Deja - Internal - Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

7 diagnostic criteria for RA?

A
  1. Morning stiffness >1h.
  2. 3 or more joints with arthritis.
  3. One hand joint with arthritis.
  4. Symmetric arthritis.
  5. Rheumatoid nodules.
  6. Elevated RF.
  7. Radiographic evidence of erosive arthritis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many criteria must be positive for a diagnosis of RA?

A

4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long does each of the criteria need to be present to make a diagnosis?

A

At least 6 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What DMARDs are available for patients with RA?

A
  1. Methotrexate.
  2. Hydroxychloroquine.
  3. Gold compounds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some newer biologic agents used to treat RA?

A
  1. Infliximab
  2. Etanercept
  3. Abatacept
  4. Rituxan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MC type of arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the X-ray findings seen in OA?

A
  1. Narrowed joint spaces.

2. Osteophyte formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment for OA?

A
  1. NSAIDs to relieve pain.
  2. Muscle-strengthening exercises.
  3. Steroid joint injection.
  4. Last resort is joint replacement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Etiology of gout?

A
  1. Decr. urate excretion (high-protein diet, alcohol, diuretic use).
  2. Incr. urate production (genetic diseases, hemolysis, cancer).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MC joint to be affected in gout?

A

1st MTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the classic radiographic finding in advanced gout?

A

“Rat-Bite” appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is gout diagnosed?

A

Fluid aspirated from the joint would reveal needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals with NEGATIVE birefringence under polarized light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in joints, causing inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factors for pseudogout?

A
  1. Advanced age.
  2. Gout.
  3. Hemochromatosis.
  4. Extensive OA.
  5. Diabetes.
  6. Hyperparathyroidism.
  7. Hypothyroidism.
  8. Hypomagnesemia.
  9. Neuropathic joint.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pseudogout - Signs and symptoms:

A

May present as an acute arthritis affecting one or multiple joints like gout, or it may present as a chronic polyarthritis similar to OA or RA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does joint fluid aspiration in pseudogout demonstrate?

A

POSITIVELY birefringent rhomboid crystals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What joint is always affected in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Sacroiliac joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is SLE distributed based on race?

A

Black>White.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mnemonic for diagnosing SLE?

A

DOPAMINE RASH

Discoid rash
Oral ulcers
Photosensitivity 
Arthritis >2 joints.
Malar rash
Immunologic criteria
Neurologic symptoms
ESR up (not part of the 11 criteria)

Renal disease
ANA
Serositis (pericarditis, pleurisy)
Hematologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many of the criteria must be present to make the diagnosis of SLE?

A

4 or more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pathognomonic heart disorder seen in SLE patients?

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis.

22
Q

What autoantibody is most SENSITIVE for SLE?

A

ANA (it is NOT specific).

23
Q

What autoantibody is most SPECIFIC for SLE?

A
  1. Anti-ds DNA (very high titers are associated with renal involvement).
  2. Anti-SM antibody.
24
Q

What are lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin associated with?

A
  1. Thrombosis
  2. CNS lupus
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Valvular heart disease
  5. Fetal loss
25
Q

Anticardiolipin can cause a falsely elevated result with which lab test?

A

Elevated PTT, but in reality SLE patients are more likely to develop blood clots.

26
Q

What drugs are known to cause-drug induced SLE?

A

SIQ CHaMP

Sulfasalazine
INH
Quinidine

Chlorpromazine
Hydralazine
a
Methyldopa, minocycline
Procainamide, Penicillamine
27
Q

What is the MC drug to cause lupus-like symptoms?

A

Procainamide.

28
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of scleroderma?

A
  1. Tight, thick skin.
  2. Raynaud.
  3. Dysphagia.
  4. Renal artery fibrosis.
  5. PHTN.
  6. Telangiectasias.
29
Q

What lab test is 80% sensitive for CREST syndrome?

A

Anti-centromere antibody.

30
Q

What lab test is highly SPECIFIC to scleroderma?

A

Anti-Scl-70 antibody.

31
Q

What is the treatment for scleroderma?

A

CAPS

CCBs
ACEIs
Penicillamine
Steroids

32
Q

Some findings associated with sarco?

A

GRUELLING

Granulomas
RA
Uveitis
Erythema nodosum 
Lymphadenopathy
Interstitial fibrosis
Negative TB test
Gamma-globulinemia
33
Q

What renal problem is associated with sarco?

A

Nephrolithiasis because of hypercalciuria.

34
Q
Name the syndrome associated with the following: 
Conjunctivitis 
Uveitis
Urethritis 
Asymmetric arthritis
A

Reiter

35
Q

What is the mnemonic used to remember the associated findings of Reiter syndrome?

A

“Can’t see. Can’t pee. Can’t climb a tree”.

36
Q

2 forms of Reiter:

A
  1. Sexually transmitted.

2. Postinfectious: Campylobacter, Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella.

37
Q
What is the autoimmune syndrome associated with:
Apthous ulcers
Genital ulcers
Arthritis
Uveitis
Psychiatric symptoms
A

Behcet syndrome.

38
Q

Polymyositis - Signs and symptoms:

A
  1. Symmetric PROXIMAL muscle weakness.
  2. Dysphonia, and dysphagia.
  3. Patients have difficulty standing up from a chair or brushing their hair.
39
Q

Dermatomyositis - Classic signs:

A
  1. Symmetric PROXIMAL muscle weakness.
  2. Heliotropic periorbital rash.
  3. Shawl sign (erythematous macules on shoulder and upper back).
  4. Gottron papules (violacious papules on DIP joints).
40
Q

What autoantibody is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

A

Anti-Jo-1.

41
Q

What are the 4 criteria for polymyositis?

A
  1. UP CPK.
  2. PROXIMAL muscle weakness.
  3. Low amplitude potentials and fibrillations on EMG.
  4. Incr. muscle fiber size on muscle biopsy.
42
Q

2 peak incidences of myasthenia gravis?

A

Women –> 2nd to 3rd decades.

Men –> 5th to 6th.

43
Q

What can myasthenia gravis be associated with?

A

Thymomas or other autoimmune diseases.

44
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Muscle weakness and increasing fatigue with use.
  2. Proximal muscle weakness.
  3. Ptosis.
  4. Diplopia.
  5. Dysphagia.
45
Q

What is the classic test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium test (Tensilon test).

46
Q

What are the newer diagnostic methods for myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Single-fiber EMG.

2. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody test.

47
Q

Myasthenia gravis is often associated with what other finding?

A

Thymoma.

48
Q

What blood test in the presence of myasthenia gravis is highly associated with the presence of a thymoma?

A

Anti-striated muscle (SM) antibody - present in >80% of patients younger than 40 with thymoma.

49
Q

What is the pathology in Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

There are autoantibodies to presynaptic calcium channels.

50
Q

How does Lambert-Eaton syndrome differ from myasthenia gravias?

A

Increased muscle use improves symptoms making muscles stronger.

51
Q

What classical physical findings can be found in RA?

A
  1. Boutonniere deformity.
  2. Swan neck deformity.
  3. Ulnar deviation.
  4. Pain in the PIP and MCP (NOT DIP!).
  5. Rheumatoid nodules.