Delia's cards

Question 1

A PT is performing the vertebral artery test on a pt. What does this special cervical test assess?

a) upper Cervical spine ligament integrity
b) cervical nerve root dysfunction
c) vertebrobasilar vascular system integrity
d) facet dysfunction

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Arterial ulcers can be found on an individual’s lower leg, but they are most commonly found on bony areas. Which of the following is not a cause associated with arterial ulcers?

a) Atheroembolism
b) Arteriosclerosis
c) Chronic arterial insufficiency
d) Peripheral neuropathy

Answer 2

D

Peripheral neuropathy is not associated with causing arterial ulcers. Peripheral neuropathy is associated with causing diabetic ulcers.

Arteial ulcers can be caused by:

a) Atheroembolism
b) Arteriosclerosis
c) Chronic arterial insufficiency

Arterial ulcers generally cause severe pain tropic changes and can cause gangrene to the adjacent skin.

Question 3

The epidermis is the skin’s outer, most superficial layer? Which of the following does the epidermis skin layer contain?

a) five layers
b) contains hair follicles
c) composed of three layers
d) Contains Blood vessels

Answer 3

A
The epidermis is a skin layer that contains five layers itself. These are: stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale.

The epidermis does not contain blood vessels; however the dermis layer does contain blood vessels and hair follicles.
The subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis) layer contains loose connective tissue.

Question 4

In regards to GI pain patterns, a PT should know that visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver or pericardium can refer to which of the following?

a) the scapular and mid back region
b) the midback
c) the lower back, pelvis or sacrum
d) the shoulder

Answer 4

D
A PT should know that visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver or pericardium can refer to the shoulder.

• A PT should know that visceral pain from the esophagus can refer to the midback;
• from the gallbladder, pancreas, small intestine or stomach can refer to the scapular and midback region;
• from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to the lower back, pelvis or sacrum.

Question 5

when a pt suffers from an elbow burn the common deformity is pronation and flexion. Which of the following PT goals should be stressed?

a) pronation
b) supination and extension
c) dorsifelxion
d) elbow flexion

Answer 5

B

The pt’s elbow should be placed in a posterior arm splint and positioned in extension.

Hyperextension is the PT goal that should be stressed when a pt has an anterior neck burn. Extension should also be stressed when a pt has a knee burn. Dorsiflexion should be stressed when a pt has an ankle burn.

Question 6

The GI tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is divided into upper, middle and lower GI tract. Which of the following make up the middle GI tract?

a) small intestine
b) large intestine
c) salivary, gland, liver and panacreas
d) mouth, esophagus and stomach

Answer 6

A

small intestine makes up the middle GI. It is where the body’s main digestion and absorption process take place.

The mouth, esophagus and stomach make up the upper GI. The large intestine makes up the lower GI
The salivary gland, liver and pancreas are the accessory organ that aid the GI in digestion.

Question 7

The brainstem contains the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata. which of the following functions does the medulla oblongata perform?

a) Connection of the pons to the cerebrum
b) connection of the cerebral hemispheres with other segments of the spinal cord and brain
c) connection of the spinal cord to the pons
d) connection of the various segments of the cerebral hemispheres.

Answer 7

C
medulla oblongata connects the spinal cord with the pons. It plays a vital role as it contains the vasomotor, respiratory and cardiac centers, which are vital body functions.

the midbrain is responsible for the connection of the pons to the cerebrum. Projection fibers, white matter located centrally in the brain, are responsible for the connection of the cerebral hemispheres with other segments of the spinal cord and brain. Association fibers, also white matter located centrally in the brain, are responsible for the connection of various segments of the cerebral hemispheres.

Question 8

If a pt has tight extensors or weak hip flexors, it could cause which of the following?

a) limited hip extension during stance
b) excessive hip flexion during stance
c) excessive knee flexion during stance
d) limited hip flexion

Answer 8

D
Tight extensors and weak hip flexors can cause limited hip flexion.

Spastic or tight hip flexors can cause limited hip extension. Weak hip extensors, tight hip flexors, tight knee flexors can cause excessive hip flexion, Weak quads or knee flexion contracture can cause excessive knee flexion.

Question 9

If you are assessing the volume of gas that an individual inhales during a normal breath, what type of volume are you assessing?

a) expiratory reserve volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) residual volume
d) tidal volume

Answer 9

D
the volume that that and individual inhales (or exhales) during normal breath = tidal volume

The volume of gas that an individual can inhale beyond his/her normal tidal inhalation = respiratory reserve volume.
The volume of gas that an individual can exhale beyond his/her normal tidal exhalation = expiratory reserve volume.
The volume of gas that remains in the ind’s lungs after the expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled, you are assessing the indiv’s residual volume.

Question 10

During swing phase, common gait deviations include insufficient forward pelvic rotation. This is the result of which of the following?

a) spastic plantar flexors
b) weakened abdominal muscles
c) weakened peroneals
d) delayed contraction of dorsiflexors

Answer 10

B
Insufficient forward pelvic rotation occurs during swing phase as a result of weakened abdominal muscles or weakened flexor muscles.

Varus is a common gait deviation that occurs during swing phase as a result of weakened peroneals. Foot drop is a common gait deviation that occurs during swing phase as a result of spastic plantar flexors or delayed contraction of dorsiflexors.

Question 11

The Rib Spring test is a thoracic special test that is used to evaluate a pt’s rib mobility. in order to perform this test, which position must the pt be in at the beginning of the test?

a) sitting
b) supine
c) prone
d) standing

Answer 11

C
Once the prone test is done, the pt will need to be positioned side-lying in order to complete the rib springing test. If excessive rib movement, rib restriction, or pain is found during the test, it is deemed positive.

The other options are incorrect because only a prone and side-lying position is used for this test.

Question 12

In regards to the gait cycle, which of the following is active during the heel strike, in order to control a varying amount of knee flexion for shock absorption?

a) knee extensors
b) anterior tibialis
c) extensor digitorum longus
d) extensor hallucis longus

Answer 12

A
The heel strike occurs at the beginning of stance phase and at the end of swing phase.

The anterior tibialis, extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus are ankle dorsiflexors that are active between heel strike and foot flat in order to decelerate the foot.

Question 13

When a pt has a full-thickness or subdermal burn, skin grafting is often necessary for the closure of the wound. if a skin grafting is conducted using skin from the actual pt, what type of graft was done?

a) cultured skin graft
b) xenograft
c) allograft
d) autograft

Answer 13

D

An allograft is conducted using skin from another human. A xenograft is conducted using skin from another species, such as pig. A cultured skin graft uses skin that is grown in the lab from the pt’s own skin.

Question 14

Various heart sounds can indicate different heart conditions. Which heart sound may indicate that an individual has CHF?

a) S2
b) S3
c) S1
d) S4

Answer 14

B
The S3 heart sound occurs immediately after S2 and is associated with ventricular filling.

The S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, as S1 indicates mitral and tricuspid valve closure and S2 indicates aortic and pulmonary valve closure. The S4 can indicate that an indiv. has an MI, chronic hypertension, coronary heart disease, or aortic stenosis.

Question 15

If a test results in excessive anterior glide of the tibia, which of the following special knee tests is used?

a) McMurry’s
b) Lachman’s stress test
c) Hughston’s plica test
d) Posterior Drawer

Answer 15

B
Lachman’s stress test is deemed positive when there is excessive anterior glide of the tibia. It is used to indicate the ACL’s integrity.

