Definition of Terms Flashcards
(165 cards)
1
Q
fluid obtained from a cyst of a dog tapeworm
source of P1 substance
can be used to neutralize anti-P1
A
Hydatid cyst
2
Q
gamma or electron treatment of a cellular blood product to prevent transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD)
A
Irradiation
3
Q
nonpenetrating cryoprotective agent added to protect cells against damage
A
Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
4
Q
number of charged particles in a solution
A
Ionic strength
5
Q
decreased in body temperature
A
Hypothermia
6
Q
transfusion administered to a fetus while still in the uterus
A
Intrauterine transfusion
7
Q
reaction of the body to respond and recognize foreign substances
A
Immune response
8
Q
type of immune response induced by initial exposure to the antigens
A
Primary immune response
9
Q
type of immune response induced by second exposure to an antigen
also known as ________
A
Secondary immune response
Anamnestic response
10
Q
refers to passing of one gene from each parent to the offspring
A
Independent segregation
11
Q
in reference to glycoprotein or glycolipid antigens, it is the sugar molecule that gives the antigen its specificity
A
Immunodominant sugar
12
Q
immunodominant sugar: L-fucose
A
H antigen specificity
13
Q
immunodominant sugar: N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
A
A antigen specificity
14
Q
immunodominant sugar: D-galactose
A
B antigen specificity
15
Q
refers to random behavior of genes on separate chromosome inherited separately from each other
A
Independent assortment
16
Q
any substance capable of stimulating an immune response
A
Immunogen
17
Q
in vitro reaction in which under certain condition of time and temperature allow antigen-antibody complex to occur
A
Incubation
18
Q
ability of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response
A
Immunogenicity
19
Q
while fetus is in the uterus
A
In utero
20
Q
synonym for an antibody
A
Immunoglobulin
21
Q
presence of agglutination or hemolysis in compatibility testing
A
Incompatible
22
Q
study of blood-related antigens and antibodies
A
Immunohematology
23
Q
rare dominant gene that inhibits the production of all Lutheran antigens
A
In Lu
24
Q
yellow appearance of the skin, sclera of the eyes and body secretions caused by increased bilirubin level
A
Jaundice
25
manner by which a gene is passed from one generation to another
Mode of Inheritance
26
type of inheritance patterns
trait manifested by people who are homozygous for the alleles
both parents who do not express the trait may be carrier or heterozygous for the recessive allele.
give examples!
Autosomal recessive
ex. Rh negative (dd), Lu (a-b-), Bombay phenotype
27
type of inheritance patterns
trait appears much more frequently in males than in females due to inheritance from carrier mothers
give example!
Sex-Linked recessive
Ex. Hemophilia A
28
type of inheritance patterns
traits transmitted to all daughters of affected father but not to sons
give example!
Sex-linked dominant
Ex. Xga blood group
29
type of inheritance patterns
trait that appears when the gene that has been inherited can be found in each generation occurs with equal frequency in males and females
give example!
Autosomal dominant
Ex. Most blood group system
30
condition due an increase in uncojugated bilirubin
Kernicterus
31
type of agglutination pattern where a population of the red cells has agglutinated and the remainder of the red cells are not agglutinated
Mixed field agglutination
32
test performed on a maternal blood specimen to detec fetal maternal hemorrhage
Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test
33
common drug used in the treatment of hypertension
frequently the cause of a positive DAT
Methy dopa (Aldomet)
34
states that ABO antibodies are present in plasma/serum when the corresponding ABO blood antigens are not present on the erythrocytes
Landsteiner law
35
replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hour interval
Massive transfusion
36
condition of an abnormal presence of high molecular weight immunoglobulins
Macroglobulinemia
37
seed extract capable of agglutinating red cells carrying the corresponding antigen
Lectin
38
anti-A1
agglutinate red cells with A1 antigen
Dolichos biflorus
39
anti-T
agglutinate red cells with T antigen
Arachis hypogea
40
anti-N
agglutinate red cells with N antigen
Vicia graminea
41
anti-H
agglutinate red cells with H antigen
Ulex europaeus
42
anti-M
agglutinate red cells with M antigen
Iberis amara
43
anti-Tn
agglutinate red cells with Tn antigen
Salvia sclaera
44
location of a gene on a chromosome
Locus
45
graph used to predict severity of HDN during pregnancy by evaluation of the amniotic fluid
Liley Graph
46
