immature white blood cells.

Is a broad term given to a group of malignant diseases that are characterized by replacement of bone marrow with proliferating immature leukocytes and abnormal numbers of immature leukocytes in the blood circulation.

313
Q

The classification of leukemia is complex

A

But the diseases classified, according to the predominant type of proliferating leukocytes.
Acute leukemia has a sudden onset, whereas chronic leukemia developes slowly, and signs similar to those of acute leukemia may not appear for years. Diagnosis made by blood test and bone marrow biopsies.

314
Q

Lymphocytic or lymphoblastic and myelocytic, or myelogenous

A

Leukemias are broad classifications, and several subtypes exist.

315
Q

Lymphoblastic

A

Are immature cells that develop into lymphocytes

316
Q

Granulocytes

A

Immune cells in myelogenous leukemias are ………….

317
Q

ALL

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

318
Q

CLL

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

319
Q

AML

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia

320
Q

CML

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

321
Q

Spina bifida
malformation of the spine

A

Is a congenital abnormality characterized by defective closure of the bones of the spine. It can be so extensive that it allows herniation of the spinal cord, or it might be evident only on reveal logic examination.

Is a developmental defect in the lower spine. In cases where the separation is wide enough contents of the spinal canal protrude through the opening.

322
Q

Dystrophy

A

Is any abnormal condition caused by defective nutrition, often in telling a developmental change in muscles.

323
Q

Muscular dystrophy

A

Is a group of inherited diseases that are characterized by weakness and atrophy of muscle, without involvement of the nervous system. In all forms of muscular dystrophy there is progressive disability and loss of strength. The name of this disease, the cause of which is unknown, but appears to be an inborn error of metabolism.

324
Q

Polydactylism or polydactyly

A

Is the presence of many digits on the hands or feet. In either of these terms, it is understood that the number of digits it’s greater than the expected number of five.

325
Q

Syndactyly this is also called syndactylism

A

It’s a congenital anomaly of the hand or foot marked by persistence of the webbing between adjacent digits, so they are more or less completely attached. It can’t be so severe that there is complete union of the digits and fusion of the bones.

326
Q

Craniocele

A

Hernial protrusion of the brain through a defect in the skull; encephalocele

327
Q

kyphosis

A

Abnormal convexity in the curvature of the thoracic spine is viewed from the side

328
Q

Lordosis

A

Abnormal concavity of the lumbar spine as viewed from the side

329
Q

rachischisis

A

A fissure (split) of one or more vertebrae

330
Q

sternoschisis

A

Fissure (split) of the sternum (breastbone)

331
Q

Scoliosis

A

Lateral curvature of the spine, a fairly common abnormality of childhood, especially in females; sometimes it is caused by unequal leg lengths

332
Q

Abnormal curvature of the spine

A

1) scoliosis, lateral curvature of the spine
2) lordosis, abnormal anterior concavity of the lumbar spine
3) severe kyphosis, of the thoracic spine

333
Q

Arthritis

A

Is any inflammatory condition of the joints, characterized by pain, heat, swelling, redness, and limitation of movement.

334
Q

ankyl/osing spondyl/itis
ankylosing spondylitis

A

A form of rheumatoid arthritis affects the spine

Is inflammation and stiffening that affects the vertebrae (spine)

stiff/ spine/information
Inflammation and stiffening of the spine; the causes unknown

335
Q

ankyl/osis
ankylosis

A

In mobility of a joint

stiff/condition

Stiffening of a joint

336
Q

arthr/algia
arthralgia

arthro/dynia
arthro dynia

A

joint/pain
Pain in a joint

337
Q

arthro/pathy
arthropathy

A

joint/disease
Any disease of the joints

338
Q

arthro/sclerosis
arthrosclerosis

A

joint/hardening
Hardening of the joints

339
Q

dors/algia
Dorsalgia

A

back/pain
Pain in the back

340
Q

osteo/arthro/pathy
osteoarthropathy

A

bones/joint/disease
A disease of the bones and joints

341
Q

poly/arthr/itis
polyarthritis

A

many/joint/inflammation
Inflammation of more than one joint; the inflammation may migrate from one joint to the other, or several joints may be inflamed simultaneously.