McMurry is deemed positive when it can reproduce a click or a pin in the knee joint. Hugston’s plica test is deemed positive when a popping sound is noted during the test. The ballotable patella test is deemed positive when there is a perception that the patella is floating.

Question 16

The human kidneys consist of over one million nephrons, and each of those nephrons consist of a glomerulus. Each glomerulus is responsible for which of the following?

a) movement of urine
b) filtration of blood and nephron tubules
c) drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract
d) collection of urine

Answer 16

B

The renal pelvis is responsible for the drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract. The bladder is responsible for the collection of urine. The ureter is responsible for the movement of urine.

Question 17

When assessing a pt, the examiner notices that the pt’s complex movement is impaired due to weakened muscle association. This is best described by which of the following terms?

a) dysarthria
b) dysmetria
c) dysdiadochkinesia
d) dyssynergia

Answer 17

D

Dyssynergia occurs when an individual’s complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association.
Dysmetria occurs when an individual’s ability to judge ROM or distance is impaired.
Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an indiv’s ability to partake in rapid alternating movements is impaired .
Dysarthria occurs when an indiv’s speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage.

Question 18

A PT is working with a pt who suffers from excessive hip flexion. The PT knows that excessive hip flexion can be a result of which of the following?

a) weak hip flexors
b) tight hip or knee flexors
c) weak gluteus medius
d) weak dorsiflexor

Answer 18

B

Tight hip or knee flexors can cause excessive hip flexion.
Weak hip extensors can also cause excessive hip flexion.

Tight or spastic hip flexors can cause limited hip extension. Weak hip flexors can cause limited hip flexion. A weak gluteus medius can cause lateral trunk bending.

Question 19

The Modified Ashworth Scale is a scale that contains six grades for spasticity. if there is no increase in muscle tone, what grade would the pt’s spasticty receive?

a) 1
b) 1+
c) 0
d) 2

Answer 19

C

0 if there isn’t an increase in muscle tone.

A 1 would be awarded to a slight increase in muscle tone, if the pt showed minimal resistance at end ROM.
A 1+ = a slight increase in muscle tone if the pt showed minimal resistance through less than half of the ROM.
A 2 if the affected part is easily moved and there is a noticeable difference in muscle tone through the ROM

Question 20

In regards to endocrine system, which of the following is responsible for the release of androgens?

a) kidneys
b) ovaries
c) testes
d) thyroid

Answer 20

C

Tested release androgens or testosterone.

Ovaries control the release of progesterone and estrogen. Kidneys are responsible for controlling the release of 1,25 - dihydroxy-vitamin D. Thyroid controls the release of Thyroxine and triiodothyronine.

Question 21

A pt who uses a quad cane is being assessed using the Modified Emroy Functional Ambulation Profile Scale, which is an assessment that measures the time it takes to walk utilizing 5 environmental challenges. What will this pt’s recorded time by multiplied by?

a) 5
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3

Answer 21

C

If pt utilizes a quad cane or a hemiwalker, the recorded walking time will be multiplied by 4. The five environmental challenges of the scale are: stairs, up and go, obstacles, carpet and floor.

If the pt does not use an assistive device, walking time is multiplied by 1. If the pt uses an AFO, walking time is multiplied by 2. If the pt uses a single-point cane, walking time is multiplied by 3. It the pt uses an AFO and a single-point cane, walking time is multiplied by 5.

Question 22

A PT is working with an OT and a Speech therapist to coordinate a pt’s physical therapy within the hospital. The practice environment in which this pt is most likely being cared for is which of the following?

a) Tertiary care
b) Subacute Care
c) Secondary Care
d) Primary Care

Answer 22

B
Subacute care is provided within the hospital or Skilled Nursing Facility. A subacute care practice environment is one in which the pt is too fragile to be cared for at home and his/her care is provided by physicians, nurses and rehabilitative personnel ( Speech, OT)

Tertiary care is provide in a hospital setting, however it is provided by highly specialized physicians. Secondary care can be provided in a hospital setting, however it is provided by medical specialists. Primary care is provided on a outpatient basis by primary care physicians or family practice physicians.

Question 23

The dermis is the skin’s inner layer that is primarely composed of elastin fibrous connective tissues and collagen. Which of the following cells is not included in the dermis skin layer?

a) Langerhans
b) Lymphocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Fibroblasts

Answer 23

A
Langerhans cells are not include in the dermis skin layer; however they are included in the epidermis skin layer.

The cells that are included in the dermis skin layer are fibroblasts, macrophages, lymphocytes and mast cells. The dermis skin layer also contains sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, nerves, nerve endings, lymphatics and blood vessels.

Question 24

What is the role that a Pt should take during the reconditioning phase of PT in occupational health?

a) A focus on functional training in order to increase the pt’s ability to perform tasks.
b) A focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt’s endurance.
c) A focus on the pt’s ability to return to work by performing an objective functional capacity evaluation.
d) A focus on the containment and stabilization of the pt’s injury.

Answer 24

B

During the reconditioning phase of PT in occupational health a PT should focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt’s endurance.

During the acute phase of PT on occupational health, a PT should focus on the containment and stabilization of the pt’s injury.
During the post acute phase of PT on occupational health, a PT should focus on functional training in order to increase the pt’s ability to perform tasks.
During the return to work phase of PT on occupational health, a PT should focus on the pt’s ability to return to work by performing an objective functional capacity evaluation.

Question 25

When a pt's respiratory rate increases at a rate greater than or equal to 22 breaths per min, the pt has which of the following: a) orthopnea b) hyperpnea c) bradypnea d) tachypnea

Answer 25

D When a pt's respiratory rate decreases at a rate less than or equal to 10 breath per min. the pt has bradypnea. Hyperpnea occurs when a pt's depth and rate of breathing increases. Orthopnea occurs when a pt is not able to breath when in a supine or reclining position.

Question 26

In order to improve the healing potential of a wound's surrounding tissue, it is sometimes neceassry to perform an autolytic debridment procedure. Which of the following best describes an autolytic debridmet? a) A selective debridment method that uses occlusive or semi-occlusive dressing to solubilize necrotic tissue. b) A selective debridment method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and may require anesthesia. c) A selective debridment method that uses physical forces to remove contaminated tissue. d) A selective debridment method performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments to remove most necrotic tissue and may require anesthesia.

Answer 26

A Mechanical debridment is a non-selective debridment that uses physical forces to remove necrotic tissue. Sharp debridment is a selective debridment method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and does not require anesthesia. Surgical debridment is a selective debridment method performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments to remove most necrotic tissue and may require anesthesia.

Question 27

Which of the following diagnostic procedures is useful for identifying changes in a pt's tissue density? a) Computed tomography b) subacute setting c) outpatient setting d) skilled nursing facility

Answer 27

A I think the rest of the options were listed incorrectly, but here is the explanation (of what it should have been) A CT uses narrow x-ray beams to exactly measure slices of the brain, therefor a Ct is used for identifying changes in a pat's tissue density. A ventriculography is useful when a pt has increased intracranial pressures. MRI is useful for presenting a high resolution brain image. An echoencephalogram is useful for detecting carotid artery plaque and analyzing carotid artery flow.