moderate disease in liley graph
Liley graph Zone II
47
mild or no disease in liley graph
Liley graph Zone I
48
severe disease in liley graph
Liley graph Zone III
49
an antigen composed of several units or subpart such as the Rho (D) antigen
Mosaic (Du variant)
50
D antigen with complete subpart
Rh ABCD
51
D antigen with missing A-subpart
D antigen with missing B-subpart
D antigen with missing C-subpart
D antigen with missing D-subpart
Rh aBCD
Rh AbCD
Rh ABcD
Rh ABCd
52
basic building blocks of DNA
it is composed of ___, ____, ___
Nucleotide
sugar, base and phosphate group
53
woman having borne more than one child
Multiparous
54
also known as agglutination-inhibition
refers to absence of agglutination due to the inability of an antibody to react with red cell antigen because of previously boud soluble substance
principle involved in _____
Neutralization
Saliva testing
55
malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow characterized by abnormal proteins in the plasma and urine
Multiple myeloma
56
enzyme that cleaves sialic acid from the RBC membrance
Neuraminidase
57
fusion of a malignant and normal cell that produces large quantities of monoclonal antibodies
Murine hydbridoma
58
newborn infant up to 4mos of age
Neonate
59
group of sugars on the RBC membrance attached to a protein backbone
major source of the membrane's net negative charge
NANA (Sialic acid)
60
relating to birth
before birth ___
after birth ___
Neonatal
Prenatal
Postnatal
61
any individual who fails to express any antigens on the red cells
Null phenotype
62
products that are transfused in patients suffering from hypovolemia (decrease plasma volume) or indicated among burn and shock patients
Plasma Volume Expander
63
2 types of plasma derived volume expander and their components
NSA - Normal Serum Albumin
96% albumin + 4% globulin
PPF - Plasma Protein Fraction
83% albumin + 17% globulin
64
2 types of synthetic volume expander and their components
CRYSTALLOIDS
* Ringer's Lactate (Na, Cl, K, Ca, Lactate ions)
* Normal Saline Solution (0.85%-0.9% NaCl)
COLLOIDS
* Dextran (6-10%)
* HES (hydroethyl starch)
65
2 classification of plasma volume expander
Plasma derived volume expander
and
Synthetic volume expander
66
chemical compound formed by a small umber of simple carbohydrate molecules
Oligosaccharide chain
67
fibrinogen containing liquid portion of anticoagulated blood
can be used as a specimen for backward typing to detect ANTIBODIES
what is the disadvantage of this specimen in backward typing?
Plasma
Can bring about rouleaux formation
68
type of plasma
subjected to sift spin
leaving a plasma that contains high number of platelets
PRP - Platelet Rich Plasma
69
type of plasma
subjected to heavy spin
leaving a plasma almost free of platelets
PPP - Platelet Poor Plasma
70
required temperature in Celsius by which ANTIBODY is most reactive
give its types
Optimum temperature
1-6'C/20-24'C ( cold temperature/room temperature) IgM cold reactive antibody
37'C (warm temperature) IgG warm reacting antibody
71
extra blood sample collected during whole blood donation
this is intended for _____
Pilot tube
Serological test
72
spontaneous clumping of RBC against a given serum
Panagglutination
73
initial treatment of elevated bilirubin using lights
Phototheraphy
74
group O reagent RBC
used for antibody identification
Panel cell
75
detectable characteristics of genes
Phenotype
76
woman who had at least one pregnancy
Primiparous
77
diagrammatic chart used for illustrating the inheritance patterns of traits in a family study
Pedigree chart
78
type of CAHA
biphasic IgG antibody can be demonstrated with anti-P specificity
Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria
79
chance that the alleged father is the biological father
Paternity index
80
D antigen that is missing part of its typical antigenic structure
Partial D
81
inability of the patient to respond favorably after platelet transfusion thus the desired increment in platelet is not achieved
Platelet refractoriness
82
refers to the required speed in a given time to sediment particles from a fluid mixture
give its formula
Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF)
RCF = (1.118x10^5)(radius)(rpm)^2
83
spontaneous agglutination of red cells by most normal ADULT sera
REGARDLESS of blood group
Polyagglutination
84
person who benefits and receives blood transfusion
Recipient
85
blood group system showing several allelic forms therefore rendering more than one alternative phenotype
Polymorphism
86
close monitoring of laboratory operations to allow maximum reliability of the test result
Quality Control
87
referring to after child birth
post partum
88
ensures a laboratory to operate with the most minimal errors