342
Q

spondyl/arthr/itis
spondylarthritis

A

vertebrae/joint/inflammation
Spinal arthritis

343
Q

spondyl/arthro/pathy
spondylarthropathy

A

vertebrae/joint/disease

Disorder affecting the joints and spine
General term that means anyone of a group of inflammatory disorders, that affect the joints and spine

344
Q

Autoimmune diseases

A

Are characterized by altered function of the immune system, and include the following diseases
Lupus Erythematosus: named for the characteristic butterfly rash (usually red) that appears across the bridge of the nose in some cases. Classified as cutaneous or discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) and systemic lupus erythematosus. (SLE)
Systemic scleroderma: characterized by inflammation, fibrosis, and sclerosis of the skin and vital organs; also called systemic sclerosis. Causes unknown, but autoimmunity is suspected.
Sjogren Syndrome: characterized by deficient fluid production, which leads to dry eyes, dry mouth, and dryness of other mucous membranes, primarily affecting women older than 40 years.

345
Q

Connective tissue diseases

A

Are a group of acquired disorders that cause immunologic and inflammatory changes in small blood vessels and connective tissues, and include two important types of arthritis
1) osteoarthritis: a form of arthritis in which one or more joints undergo degenerative changes particularly loss of articular cartilage; it is also called degenerative joint disease DJD
2) rheumatoid arthritis RA: the second most commonly occurring connective tissue disease. It is also the most destructive to joints, primarily affecting synovial joints. Joint deformity is common.

346
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Is the most common form of arthritis, but generally, rheumatoid arthritis is more destructive to joints

347
Q

gout

included in disease of arthritis because it affects the joints

A

Is a systemic disease associated with an inborn error of uric acid metabolism. Urate crystals deposit in the joints, myocardium, kidneys, and ears, causing inflammation. The disease can cause painful swelling of a joint, accompanied by chills and fever. Males are affected more often than females, and diet and medication are critical in the management of this disease.

348
Q

Lyme disease

A

Is an infection caused by the bite of an infected deer tick. Symptoms in the early stages of the disease are a circular rash, ill feeling, fever, headache, and muscle and joint aches. Prompt antibiotic treatment is effective. Without treatment, a small percentage of infected persons will develop arthritis as well as heart and neurologic problems.

349
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

There is marked deformity of the metacarpophalangeal joints, causing deviation of the fingers to the ulnar side of the hand

350
Q

Polymyositis

A

Is an inflammatory myopathy that involves many muscles, which leads to a trophy of the muscle. Weight loss, fatigue, and gradual weakness of the muscles are characteristics.

351
Q

Myopathy

A

A disease of the muscles

352
Q

Myofascial

A

Pertains to a muscle and its fascia. Myofascial pain syndrome is pain in one region of the body, often diagnosed by palpitation of a trigger point that causes pain and twitching of a muscle some distance away from the point of palpitation.

353
Q

Chronic fatigue syndrome

A

Is a disorder characterized by disabling fatigue, accompanied by a variety of associated complaints, including muscle pain, joint pain, and headache. Named for its chief symptom fatigue.

354
Q

Polymyalgia

A

Means pain of many muscles.

Pain in many muscles

355
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the arteries in muscles. The major symptoms are stiffness, weakness, and eating that occur, most commonly in the shoulder or pelvic girdle.

356
Q

Fibromyalgia also called fibromyalgia syndrome

A

Is characterized by widespread non-articular pain of the torso, extremities, and the face. It may be attributed to deep sleep deprivation. Non-articular means that the joints are not involved in this chronic disorder.

357
Q

Trophy of muscle tissue occurs as one ages

A

But the rate is slowed by exercise. Therapeutic exercise that increases muscle, strength and tone is helpful with balance and walking and provide support for the joints as one ages.