Question 28

A pt has a pressure ulcer that is presenting as an abrasion on the skin. Which stage of severity is this pt's pressure ulcer? a) Stage IV b) Stage I c) Stage II d) Stage III

Answer 28

C Pressure ulcers are staged based on the stage of their severity. stage II - when there is partial - thickness skin loss that involves the epidermis and/or dermis skin layers and presents as a blister, abrasion or shallow crater. A stage I pressure ulcer occurs when the skin is fully intact, is nonblanchable, may have a temperature change (cool or warm) and may have sensation (itching or pain). A stage III pressure ulcer occurs when there is full thickness skin loss that involves subcutaneous tissue damage and presents as a deep crater. A stage III pressure ulcer occurs when there is full thickness skin loss that involves tissue necrosis and damage to supporting structures, bone or muscle.

Question 29

Which of the following spacial SIJ tests is performed by PT in order to assess the anterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum? a) Gillet's test b) Ipsilateral Anterior rotation Test c) Goldthwait's test d) Gaenslen's test

Answer 29

B The ipsilateral anterior rotation test is deemed positive when there is no posterior superior iliac spine movement identified compared to the sacrum. Gillet's test is performed in order to assess the posterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum. Gaenslen's test is performed in order to identify SIJ dysfunction. Goldthwait's test is performed in order to differentiate between SIJ dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction.

Question 30

A PT has a pt in the supine position with the legs resting on the table in order to identify if the pt's neurological structures are functioning correctly. Which special lumbar test is the PT performing? a) Babinski test b) McKenzie's side glide test c) Lasegue's test d) Valsalva's maneuver test

Answer 30

C Lasegue's test is a special lumbar test that is performed with the pt in the supine position and is used to identify if the pt's neurological structures that supply his lower limbs are functioning correctly. If the PT is able to reproduce the pt's pathological neurological symptoms while his/her foot is dorsiflexed, then the test is deemed positive. vlasalva's maneuver test is used to identify space-occupying lesions. The Babiski test is used to identify UMN lesions. McKenzie's side glide test is used to differentiate between neurological dysfunction and scoliotic curvature that causes the trunk to have abnormal curvature.

Question 31

A PT assessed a pt using the Berg Balance Scale and determined that the pt was at a high risk with a score of a 44 on the assessment. Which of the following best describes what the Berg Balance Scale examines? a) Functional Balance b) Dynamic Gait c) Maximal distance a person can reach froward d) Level of self-confidence when performing daily functional tasks.

Answer 31

A The Berg Balance Scale examines a pt's functional balance. It utilizes 14 metrics, which include standing on one leg, tandem stand, stepping up, turning 360 degrees, head turning, picking objects off the floor, forward reach, feet together, transfers, stand to sit, sit to stand, and unsupported sitting. The maximum score for this assessment is a 56. If the pt scores less than 45 he/she is at a high risk for falls. Dynamic gait is examined using the DGI and the Functional Gait Assessment. The pt's level of self confidence when performing daily functional tasks is examined using the Balance Efficacy Scale. The maximal distance that a person can reach forward is examined using the Functional Reach assessment and the Multidirectional Reach Test.

Question 32

Levers are the rigid surface rotations of an axis. One type of lever is the first class lever, which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to either side of the axis. Which of the following is an example of a first class lever? a) The flexion of one's knee b) The raising of one's toe c) The flexion of one's elbow d) The contraction of triceps at one's elbow joint