Quality Assurance
89
relative strength of an antibody present in a given antiserum
usually expressed in ___
Potency
Titer
90
what is therequired potency of Anti-A and Anti-B
1:256
91
2x2 grid used for gene combination
Punnett square
92
any substance that enhancess Ag-Ab interaction from a given cell serum mixture
may be used to detect low-titered antibodies in routine testing
Potentiator
93
type of potentiator
a positively charged polymer
reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in the red cell
useful in identification of antibodies in the _____
Polybrene
Kidd Blood group system
94
type of potentiator
concentrated antibody in the mixture through removal of water
Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)
95
type of potentiator
has a lower ionic strength that increases the rate of antibody association
how long is the shortened incubation for this potentiator
give its composition
LISS - Low Ionic Strength Saline Solution
5-15 minutes
0.2% NaCl in glycine
96
disease of unknown cause
most frequently seen among premature infants
characterized by acute difficulty in breathing
formerly known as _____
Respiratory Distress Sydrome
Hyaline membrane disease
97
process of allowing interaction or attachment of an incomplete antibody to red cell antigen but no subsequent agglutination reaction seen
Sensitization
98
kind of sensitization
attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen
done in a TUBE
In vitro sensitization
99
kind of sensitization
attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen
happens intravascularly
In vivo sensitization
100
synonym for antigens in the Rh blood group system
Rh factor
101
group O cells with complete profile of antigens used in antibody detection
Screening cells
102
concentrated and purified anti-D
prophylactic/preventive treatment to Rh (-) person who is exposed to D-antigen
2 ways on how a person is exposed to D-antigen
Rh Immune Globulin (RhIg)
pregnancy and blood transfusion
103
additional blood bag attached to the primary bag
what is the use of this?
Satellite bags
for component preparation
104
inherited characteristtic
| decreased expression of Rh antigens
Rhmod
105
method of getting a sample to an individual
prior to actual blood transfusion ___
after actual blood transfusion ___
Sampling
Pre Transfusion Sampling
Post Transfusion Sampling
106
phenotype of a person who suffers from anemia
| red cells do not express any Rh antigens
Rhnull
107
procedure used to determine blood group soluble substances
useful in establishing REAL BLOOD GROUP if the expression is so weak to be detected by routine cell typing
Saliva testing
108
one of the 2 major categories of saliva testing
acquired Se gene either homozygous (SeSe) or heterozygous (Sese)
capable of producing ABH substances in secretions
Secretor
109
one of the 2 major categories of saliva testing
does not inherit the Se gene (sese)
incapable of producing ABH substances in secretions
Non secretor
110
what are the two factors that can differentiate secretor from non-secretor
1. Se gene inheritance
| 2. production of ABH substances
111
used to detect fetomaternal hemorrhage based on the ability of fetal cells to aggreagate around indicator cells
give its components
Rossette test
0.2%-0.5% O-cell suspension, R2R2 red blood cell
112
appearance resembles stacks of coins
| associated with the use of plasma expanders or presence of abnormal plasma proteins
Rouleaux formation
113
systemic disease caused by the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the body
presence of microbes in blood
Septicemia
114
reagent that can be used to disperse agglutination caused by cold reactive IgM autoantibodies
useful in differentiating IgM from IgG antibodies
Thiol reagent
115
give 2 example of thiol reagent
1. DTT - dithiothreitol
| 2. 2-ME - 2-mercaptoethanol
116
yellowish liquid portion of blood after clotting or centrifugation
can be a source of antibody
Serum
117
refers to removal of blood components for treatment purposes
Therapeutic Phlebotomy (Therapeutic Apheresis)
118
refers to the required drops of serum to mix with certain drops of red cell suspension to achieve greater reactivity
give examples of serum to cell ratio and its corresponding drops
Serum to Cell ratio
40: 1 ratio - 2 drops serum to 1 drop 5% red cell suspension
133: 1 ratio - 4 drops serum to 1 drop 3% red cell suspension
119
brief loss of consciousness related to fainting
Syncope
120
length of time when blood can still be used before it expires
usually related to type of anticoagulant used
Shell life (expiration date)
121
give examples of blood shell life
21 days after collection: ACD, CPD, CP2D
| 35 days after collection: CPDA-1
122
