Dental Decks Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
The congenital absence of six or more teeth is known as:
• Hypodontia
• Oligodontia
• Diphyodontia
• Anodontia
A
• Oligodontia
2
Q
Which type of dentinogenesis imperfecta features multiple pulp exposures,
periapical radiolucencies, and a variable radiographic appearance?
• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
A
Type III
3
Q
The permanent maxillary centrals in the x-ray below are vital.
What is the most probable interpretation of the condition illustrated?
• Mesiodens
• Concrescence
• F u s i o n
• Dens in dente
A
Mesiodens
4
Q
Al of the following are differential diagnoses for hypercementosis EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• Cemento-osseous dysplasia
• Cementoblastoma
• Condensing Osteitis
• Odontogenic Keratocyst
A
• Odontogenic Keratocyst
5
Q
An enamel defect resulting from the incomplete formation of the enamel
matrix is called:
• Enamel pearls
• Enamel hypocalcification
• Enamel hypoplasia
• Regional odontodysplasia
A
• Enamel hypoplasia
6
Q
All of the following statements concerning amelogenesis imperfecta are true
EXCEPT on. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• It is an inherited condition that is transmitted as a dominant trait
• Because of the enamel malformation, the teeth of individuals with amelogenesis im-
perfecta are often discolored, sensitive to temperature changes, and painful to brush
• It only affects the permanent teeth
• It causes the enamel to be soft and thin
• The teeth appear yellow because the dentin is visible through the thin enamel
• The teeth are easily damaged and susceptible to decay
A
• It only affects the permanent teeth
7
Q
The abnormal loss of tooth structure due to non-masticatory physical friction is
referred to as:
• Erosion
• Abfraction
• Attrition
• Abrasion
A
• A b r as io n
8
Q
Which of the following can cause intrinsic staining of teeth?
Select all that apply.
• Dentinogenesis imperfecta
• Erythroblastosis fetalis
• Porphyria
• Fluorosis
• Diabetes mellitus
• Pulpal injury
• Internal resorption
• Tetracyclines
A
• Dentinogenesis imperfecta
• Drythroblastosis fetalis
• Porphyria
• F l u o r o s i s
• Pulpal injury
• Internal resorption
• Tetracyclines
9
Q
Your patient has been diagnosed with amelogenesis imperfecta. His teeth demon-
strate enamel that varies from thin and smooth to normal thickness with grooves,
furrows, and pits. This patients hereditary condition is an example of the _
defect.
• Type I (hypoplastic)
• Type I (hypomaturation)
• Type III (hypocalcified)
A
• Type I (hypoplastic)
10
Q
In Type I dentin dysplasia, roots appear extremely short, and pulps are:
• Normal
• Somewhat smaller
• Extremely large
• Completely obliterated
A
Completely obliterated
11
Q
Where does leukemia form in the body and which type is mostly commonly
found in children?
• Lymph nodes, ALL
• Bone marrow, AML
• Lymph nodes, AML
• Bone marrow, ALL
A
• Bone marrow, ALL
12
Q
A 48-year-old female patient walks into your office. She states that she has been
diagnosed with some disease, the name of which she can’t remember. Her physi-
cian wants her to follow up with your office regularly to watch out for cancer of
the tongue and throat. She also has a bald tongue, and states that her fingernails
“look funny.” What disease does she have?
• Aplastic anemia
• Plummer-Vinson syndrome
• Pernicious anemia
• Cushing syndrome
A
• Plummer-Vinson syndrome
13
Q
Al of the following are characteristics of sickle cell anemia EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
• Crescent shaped RBC
• Production of hemoglobin S
• More common in females
• RBC lifespan of 120 days
• Loss of trabeculae evident in radiographs
• Valine of glutamic acid substitution
• Muscle and joint pain are common
A
• RBC lifespan of 120 days
14
Q
All of the following are true of acute leukemias EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
• Slow onset and progression
• Characterized by the appearance of immature, abnormal cells in the bone marrow
and peripheral blood and frequently in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and other
parenchymatous organs
• Marked by the effects of anemia, which are usually severe (fatigue, malaise), an
absence of functioning granulocytes (prone to infection and inflammation), and
thrombocytopenia (hemorrhagic diathesis)
• Moderate enlargement of the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes. Fever and very high ESR
• Leukocyte counts vary greatly from patient to patient
A
• Slow onset and progression
15
Q
Which type of purpura is characterized by a low platelet count that is caused by
abnormal thrombosis in terminal arterioles?
• Thrombocytopenic purpura
• Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
• Both of the above
• Neither of the above
A
• Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
16
Q
You have a dental patient who mentions during his health history that he
has an “overactive thyroid.” You ask him about his medications and he states
that he doesn’t know what he takes now, but at one time he took methima-
zole. He had to stop that because it “really tore up my gums and the roof of
my mouth and I got a lot of infections.” Which condition of the blood is
most commonly caused as a reaction to medication that could have caused
these symptoms?
• Thrombocytopenic purpura
• Agranulocytosis
• Sickle cell anemia
• Peutz-jegher syndrome
A
• Agranulocytosis
17
Q
A dentist is often consulted first by a patient with pernicious anemia for relief of:
• Denuded gingiva
• Glossitis
• Edematous buccal mucosa
• Severe gingivitis
A
Glossitis
18
Q
In your office, you see a 6-month-old child whose first teeth are erupting and
whose mother is concerned about the color. The mandibular incisors do show
a brownish-blue hue. You are going to ask the mother about which of the
following conditions during her pregnancy:
• Sickle cell anemia
• Erythroblastosis fetalis
• Patent ductus arteriosus
• Low-weight preterm birth
A
• Erythroblastosis fetalis
19
Q
Which of the following statements are false regarding chronic leukemias?