Answer 32

``` D First class levers have an effort that tries to cause movement and a resistance that opposes the movement. ``` ``` The raising of one's toe is an example of a second class lever which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to only one side and the resistance is between the effort force and the rotation of the axis . The flexion of one's elbow or one's knee are examples of a third class lever, which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to only one side of the axis and the effort force is closer to the axis than it is to the resistance force. ```

Question 33

Which of the following medication is used for the prevention of MI and to decrease platelet aggregation? a) aspirin b) tranquilizers c) diuretics d) Beta-adrenergic blocking agents

Answer 33

A Tranquilizers are used to decrease anxiety levels and for sympathetic effect. Diuretics are used to decrease myocardial work and to control hypertension. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents are used to reduce myocardial demand, to reduce blood pressure, to control chest pain and arrhythmias.

Question 34

Which special hip test would most likely be used to identify hip dysfunctions, such as restrictions in mobility? a) Craig's test b) Piriformis Test c) Patrick's (FABER) Test d) Ober's Test

Answer 34

C Patrick;s test is deemed positive when the pt's knee is unable to return to a relaxed position. Piriformis test is a special hip test used to identify Piriformis Syndrome. Ober's test is use to identify IT Band tightness or tensor fascia latae tightness. Craig's test is used to identify an abnormal femoral antetorsion angle.

Question 35

A PT is providing therapy to a pt who has had a hemipelvectomy. Which of the following best describes the pt's level of amputation? a) an amputation of the entire lower limb with the lower half of the pelvis resected b) an amputation above the elbow c) an amputation below the knee d) an amputation of both lower limbs with the pelvis below the L4 and L5 level.

Answer 35

A A hemipelvectomy is an amputation of the entire lower limb with the lower half of the pelvis resected. A hemicorporectomoy is an aputation of both lower limbs with the pelvis below the L4 and L5 level. A transhumeral amputation is above the elbow. A transtibial amputation is below the knee.

Question 36

Burns have 5 different classifications based on the severity of the burn and the layers of skin that are damaged . If a burn completely destroys the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissues, how is the burn wound classified? a) Deep partial-thickness burn (second degree) b) full-thickness burn c) epidermal burn (first degree) d) superficial partial-thickness burn (second degree)

Answer 36

B A full-thickness burn may or may not involve the muscle. This type of burn requires the removal of eschar and skin grafting, which makes scarring likely. An epidermal burn is a burn that only does damage to the epidermis skin layer. A superficial partial-thickness burn is a burn that does damage to the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis skin layer. A deep partial-thickness burn is a burn that severely damages the epidermis and dermis skin layers and causes damage to the sweat glands, hair follicles and nerve endings.

Question 37

Diverticular disease is an intestine disorder caused by the formation of pouch-like herniations on the colon. If an individual suffers from diverticular disease, he /she may experience which of the following? a) lower left quadrant pain b) lower right quadrant pain c) bowel obstruction d) tenderness in the anterior hip, groin or thigh regions

Answer 37

A Peritonitis may cause an individual to experience severe abdominal pain. Appendicitis may cause an individual to experience lower right quadrant pain. Constipation may cause an individual to experience tenderness in the anterior hip, groin or thigh regions.

Question 38

Bilateral losses of epicritic, pressure, proprioception and vibration sensations are characteristics of which of the spinal cord injury? a) Posterior Cord Syndrome b) Anterior Cord Syndrome c) Central Cord lesion d) Brown Sequard Syndrome

Answer 38

A Posterior cord syndrome is an upper motor neuron spinal cord injury that is also characterized by bilateral dorsal column loss. The Brown Sequard syndrome is characterized by the hemisection of the spinal cord. A central cord lesion is characterized by central cord cavitation in the cervical section. Anterior cor Syndrome is characterized by the bilateral loss of pain and temperature with spinothalamic tract loss.

Question 39

The stance phase and the swing phase are the two phases that make up the gait cycle. Which of the following happens at the beginning of stance phase. a) toe off b) foot flat c) heel off d) heel strike

Answer 39

D Heel strike is when the heel of the supporting limb touches the ground. The stance phase uses both double limb support and single limb support. The actions of the stance phase fall in the following order: heel strike, foot flat, mid stance, heel off and toe off.

Question 40

Spastic paralysis below the lesion and the loss of the anterior cord are characteristics of which of the following spinal cord injuries? a) anterior cord syndrome b) central cord lesion c) Brown -Sequard Syndrome d) Posterior Cord Syndrome

Answer 40

A Anterior Cord Syndrome is an upper motor neuron spinal cord injury that is also characterized by the bilateral loss of pain and temperature with spinothalamic tract loss. The Brown Sequard syndrome is characterized by the hemisection of the spinal cord Posterior cord Syndrome is characterized by bilateral dorsal column loss. A central cord lesion is characterized by central cord cavitation in the cervical section.

Question 41

If a PT wanted to identify ligament laxity or restriction within a pt's wrist and hand, which Special Test would the PT most likely use? a) Two-point Discrimination test b) Ligamentous instability Test c) Bunnel -Littler Test d) Tight Retinacular Test

Answer 41

B The Ligamentous instability Test is a special wrist and hand test that is used to identify ligament laxity or restriction within one's wrist and hand. This test is primarily used to find laxity, but it may also help to identify pain. The Two-point Discrimination test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify the level of sensory innervation within the hand that correlates with grasping. The Bunnel -Littler Test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify the tightness of structures that surround the MCP joints. The Tight Retinacular Test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify tightness around the proximal interphalangeal joints.

Question 42

All except which of the following special knee tests indicate the integrity of pt's posterior cruciate ligament? a) posterior sag test b) Reverse Lachman c) Posterior Sag test d) Pivot shift

Answer 42

D The pivot shift test indicates the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament. The posterior drawer test, the posterior sag test and the reverse Lachman are all tests that are used to indicate the integrity of the pt's posterior cruciate ligament.

Question 43

The volume of blood that is pumped by the heat per minute is known as which of the following? a) cardiac output b) ejection fraction c) atrial filling pressure d) stroke volume

Answer 43

A The normal cardiac output for an adult at rest is 4-5 liters per minute. Stroke volume is the volume of blood that is emitted from each myocardial contraction. Ejection fraction is the percentage of blood emitted form the ventricle during systole. Atrial filling pressure is the variance between the atrial and venous pressures.

Question 44

A PT is providing therapy to a pt who has had a transradial amputation. Which of the following best describe the pt's level of amputation? a) an amputation above the elbow b) an amputation below the elbow c) removal of the radius from the forearm d) an amputation through the elbow joint

Answer 44

B A trans-radial amputation is below the elbow. A trans-humeral amputation is above the elbow. A trans-tibial amputation is below the knee. A trans-femoral amputation is above the knee.

Question 45

If the PT claps between the pt's clavicle and the nipple on both sides during a bronchial drainage PT intervention, ten the secretion most likely needs to be removed from which of the following areas? a) anterior basal segments of the lower lobe b) anterior segments of the upper lobes c) posterior basal segments of the lower lobes d) posterior segments of the upper lobes

Answer 45

B Can assist drainage by clapping on both sides. A PT can assist drainage in the posterior basal segments of the lower lobes by clapping over the pt's lower ribs near the spine on either side. A PT can assist drainage in the posterior segments of the upper lobes by standing behind the pt and clapping over both sides of the upper back. A PT can assist drainage in the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes by using a slightly cupped hand to clap over the pt's lower ribs.

Question 46

If a PT feels that a pt's inter-vertebral foramen's neural structures are compressed,which special cervical test would the PT most likely use to identify the compression? a) Lhermitte's sign b) Romberg test c) Forminal compression test d) Shoulder abduction test

Answer 46