refers to boundary of the ionic cloud surrounding RBC in saline at which zeta potential is measured
Surface of Shear (slipping plane)
123
severe physiologic reaction to trauma
characterized by ____ (4)
leads to _____
Shock
pallor, cyanosis, weak rapid pulse, drop in BP
unconsciousness
124
these are antigens within ABO group that are weakly expressed thus react less strongly with their corresponding antibody
often leads to ABO discrepancy
Subgroup
125
chemical preservative
| used in commercial typing sera to prevent bacterial contamination
Sodium azide (0.1%)
126
biochemical changes happening on blood upon in vitro storage
Storage lesion
127
characteristic of an antibody to react with cell expressing the corresponding antigen only
Anti-A will react to A-antigen but not to B-antigen in red cell
Specificity
128
reciprocal of the highest dilution that shows a visible reaction
Titer
129
it is the weaker variant of D antigen that is detectable only through indirect antihuman globulin test
Weak D (Du)
130
Classification of Weak D
Acquired Du
Hereditary Du
Du variant/Mosaic
131
Grades of Weak D
does not require AHG for detection ___
requires AHG for detection ___
High grade
| Low grade
132
inherited characteristic based from gene action
Trait
133
successive suspension of whole blood with NSS, centrifugation and decantation of supernantant liquid
widely used in preparation of red cell suspension
Washing
134
washing is done how many times___
| purpose of washing ___
3 times
| to remove interfering substances which is present in plasma
135
administration of blood or its component intravenously
Transfusion
136
kind of transfusion
transfusion of blood stored in blood bag coming from a homologous donor
Indirect transfusion
137
kind of transfusion
blood transfusion to fetus in utero
Intrauterine tranfusion
138
kind of transfusion
transfer of blood directly from one person to another
Direct transfusion
139
kind of transfusion
used in infants with HDN
refers t withdrawal of small volume of blood and subsequent replacement with compatible blood
Exchange transfusion
140
kind of transfusion
blood taken from a patient to be used for the same patient
Autologous transfusion
141
colorless crystalline compound widely used as an anticlotting drug
Warfarin
142
mechanism of action of warfarin
inhibiting synthesis of vitamin K dependent factors: II, VII. IX and X
143
what does warfarin mean
Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation + (Coum) arin
144
give examples of warfarin
1. Coumadin
2. Panwarfin
3. Sofarin
145
batch test that include ABO, Rh and antibody screening test
Type and Screen (T/S)
146
plasma cell dyscrasia characterize by excessive production of gamma M globulin
Waldenstrom's macroglubulinemia
147
set of guidelines developed to protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious agents
Universal precaution
148
ability of red cell to survive in vivo after tranfusion
Viability
149
vascular skin reaction commonly signalling allergic reaction
Urticaria (hives)
150
refers to type O and type Ab individuals who are considered popularly as universal donor and recipient respectively
Universality concept
151
adverse reaction happening to a patient following transfusion of a unit of blood or its components
Transfusion reaction
152
thick gelatinous substance rich in hyaluronic acid that make up the matrix of the umbilical cord
Wharton's Jelly
153
used to dissociate IgG molecules from erythrocytes showing positive DAT reaction
ZZAP
154
components of ZZAP
0.1 M dithiothreitol + 0.1% cysteine-activated papain
155
period of time when the disease is present but tested serologically negative
Window period
156
reaction that is influenced by the amount of antigen and antibody from the cell-serum mixture
Zonal reaction
157
type of zonal reaction
zone of maximum or greatest reaction
equivalence zone
158
type of zonal reaction
zone of antibody excess (happens if more serum is added)
prozone
159
type of zonal reaction
zone of antigen excess (happens if red cell suspension is to heavy)
postzone
160
presence of what zone will the result of the test leads to false negative
prozone or postzone
161
soluble haptenic forms of A and B antigens capable of neutralizing their corresponding antibodies
Witebsky substance
162
net negative charge of red cell measured at the surface of shear, if it is reduced, red cells tend to become closer to each other and therefore easier to agglutinate
Zeta potential
163
what particular component makes up the matrix of the umbilical cord
hyaluronic acid
164
blood group whose genes are located in the X-chromosome
Xg blood group
165
what Xg blood group is seen in greates frequency among females than males
Xga antigen