358
Q

Myolysis

A

Means disintegration or degeneration of muscle.

359
Q

myomalacia

A

Is abnormal softening of muscle tissue

360
Q

Myasthenia

A

Is a term specifically applied to muscle weakness. The suffix -asthenia means weakness.

361
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

A disease of the nervous system that is characterized by fatigue and muscle weakness

Is a disease of unknown cause, characterized by fatigue and muscle weakness resulting from the defect in the conduction of nerve impulses. It may either be restricted to one muscle group or become generalized. The disorder may affect any muscles of the body, but especially those of the eyes, face, lips, tongue, neck, and throat.

362
Q

myocele

A

Is herniation of a muscle through its ruptured sheath.

363
Q

myofibrosis

A

Condition where muscle is replaced by fibrous tissue

Is a condition in which muscle tissue is replaced by fibrous tissue

364
Q

Simple, complete fracture

A

A fracture in which the bone is broken into two pieces, but does not protrude through the skin

365
Q

Fibula

A

The smaller bone of the lower leg

366
Q

Orthopedics

A

Is the branch of medicine that specializes in the prevention and correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system.

367
Q

Orthopedic surgeon

A

Orthopedist restore fractures to their normal position by reduction, pulling the broken fragments into alignment.

368
Q

Reduction

A

Pulling the broken fragments into alignment

Pulling a fracture into alignment

369
Q

Closed reduction

A

Pulling a broken bone into alignment without surgery

A fracture is usually restore to its normal position by manipulation without surgery

370
Q

Splint

A

Immobilizes, restraints, or supports the injured part (example, the finger) until healing occurs.

371
Q

Cast

A

Is a stiffer, more solid dressing form with plaster of Paris or other material

372
Q

Traction

A

Is the use of pulling force to a part of the body to produce alignment and rest, while decreasing muscle spasm and correcting or preventing deformity.

373
Q

Open reduction

A

Exposing a broken bone by surgery and aligning it

If a fracture must be exposed by surgery before the broken ends can be aligned

374
Q

Internal fixation

A

Surgery that uses pins or other materials to immobilize a broken bone

Uses pins, rods, plates, screws, and or other materials to immobilize the fracture. After healing, the fixation devices may be either removed or left in place.

375
Q

External fixation

A

May be used in both open and close reductions. This method uses metal pins attached to a compression device outside the skin surface.

376
Q

After a bone is broken

A

The body begins the healing process to repair the injury. Electric bone stimulation, bone grafting, and ultrasound treatment may be used when healing is slow or does not occur.

377
Q

spondylo/syn/desis
spondylosyndesis

A

Is spinal fusion(to make the spine immobile)

Vertebra/joined (or together)/binding or fusion
Is spinal fusion. It is fixation of an unstable segment of the spine, generally accomplished by surgical fusion with a bone graft or a synthetic device.

378
Q

Laminectomy

A

Surgical removal of one or more bony arches of the vertebrae and is largely performed to relieve the pain of herniated discs and compression fractures.
This is a surgical removal of the bony posterior arch of the vertebrae to permit surgical access to the disc so that the herniated material can be removed.

379
Q

Diskectomy

A

Complete excision of an intervertebral disk.

380
Q

Vertebroplasty

A

Vertebral fractures can sometimes be repaired by vertebroplasty. In this procedure, a plastic like substance is injected on each side of the fractured vertebra to hold the fragments in position while the bone heals.
The name of the procedure used to assist the healing of a fractured vertebra —————

381
Q

Partial Fasciectomy

A

Is excision of fascia.

A partial fasciectomy is generally performed to relieve Dupuytren contracture when function becomes impaired

382
Q

Bunionectomy

A

Excision of a bunion.
Surgical repair to straighten the great toe can be done at the same time. Surgery may be performed to correct the alignment in hammer toe also.