D The Shoulder Abduction test is a special cervical test that is used to assess for compression of neural structures within one's inter-vertebral foramen. This test is deemed positive if the pt's symptoms in the upper limb are decreased. Lhermitte's sign is a special cervical test that is used to identify spinal cord dysfunction. The Romberg test is used to identify UMN lesion. The forminal compression test is used to identify cervical nerve root dysfunction.

Question 47

Which of the following special knees tests is conducted to identify meniscal tear? a) Hughston's plica test b) McMurray's test c) Clarke's sign d) Fluctuation test

Answer 47

B McMurray's test is a special knee test that is conducted to identify meniscal tear. McMurray's test is deemed positive when it can reproduce a click or a pain in the knee joint. Hughston's plica test is a special knee test that is used to identify plica dysfunction. Clarke's sign is a special knee test that is used to indicate patellofemural dysfunction Fluctuation test is a special knee test that is used to indicate effusion of the joint.

Question 48

While examining the pt the examiner noticed that the pt broke out in a cold sweat. Cold sweats can indicate which of the following? a) Pneumonic crisis b) dehydration c) depression d) tumor

Answer 48

C Breaking out in cold sweats is an indication of depression. Cold sweat are also indications of diseases (AIDS) anxiety and great fear. Pneumonic crisis is often indicated by moist skin, or hyperhidrosis. Dehydration is indicated by dry skin or hypohidrosis. A tumor is indicated by hirsutism, which is when women have a male pattern of hair growth.

Question 49

Which of the following best discribe how the Goldthwait's special SIJ test is performed? a) The PT should place the pt in a supine position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process b) The PT should place the pt in a sitting position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process c) The PT should place the pt in a side-lying position at the edge of the examination table and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process d) The PT should place the pt in a standing position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process

Answer 49

A The PT should place the pt in a supine position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process. The Goldthwait's test is performed by placing the pt in a supine position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process. It is performed in order to differentiate between the SIJ dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction. If pain is present during lumbar segments movements, the Goldthwait's test identifies the pt's dysfunction as being related to the SIJ. The other options are incorrect because this test is performed in a supine position.

Question 50

A PT determines that the pt needs a spinal orthosis to control thoracic and lumbosacral motions. Which of the following spinal orthosis will the PT most likely recommend? a) Lumbosacral orthosis (LSO) b) Thoracolumbrosacral orthosis c) Corset d) cervical Orthosis

Answer 50

B A Thoracolumbrosacral orthosis controls thoracic and lumboscral motions, therefore this is the best recommendation. A cervical orthosis controls cervical motion. A lumbosacral orthosis controls lumbosacral motion. A corset provides abdominal compression and relieves pain in the lower back.

Question 51

Which of the four heart chambers receives blood from systemic circulation? a) L atrium b) R atrium c) R ventricle d) L ventricl

Answer 51

B The R atrium is the heart chamber that receives blood from systemic circulation. the blood that it receives is from inferior and superior vena cavae. The R ventricle receives blood from the R atrium. The L atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins and the lungs. the L ventricle receives blood from the left atrium.

Question 52

An examiner asks a pt to replicate a pattern of three rectangles. Which of the following best describe what the examiner is testing: a) spatial relations b) vertical disorientation c) form constancy d) topographical disorientation

Answer 52

A The examiner is testing the pt's spatial relations by identifying if the pt is able to duplicate a pattern of two or more objects. Form constancy is tested by asking the pt to pick out a smaller or larger object from a group of similarly shaped objects. Topographical disorientation is tested by asking the pt to navigate a familiar route on his/her own. Vertical disorientation is tested by asking the pt to identify an item that is standing upright.

Question 53

Which neuron nerve fiber type is considered the smallest and the slowest at conducting pain and reflex responses? a) D fibers b) C fibers c) A fibers d) B fibers

Answer 53

B C fibers are considered the smallest and the slowest at conducting pain and reflex responses. A fibers are large, fast conducting fibers, divided into alpha, beta, gamma and delta fibers. B fibers are small and conduct less rapidly than A fibers. D fibers is incorrect because there are only three types: A, B, and C

Question 54

A PT is performing Thompson's test on a pt by squeezing the pt's calf muscles. What is the Pt assessing the pt for? a) the integrity of the Achille's tendon b) possible presence of a deep vein thrombosis c) posterior tibial nerve dysfunction d) abnormal rearfoot

Answer 54

A The test is performed to assess the integrity of the pt's Achilles's tendon. If the pt does not move his foot while his calf is being squeezed, the Thompson's test is positive. The neutral subtalar positioning test is used to assess pt for abnormal rear foot. Tinel's sign is a special ankle and foot test that is use to assess for posterior tibial nerve dysfunction. The anterior drawer test and the talar tilt test is used to assess for ligamentous instability.

Question 55

In regards to pulmonary anatomy, which lower airway structure is not involved in the diffusion of gas? a) Respiratory bronchioles b) Alveoli c) Trachea d) Alveolar ducts

Answer 55

C The trachea is only used to transport air. The terminal brobchioles is another lower airway structure that is not involved with the diffusion of gas. The alveolar ducts, respiratory bronchioles, alveoli and alveolar sacs are all used for the diffusion of gas and make up the respiratory unit.

Question 56

A destructive lesion on the cortex's frontal lobe could cause which of the following? a) decreased ability to localize sounds b) body scheme disorders c) perceptual impairment d) motor planning difficulties

Answer 56

D Unstable emotions can also be caused by a lesion on the cortex's frontal lobe. A lesion on the cortex's occipital lobe could cause perceptual impairment. A decresed ability to localized sounds may be caused by a lesion on the temporal lobe. Body scheme disorders may be caused by lesion on the parietal lobe.

Question 57

For a pt who is taking medications or known to have inflammation, vasomotor disturbances, which of the following skin conditions would most likely be present? a) Xeroderma b) Edema c) Rash d) Urticaria

Answer 57

C A rash is a skin condition identified by local redness and eruption on the skin. Rashes are typically seen in pt who have inflammation, vasomotor disturbances, skin diseases, or who are taking medications. Rashes are also known to cause itching. Pruritus, or itching, is common in individuals who have a drug hypersensitivity, hyperthyroidism, and diabetes. Urticaria or hives is common in individuals who have an allergic reaction to drugs or an infection. Xeroderma, or excessively dry skin, is an indication of thyroid deficiency or diabetes.

Question 58

If during a PT intervention for bronchial drainage the PT uses a slightly cupped hand to clap over the pt's lower ribs, then the secretion most likely needs to be removed from which of the following areas? a) Anterior segments of the upper lobes b) Posterior basal segments of the lower lobes c) Anterior basal segments of the lower lobes d) posterior segments of the upper lobes.

Answer 58

C A PT can assist drainage secretion in the Posterior basal segments of the lower lobes by clapping over the pt's lower ribs, near the spine on either side. A PT can assist drainage secretion in the Posterior basal segments of the upper lobes by standing behind the pt and clapping over both sides of the upper back. A PT can assist drainage secretion in the Anterior segments of the upper lobes by clapping between the pt's clavicle and nipple on both sides.

Question 59

There are three nerve fibers types, which are known as A,B and C fibers. A fibers are the largest and are devided into alpha, beta, gamma, and delta fibers. Which of these fibers is associated with pain, touch and temperature. a) Alpha b) Delta c) Beta d) Gamma

Answer 59

B Delta is an A fiber type that is associated with pain, touch and temperature. A fibers are the largest nerve fibers and are fast conducting. Alpha fibers are associated with the somatic motor and proprioception. Beta are associated with pressure and touch. gamma are associated with motor to muscle spindles.

Question 60

The normal magnesium serum level for urinary regulation is 1.8 to 2.4 mg/dl. if an individual's level is greater than 2.4, results in hypermagnesemia. Which of the following is a cause associated with hypermagnesemia? a) severe burns b) renal failure c) hemodialysis d) hepatic cirrhosis

Answer 60

B Other causes associated with hypermagnesemia include diabetic acidosis, Addison's disease and hypothyroidism. Hemodilysis, hepatic cirrhosis and severe burns are associated with hypomagnesimia.

Question 61

Gastroesophageal reflux disease is an esophagus disorder that is caused by the backward movement of the gastric stomach contents. If an individual suffers from this disease he/she may experience which of the following? a) head and neck pain b) lower left quadrant pain c) lower back pain d) radiating pain

Answer 61

A head and neck pain Diverticular disease may cause lower left quadrant pain Inflammatory bowel disease - lower back pain Peptic ulcer disease - radiating pain

Question 62

In regards to gastrointestinal pain patterns, a PT should know that visceral pain from the esophagus can refer to which of the followig? a) midback b) lower back, pelvis or scrotum c) scapular region d) shoulder

Answer 62

A Visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver or pericardium can refer to the shoulder. Visceral pain from the gallblader, pancreas, small intestine or stomach can refer to the scapular and midback regions. Apendix, colon or pelvic viscera can refer to lower back, pelvis and scrotum

Question 63

A PT used a continuous passive motion unit to treat a patient with TKA. Which of the following is the physiological effect of CPM? a) improved circulation b) decreased joint ROM c) Increased edema and joint effusion d) maximize contractures

Answer 63

A CPM is a device used for extended period of time and provides continuous movement Other physiological effect of CPM include decreased edema and joint effusion, increased ROM and minimized contractures.

Question 64

The rib cge makes up the lateral border of the bony thorax. Which group of ribs is called costovertebral or floating ribs? a) 7-10 b) 9-12 c) 11-12 d) 1-6

Answer 64

C ...because they do not have an anterior attachment 1-6 - costosternal or true ribs 7-10 - costochondral or false ribs 9-12 - is typically not grouped together

Question 65

If a pt has a low pressure bleed with dark red blood, steadily flowing, what type of bleed is occurring? a) capillary b) minor bleed c) venous bleed d) arterial bleed

Answer 65

C An arterial bleed is a high pressure bleed with red blood spurting A capillary bleed is low pressure and has dark red blood oozing A minor bleed will clot within 10 minutes

Question 66

The Neer's impingement test is used by PTs to test fo impingement of the soft tissue structures of the shoulder complex. The purpose of the test is to reproduce symptoms of pain within the shoulder region. In order to perform the test which position should the pt be in? a) standing with shoulder fully ER b) sitting with upper limb supported and stabilized c) sitting with the shoulder passively IR d) supine with the arm in ABD

Answer 66

C One in this position the shoulder should be fully abducted which will reproduce the patient's symptoms of pain within the shoulder complex The Ross elevated arm test is performed wit the pt standing with their shoulder fully ER. The ligament instability test is performed with the pt sitting wit upper limb supported and stabilized. The AC shear test is performed with the pt sitting with the arm rested along their side.

Question 67

The primary auditory cortex is a hemisphere that is paired with the associative auditory cortex and Wernicke's area hemispheres in the brain's temporal lobe. What is the primary responsibility of this hemisphere? a) to control emotions b) to comprehend language c) to only process auditory stimuli d) to receive and process auditory stimuli

Answer 67

D The associative auditory cortex hemisphere is primarily responsible for processing auditory stimuli. Wernicke's area is primarily responsible for processing language comprehension The prefrontal hemisphere, which is a frontal lobe hemisphere is primarily responsible for controlling emotions.

Question 68

On the pt's medical report, the examiner states that the pt has a skin abrasion on his R arm. Which of the following best describes the type of skin trauma? a) skin that contains purple hemorrhagic spots b) skin that has a bluish discoloration due to extravasation of blood c) skin that is scraping away due to an injury d) skin that is not broken but is discolored an swollen

Answer 68

C Ecchymosis is a skin trauma described as skin that has bluish discoloration due to extravasation of blood. Contusion is described as skin that is not broken but is discolored and swollen. Petechiae - skin that contains purple hemorrhagic spots.

Question 69

Functional urinary incontinence occurs when urine leakage is paired with the unwillingness or the inability to use the toilet. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of functional urinary incontinence. a) obesity b) prostate enlargement c) depression d) hypersensitive bladder

Answer 69

C Other causes associated with functonal urinary incontinence include: Alzheimer's disease, environmental barriers, stroke and impaired physical functioning. Obesity is a cause associated with stress urinary incotinence. Hypersensitive bladder is a cause associated with urge urinary incontinence Enlarged prostate is associated with overflow urinary incontinence.

Question 70

The tibiofemural and patellofemural joints are located within the knee region and utilize MCL, LCL, ACL and PCL. Which of the following statements is true in regards to the knee region's MCL? a) The MCL runs oblique superiorly and laterally b) The MCL runs oblique anteriorly and inferiorly c) The MCL runs oblique medially and anteriorly superiorly d) The MCL runs oblique inferiorly and posteriorly

Answer 70

B When in extension the MCL is taut and when in flexion the MCL is slackened . The MCL provides stability against valgus forces and prevents ER. The LCL runs oblique inferiorly and posteriorly . The ACL runs oblique superiorly and laterally. The PCL runs oblique medially and anteriorly-superiorly.

Question 71

The bony thorax is a component that is discussed in regards to pulmonary anatomy. the posterior border of the bony thorax consists of which of the following? a) rib cage b) shoulder girdle c) T1 -T12 of the vertebral column d) sternum

Answer 71

C The lateral border of the bony thorax consists of the rib cage; the anterior border - the sternum; the shoulder girdle s part of the bony thorax and it affects the thorax's motion.

Question 72

A pt's leg swings out to the side when walking, which is known as circumdaction. The PT knows that circumdaction can be a result of which of the following? a) Weak peroneals b) weak dorsiflexion contracture c) weak abdominal muscles d) weak knee and hip flexors

Answer 72

D Weak abdominal muscles can cause an insuficient forward pelvic rotation; weak dorsiflexors can cause foot drop. Weak peroneals can cause varus or inverted foot.

Question 73

When a pt's respiratory rate decreases at a rate less than or equal to 10 breaths per minute, the pt has which of the following? a) hyprepnea b) bradypnea c) tachypnea d) orthopnea

Answer 73

B When the respiratory rate increases at > or = to 22 breaths per min the pt has tachypnea; hyperpnea occurs when the depth of rate of breathing increases; Orthopnea occurs when a pt is unable to breathe when in supine or reclining position.

Question 74

During the stance phase, common gait deviations include excessive knee flexion. Excessive knee flexion is the result of which of the following? a) weakened quads b) weakened dorsiflexors c) weakened plantar flexors d) tightened hip flexors

Answer 74

A could also be because of knee flexor contracture Toe first is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of weakened dorsiflexors. Excessive dorsiflexion with uncontrolled forward motion of the tibia occurs during stance phase as a result of weakened plantarflexors. limited hip extension during stance occurs as a result of tight hip flexors.

Question 75

The Balance Efficacy Scale assessment is utilized to examine a pt's self confidence when it comes to performing life's daily functional tasks. which of the following is not a functional task that is examined during this assessment? a) pt's ability to get in and out of the shower b) pt's ability to walk and talk in the same time c) ......to remove items from an overhead cupboard d) ......to stand on one leg

Answer 75

B Is assessed by using the Walkie-Talkie test, which is a dual test control measure, that is deemed positive if the person has to stop in order to talk. The Balance Efficacy Scale measures a pt's ability to remove items from an overhead cupboard, to stand on one leg and to get in and out of the shower. It also measures a pt's confidency in his/ her ability to walk up and down a flight of ten stairs, walk on uneven ground, get out of bed, and get out of a chair.

Question 76

Which of the following represents the normal respiratory rate for an adult? a) 20-30 breaths per min b) 30-40 c) 40-50 d) 12-20

Answer 76

D The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-40 breaths per min.; for a child is 20-30; and 40-50 is not a normal RR.

Question 77

A PT determines that the pt needs a spinal orthoses to provide abdominal compression and to relieve the pt's pain in his lower back. Which of the following spinal orthoses would the PT most likely recommend? a) lumbosacral orthoses b) cervical orthosis c) thoracolumbosacral orthosis d) corset

Answer 77

D A thoracolumbosacral orthosis controls thoracic and lumbosacral motion. a cervical one controls cervical motion. and a lumboscaral controls lumbosacral motion.

Question 78

Which special lumbar test is performed with the pt sitting and is used to identify a space occupying lesion? a) Lasegue's test b) valsalva's maneuver test c) Babinski d) Mckenzie's side glide test

Answer 78