383
Q

Arthrectomy

A

Is excision of a joint

384
Q

Arthrotomy

A

Means incision of a joint

385
Q

Arthroplasty

A

Is surgical repair of a joint
When other measures are in adequate to provide pain control for degenerative joint disease, surgery may be indicated, often total joint replacement TJR.

386
Q

Chondroplasty

A

Surgical repair of damaged cartilage. This may be necessary if the cartilage becomes torn or displaced.

387
Q

chondrectomy

A

Means surgical removal of cartilage

388
Q

Prosthesis

A

Is artificial replacement of a missing body part, such as an artificial limb or total joint replacement. Knee replacement follows hip replacement as the most commonly replaced joint.

389
Q

Continuous passive motion, machine, CPM

A

After knee replacement surgery, progressive exercise, sometimes include a continuous passive motion machine, CPM

390
Q

Arthro/desis
Arthrodesis

A

joint/fusion
Means fusion of a joint
It’s a surgical procedure that is used to immobilize a joint. It is artificial ankylosis. If using the bones together, stabilizes painful joints that have become on able to bear weight. Thus a stiff but stable and painless joint results.

391
Q

Arthroclasia

A

Is surgical breaking of an ankylosis (immobile joint) to provide mobility.

Is artificial breaking of an ankylosed joint to provide movement. Arthroclasia is a surgical procedure that is used to break adhesions of an ankylosed joint.

392
Q

Arthrolysis

A

Means operative loosening of adhesions in an ankylosed joint

393
Q

burs/ectomy
bursectomy

A

bursa/excision
Excision of a bursa

394
Q

carp/ectomy
carpectomy

A

carpus/excision
Excision of one or more of the bones of the wrist

395
Q

coccyg/ectomy
coccygectomy

A

Excision of the tailbone

coccyx/excision
Excision of the coccyx

396
Q

Cost/ectomy
costectomy

A

Ribexcision
Excision of a rib

397
Q

crani/ectomy
craniectomy

A

Skull/excision
excision of a segment of the skull
When a part of the skull is removed to remove a tumor, for example. The bone may be replaced immediately after surgery or be temporary left off to reduce pressure from swelling due to trauma caused by the surgery.

398
Q

Cranio/plasty
Cranioplasty

A

Skull/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the cranium

399
Q

Cranio/tomy
Craniotomy

A

Is cutting into the skull

Cranium/incision
Incision into the cranium

Any surgical opening into the skull is a craniotomy.

400
Q

Myo/plasty
Myoplasty

A

Muscle/surgical repair
Surgical repair of a muscle

401
Q

myo/rrhaphy
myorrhaphy

A

Muscle/suture
Suture of a torn or cut muscle

402
Q

oste/ectomy
ostectomy or osteectomy

A

Bone/excision
Excision of a bone or a portion of it

403
Q

Osteo/tome
Osteotome

A

Is an instrument used to cut a bone

404
Q

Osteo/plasty
Osteoplasty

A

Bone/surgical repair
Surgical repair of a bone

405
Q

Phalang/ectomy
phalangectomy

A

Finger or toe/excision
Excision of a bone of the finger or toe

406
Q

Sterno/tomy

Sternotomy

A

Sternum/incision
Incision of the sternum, a common incision used in open-heart surgery

407
Q

Tendo/plasty
Tendoplasty

A

Tendon/surgical repair
Surgical repair of the tendon

408
Q

tenomyoplasty
tenomyoplasty

A

tendon/muscle/surgical
Surgical repair of a tendon and muscle

409
Q

teno/rrhaphy
tenorrhaphy

A

tendon/suture
Union of a divided tendon by suture

410
Q

Teno/tomy
Tenotomy

A

tendon/incision
Incision of a tendon

411
Q

vertebr/ectomy
vertebrectomy

A

Vertebra/excision
Excision of a vertebrae

412
Q

Antiarthritics

A

Are various forms of therapy that relieve the symptoms of arthritis, as well as anti-arthritic agents, which reduce inflammation and pain

413
Q

Uricosurics

A

Are drugs that increase urinary excretion of uric acid in the treatment of gout

414
Q

Hematologist
Oncologist

A

Treat persons with cancer or leukemia.
The motive treatment differs for different types of leukemia, but aggressive chemotherapy is common.