B Valsalva's maneuver test is deemed positive when the test finds neurological symptoms into the lower extremity. Lasegue's test is a special lumbar test performed with the pt in supine, used to identify neurological structures are functioning correctly . Babinski is performed with pt sitting or supine, used to identify UMN lesions. Mckenzie's side glide test is performed in standing and is used to differentiate between neurological dysfunction and scoliotic curvature that causes the trunk to have abnormal curvature.

Question 79

A cervical traction unit is a mechanical spinal traction device that applies a distraction force to one's spine in order to separate articular surfaces between elongated spinal structures and vertebral bodies. Which of the following is not a goal associated with the use of the cervical traction unit? a) reduce nerve root impingement b) reduce joint stiffness c) reduce muscle spasms d) reduce chronic edema

Answer 79

D An intermittent mechanical compression device is used to reduce chronic edema, not a cervical traction unit. A cervical traction unit is used in order to reduce nerve root impingement, joint stiffness and meniscoid-blocking muscle spasms. It is used for pt who have degenerative discs, disc protrusions, joint disease or joint pain.

Question 80

A PT is performing the leg length test. This special hip test is used to identify which of the following? a) hip flexor tightness b) hamstring tightness c) degenerative joint disease d) discrepancies in true leg length

Answer 80

D a true leg length discrepancy is caused by a true discrepancy in bone lengths, instead of functional discrepancies that are caused by abnormal position compensation. Degenerative joint disease is identified by conducting the grind test. Hip flexor tightness by performing Thomas's Test and hamstring tightness by 90-90 hamstring test

Question 81

If a pt has the inability to flex a fully extended arm or experiences winging that starts at 90 degrees forward flexion, which peripheral nerve is most likely involved. a) suprascapular nerve b) axillary nerve c) long thoracic nerve d) spinal accessory nerve

Answer 81

C the long thoracic nerve may also be involved if the individual experiences pain when flexing a fully extended arm. The suprascapular nerve is most likely involved when the individual experiences pain with forward shoulder flexion or shoulder weakness. The axillary nerve when .....has the inability to abduct his/her arm with neutral rotation. The spinal accessory nerve .....the inability to abd his her arm beyond 90 degrees or experiences pain in his her shoulder on abduction.

Question 82

If a pt has the inability to abd his/ her arm with neutral rotation, which peripheral nerve is most likely involved? a) suprascapular nerve b) axillary nerve c) long thoracic nerve d) spinal accessory nerve

Answer 82

B The axillary nerve when .....has the inability to abduct his/her arm with neutral rotation. The long thoracic nerve ......when a pt has the inability to flex a fully extended arm or experiences winging that starts at 90 degrees forward flexion; The long thoracic nerve may also be involved if the individual experiences pain when flexing a fully extended arm. The suprascapular nerve is most likely involved when the individual experiences pain with forward shoulder flexion or shoulder weakness. The spinal accessory nerve .....the inability to abd his her arm beyond 90 degrees or experiences pain in his her shoulder on abduction.

Question 83

Hypercalcemia occurs when an individual has an increased Ca+ concentration in his blood. In regards to the heart what does hypercalcemia cause? a) increased heart actions b) decreased heart actions c) coronary artery vasospasm d) cardiac arrest

Answer 83

A Hypocalcemia causes depressed heart actions. hypermagnesemia causes cardiac arrest. hypomagnesemia causes coronary artery vasospasm

Question 84

A PT is performing the 90-90 hamstring test. This special hip test is used to identify which of the following? a) tensor fascia latae tightness b) rectus femoris tightness c) hip flexor tightness d) hamstring tightness

Answer 84

D hamstring tightness The 90 -90 test is deemed positive when the patient's knee is not able to reach 10 degrees from the neutral position. tensor fascia latae tightness is ientified using Ober's test. rectus femoris tightness - Ely's test hip flexor tightness - Thomas's test

Question 85

PTs are responsible for controlling infections by following appropriate sterilization and disinfection guidelines. Any object that is introduced to a pt's body must be sterilized. Which of the following sterilization methods utilizes ethylene oxide to destroy bacteria? a) ionizing radiation b) gaseous c) dry heat d) autoclaving

Answer 85

B gaseous sterilization also uses formaldehyde gas to sterilize instruments. Dry heat uses prolonged high heat exposure in an oven to sterilize instruments. ionizing radiation is used o sterilize plastics, sutures and some medications Autoclaving is not recommended for heat sensitive articles, as it utilizes heat and water pressure to sterilize instruments.

Question 86

After conducting the Performance Oriented mobility assessment, the PT scored the pt a 22, which means he's at moderate risk for falls. which of the following is an item this test assesses? a) ability to maintain balance while stepping over obstacles b) ability to walk up and down a flight of ten stairs c) ability to walk with eyes closed d) ability to walk and talk at the same time

Answer 86

A the Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment assesses the pt's balance and walking abilities. Includes ability to step over obstacles, gait, path, turning time, sitting, standing, sit-to-stand, sternal nudge, standing with feet together, reaching up, bending over, timed rising, standing on one leg, turning 360 degrees, and tandem stand. The maximum score is 28. If the pt scores less than 19 he/she is at high risk for falls. between 19-24 = moderate risk for falls. ability to walk and talk ate the same time is assessed using the Walkie- talkie test abiliti to walk with eyes closed - with the Functional Gait Assessment ability to walk up and down a flight of ten stairs - the Balance Efficacy Scale

Question 87

If a pt is experiencing increased pain upon forward shoulder flexion or shoulder weakness, which peripheral nerve is most likely involved. a) suprascapular nerve b) axillary nerve c) long thoracic nerve d) spinal accessory nerve

Answer 87

A The suprascapular nerve is most likely involved when the individual experiences pain with forward shoulder flexion or shoulder weakness. The long thoracic nerve ......when a pt has the inability to flex a fully extended arm or experiences winging that starts at 90 degrees forward flexion; The long thoracic nerve may also be involved if the individual experiences pain when flexing a fully extended arm. The spinal accessory nerve .....the inability to abd his her arm beyond 90 degrees or experiences pain in his her shoulder on abduction. The axillary nerve when .....has the inability to abduct his/her arm with neutral rotation.

Question 88

The normal potassium serum level for urinary regulation is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L and when less than 3.5 hypokalemia occurs. which of the following is a cause associated with hypokalemia? a) Diabetic Ketoacidosis b) sickle cell anemia c) metabolic acidosis d) inadequate secretion with acute renal failure

Answer 88

C Other causes associated with hypokalemia inculde ecessive loss of potasium due to diarrhea, vomiting, alkalosis, or renal tubular disease. Kidney disease, sickle cell anemia and diabetic ketoacidosis are causes associated with hyperkalemia.

Question 89

Urge urinary incontinence occurs when the sensation of a full bladder is perceived, and urine is leaked. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of urge urinary incontinence? a) detrusor muscle instability b) weakness in pelvic floor musculature c) impaired cognition d) neurogenic bladder

Answer 89

A Sensory instability is another cause associated with urge urinary incontinence. Intra-abdominal pressure is a cause associated with stress urinary incontinence. neurogenic bladder is associated with overflow urine incontinence. Impaired cognition is associated with functional urine incontinence.

Question 90

Which of the following is a practice environment in which a dying, Medicare -eligible pt receives care from a nurse in a inpatient or home-based setting? a) Subacute care b) SNF c) tertiary care d) hospice care

Answer 90

D SNF is a practice in which the pt is continuously cared for by nursing staff that is located in a transitional care unit. Tertiary care is an environment in which the pt receives treatment provided by highly specialized physicians in a hospital setting. Subacute care is a practice in which the pt receives treatment in a hospital or SNF by medical, nursing, and rehab service providers.

Question 91

The GI tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is devided into upper, middle, lower GI tracts. Which of the following makes the upper GI tract? a) salivary glands, liver and pancreas b) mouth, esophagus and stomach c) small intestine d) large intesitine

Answer 91

B The upper GI tract is responsible for the initial digestion of food and for ingestion functioning. The small intestine makes up the middle GI tract. The large intestine makes up the lower GI tract. the salivary glands, liver and pancreas are the accessory glands that aid the GI tract in digestion.

Question 92

Which of the following is an assessment that measures dual task control as it examines a pt's ability to walk and talk in the same time. a) Functional Gait Assessment b) Wlakie-Talkie c) Dynamic Gait Index d) Performance - oriented mobility assessment

Answer 92

B ability to walk and talk ate the same time is assessed using the Walkie- talkie test. If the pt must stop walking in order to answer a question, then the test is deemed positive. The Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment assesses the pt's balance and walking abilities. Includes ability to step over obstacles, gait, path, turning time, sitting, standing, sit-to-stand, sternal nudge, standing with feet together, reaching up, bending over, timed rising, standing on one leg, turning 360 degrees, and tandem stand. The maximum score is 28. If the pt scores less than 19 he/she is at high risk for falls. between 19-24 = moderate risk for falls. the Functional Gait Assessment is based on the DGI and it uses a 0 item gait assessment. The DGI assesses 8 items in order to examine the pt's dynamic gait.

Question 93

A pt is being treated for pronation. The PT knows that pronation can be a result of which of the following? a) weak knee and hip flexors b) pes varus c) weak plantar flexors d) pes valgus

Answer 93

D Pronation can also be the result of weak invertors, genu valgum and spasticity. Pes varus can cause supination. weak knee and hip flexors can cause circumdaction. Posterior tibialis spasticity can cause equinovarus.

Question 94

A PT is providing therapy to a pt who has had transfemural amputation. Which of the following best discribes the type of amputation? a) through the knee joint b) above the knee c) below the knee d) of the entire lower limb with a preserved pelvis

Answer 94

B A knee disarticulation is an amputation through the knee joint. A hip disarticulation is an amputation of the entire limb with a preserved pelvis. A transtibial amputation is below the knee.

Question 95

Phalen's test is a special wrist and hand test that is used to identify carpal tunnnel compression of the median nerve. Which of the following describes how Phalen's test is conducted? a) by having the pt flex both wrists while holding them together for one minute. b) by having the pt grasp a piece of paper between his her first and second fingers while another individual pulls the paper out of the pt's grasp and monitors the IP flexion of the pt's thumb. c) by tapping the area in which the median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel. d) by having the pt open and close his her fingers rapidly, several times and then making a closed fist.

Answer 95

A The Phalen's test attempts to reproduce tingling in one's hand after distribution of the median nerve. Tinnel's test is performed by tapping the area in which the median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel. Allen's test is performed by having the pt open and close his her fingers rapidly, several times and then making a closed fist. Froment's sign is performed by having the pt grasp a piece of paper between his her first and second fingers while another individual pulls the paper out of the pt's grasp and monitors the IP flexion of the pt's thumb.

Question 96

An individual's inspiratory capacity is the amount of air that can be inhaled from the individual's resting and expiratory pressure. Which of the following formulas is used to determine an individual's inspiratory capacity? a) Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal Volume+ Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume b) Inspiratory reserve Volume + Tidal Volume c) Inspiratory reserve Volume + Tidal Volume + Expiratory reserve volume d) Expiratory reserve volume + Residual Volume

Answer 96

B Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal Volume+ Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume = Total Lung Capacity Inspiratory reserve Volume + Tidal Volume + Expiratory reserve volume = Vital capacity Expiratory reserve volume + Residual Volume = Functional Residual Capacity

Question 97

When a pt suffers from an ankle burn, the common deformity is plantar flexion. Which of the following PT goals should be stressed? a) Dorsiflexion b) ER, ABD abd FL c) Supination and Extension d) Plantarflexion

Answer 97

A The pt's foot and ankle should be in neutral position and placed in a plastic ankle-foot orthosis for proper healing. Hyperextension is the PT goal that should be stressed when a pt has an anterior neck burn. ER, ABD abd FL - should be stressed when the pt has a shoulder burn; supination and extension when a pt has an elbow burn.

Question 98

Tracheal stimulation is an airway clearance that is used on which of the following type of patients? a) Pt who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough, such a pt with SCI b) Pt who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner, as the only viable option. c) Pt who do not have the ability to cough on command d) Pt who have collapsible airways, like those with COPD

Answer 98

C This airway clearance technique is generally used on infants or individuals who have suffered from a stroke or brain injury. An assisted cough is an airway clearance technique that is used on pt who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough, such a pt with SCI Huffing is an airway clearance technique that is used on pt who have collapsible airways, like those with COPD Endotracheal suction for pt. who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner, as the only viable option.

Question 99

An examiner noticed that a pt's skin color changed from its normal appearance to a slate-colored discoloration (cyanosis). This skin color change could indicate which of the following? a) Internal hemorrage b) Liver disease c) Venous obstruction d) Pregnancy

Answer 99

C Cyanosis of the skin could also indicate that the pt has congestive heart failure, advanced lung disease, congenital heart failure, or is lacking in oxygen. Skin that has a cherry red appearance is indicative of liver disease. Skin that is pallor or lacking color, is indicative of an internal hemorrage. skin that contains liver spots is an indication of pregnancy.

Question 100

In order to improve the healing potential of a wound's surrounding tissue, it is sometimes necessary to perform an enzymatic debridement procedure. Which pf the following describes enzymatic debridement? a) a selective debridement method that uses occlusive or semiocclusive dressings to solubilize necrotic tissue b) a selective debridement method performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments to remove most necrotic tissue and may require anesthesia c) a selective debridement method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and does not require anesthesia d) a selective debridement method that uses topical collagenolytic enzymes preparations to promote the liquefaction of necrotic tissue.

Answer 100

D Autolytic debridement is a selective debridement method that uses occlusive or semiocclusive dressings to solubilize necrotic tissue Surgical debridment is a selective debridement method performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments to remove most necrotic tissue and may require anesthesia Sharp debridment is a selective debridement method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and does not require anesthesia

Question 101

Which of the following ligaments prevents ER of the tibiofemural and patellofemural joints and delivers solidity against varus forces a) LCL b) ACL c) PCL d) MCL

Answer 101

A when in extension the LCL is taut and when in flexion the LCL is slackened. The MCL prevents ER and delivers solidity against valgus not varus forces The ACL limits the IR of the tibia during flexion as the tibia twists around the PCL. The PCL inspects for posterior displacement of the tibia an femur.

Question 102

Individuals who are at risk of developing atelectasis use which of the following breathing exercises to alter the regional distribution of gas and to prevent pulmonary compromise? a) percussion and vibration to chest wall b) pursed lip breathing c) segmental breathing d) abdominal strengthening

Answer 102

C Pt who are experiencing post trauma and post op pain use the sustained maximal inspiration breathing exercise to increase their inhaled volume and to improve alveolar inflation. Pt who have an obstructive disease use the pursed lip breathing exercise to reduce their dyspnea, to reduce their RR and to increase their tidal volume. Postop and post trauma pt use the diaphragmatic breathing exercise to decrease their breathing work load and to improve the mobility of their chest wall.

Question 103

A pt is prescribed a reciprocal walker because it allows for which of the following? a) one handed use b) advancement of one side at a time c) a continuous movement sequence d) for mobility in and out of vehicles

Answer 103

B A reciprocal walker is hinged to allow advancement of one side at a time A hemiwalker is modified to allow for one handed use A rolling walker has wheels to allow for a continuous movement sequence A folding walker is collapsible to allow for mobility in and out of vehicles

Question 104

While screening a pt, a PT asks the pt to shrug his shoulders. This action involves spinal cord segment C1 - C4 and the spinal accessory nerves. This action also involves the use of which muscle? a) Deltoid b) Upper trapezius c) Middle trapezius d) Rhomboids

Answer 104

B The upper traps are also used during scapular upward rotation. Rhomboids are used during scapular adduction, scapular elevetion and scapular downward rotation. Deltoids are used during shoulder abduction, shoulder flexion and shoulder extension. Teres Minor are used during shoulder lateral rotation.