A major side effect of chemotherapy is severe, bone marrow, suppression, so a combination of chemotherapy, antibiotics, prevent infection, and blood transfusion to replace red blood cells and platelets is often given.

415
Q

Myelosuppression

A

An agent that inhibits bone marrow activity
Means inhibiting bone marrow activity

416
Q

Bone marrow transplant, BMT

A

Is used to stimulate the production of normal blood cells. The patient’s bone marrow is first destroyed with radiation and chemotherapy. Healthy bone marrow cells, stem cells, are transfused into the patient’s blood: they migrate to the spongy bone and multiply into cancer free bone marrow cells.

417
Q

Bone marrow transplants

A

Cord blood, collected immediately, after birth, is rich in stem cells, and may be an alternative to bone marrow transplants.

418
Q

Autologus transplants

A

Clients receive their own stem cells, which were collected before chemotherapy was begun

419
Q

Osteotomy

A

Excision of a bone

420
Q

Primary bone tumors

A

The treatment is surgical, often combined with chemotherapy and radiation. Pain can be intense in malignant bone tumors, so controlling pain is an important part of a patient’s care

421
Q

Antiinflammatories

A

Medication’s that reduce inflammation

422
Q

Drug class: effect in uses

A
423
Q

Analgesics: Relieve pain

A

acetaminophen (Tylenol)
aspirin (Bayer)
celecoxib (Celebrex)
fentanyl (Duragesic)
morphine (MS Contin) oxycodone (OxyContin)

424
Q

Antigout Agents: Treat gout

A

colchicine (Colcrys)
pegloticase (Krystexxa)

425
Q

Uricosurics: Increase urinary excretion of uric acid

A

probenecid (Benemid)

426
Q

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors: Reduce production of uric acid

A

allopurinol (Zyloprim)

427
Q

Antiinflammatories: Reduce inflammatio

A

Corticosteroids and nonsteroidal antinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) act as antinflammatories.

hydrocortisone (Cortef)
ibuprofen (Motrin)
ketorolac (Toradoll methylprednisolone (Medrol)
prednisone (Kayos)
triamcinolone (Kenalog)

428
Q

Antiosteoporotics: Used to treat osteoporosis

A

Some bisphosphonates and selective estrogen receptor modulators act as antiosteoporotics.

alendronate (Fosamax)
ir modulators aut as unuusteoporotics.
calcitonin (Miacalcin
raloxifene (Evista)

429
Q

Bisphosphonates: Affect bone formation to treat bone diseases such as osteoporosis

A

alendronate (Fosamax)
ibandronate (Boniva)
zoledronic acid (Zometa)

430
Q

Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDs): Slow progression of rheumatoid arthritis and other autoimmune diseases

A

auranofin (Ridaura)
etanercept (Enbrel)
infliximab (Remicade)
methotrexate (Trexall)
tocilizumab (Actemra)

431
Q

Muscle Relaxants: Relax skeletal muscles to relieve pain due to muscle spasms

A

carisoprodol (Somal
cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
metaxalone (Skelaxin)

432
Q

Neuromuscular-Blocking Drugs: Induce muscle paralysis for surgery

A

cisatracurium (Nimbex)
pancuronium (Pavulon)
succiny/choline (Anectine)

433
Q

Decalcification

A

Is the loss of calcium from bone

434
Q

Decalcification

A

Is the loss of calcium from bone

435
Q

Decalcification

A

Is the loss of calcium from bone

436
Q

Herniated disk

A

Is aventure of cartilage between vertebra

437
Q

Tibia

A

Is commonly known as the shin bone

438
Q

Compound fracture

A

Broken bone protrudes through the skin

439
Q

Anomaly

A

A marked deviation from the normal standard, especially as a result of congenital defects