• They have a delayed onset and progression
• The clinical course is less devastating than that of an acute leukemia
• They constitute 75% of all leukemias
• They are characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are
m o r e m a t u r e than those o f the acute leukemias
A
• They constitute 75% of all leukemias
20
Q
Leukemias are evenly split between the acute and chronic forms, but among
children, one form accounts for about two-thirds of cases. This one form is:
• Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
• Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
• Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
• Chronic myeloid leukemia leukemia (CML)
A
• Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
21
Q
You have a new patient in your dental office who has just moved from Denver.
He says his doctor told him that he has some disease caused by living at a high
altitude. When conducting an intraoral exam, you find that his tongue is a deep
purple and his gingiva bleed easily. What disease is a likely cause of these
findings?
• Polycythemia vera (primary)
• Secondary polycythemia
• Hemophilia B
• Thalassemia major
• Porphyria
A
• Secondary polycythemia
22
Q
The translocation from chromosome 2 to chromosome 9 is a finding of which
leukemia?
• Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
• Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
• Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
• Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
A
Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
23
Q
Which of the following is an encapsulated mass that presents as an asympto-
matic lump?
• Neurofibroma
• Traumatic neuroma
• N e u r i l e m o m a
• Nodular fasciitis
A
• N e u r i l e m o m a
24
Q
While in the OR on a general surgery rotation, a 3-month-old is brought in with
a large (20 cm) fluid-filled mass on her neck. The diagnosis is a cystic hygroma.
This lesion is under which umbrella of lesions, which also contains enlarged
tissue on the posterior and lateral border of the tongue?
• Angiomas
• Lymphangiomas
• S c h w a n n o m a s
• F i b r o s a r c o m a s
A
• Lymphangiomas
25
A 24-year-old female patient comes into your office complaining of 14-mm
exophytic, red mass present on the gingiva between teeth 5 and 6. A health
history reveals that she is a smoker and is 3 months pregnant. Her oral hygiene
is poor. A likely diagnosis of the mass is:
• Epulis granulomatosa
• Pyogenic granuloma
• Peripheral ossifying fibroma
• Peripheral giant cell granuloma
• Pyogenic granuloma
26
A patient presents to your clinic with multiple exophytic masses covering the
buccal mucosa, tongue, and lips. A biopsy reveals that these are mucosal neuro-
mas. The most important reason this patient should be referred to a physician is
because of the risk of related:
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue
• Pituitary hyperplasia
• Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
• Sipple syndrome
• Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
27
Which of the following is probably the most common benign peripheral nerve
tumor?
• Traumatic neuroma
• Neurilemoma (schwannoma)
• Neurofibroma
• Nodular fasciitis
• Neurofibroma -
this is a tumor of Schwann cells and perineural fibroblasts
and commonly appears as a sessile, firm, pink nodule
28
Von Recklinghausen disease displays all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• Autosomal dominant
• Axillary freckling
• Café au lait macules
• Iris hamartomas
• Optic gliomas
• Due to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene NF3
• Due to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene NF3
29
A 55-year-old patient comes into your office for a routine dental cleaning. You see
that he has a tooth fracture (due to decay) of tooth #31. A smooth, firm, asymp-
tomatic lesion is noted on the lateral border of the tongue adjacent to the sharp
enamel of tooth #31. The patient states that the lesion has been there for years
and is annoying because sometimes he will bite it accidentally. Name this most
frequently encountered intraoral benign neoplasm of connective tissue origin.
• A leiomyosarcoma
• A fibroma
• A leiomyoma
• A rhabdomyoma
• A fibroma
30
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is a systemic disease that affects many organ
systems. What is usually the first sign of the disease?
• Lung fibrosis
• Raynaud's phenomenon
• Microstomia
• Hypertension
• Raynaud's phenomenon
31
A newborn girl was delivered via cesarean section due to airway patency
oncerns. During ultrasound, there was the discovery of a tumor of the oral
cavity. On delivery, the pink, compressible tumor of the anterior maxilla was
deemed to be a congenital epulis of the newborn. This lesion is composed of cells
that are identical to those of the:
• Traumatic neuroma
• Schwannoma
• Granular cell tumor
• Lipoma
• Granular cell tumor
32
An emergency patient walks into your office with swelling of the left submandib-
ular space. He says his lower left molar recently "broke down" and has been very
painful, especially when something cold hits it or when he chews on it. What is
the most likely etiology of this swelling?
• Orthodontics
• Tr a u m a
• Infection of the pulp of the tooth
• Periodontal disease
• Infection of the pulp of the tooth
33
A healthy patient comes into your office for an initial exam. On the full mouth
series of radiographs you see a radiopaque lesion periapical to tooth #19. Tooth
#19 has a deep amalgam restoration with recurrent decay underneath. Though
the lesion is not separated from the apex, you can see the entire outline of the
mesial root of tooth #19. The radiopaque lesion does not have a radiolucent rim.
What is the most likely diagnosis of the lesion?
• Condensing osteitis
• C e m e n t o b l a s t o m a
• Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
• Idiopathic osteosclerosis
• Condensing osteitis
34
All forms of osteomyelitis are much more commonly seen in the mandible.
Unless the inflammatory process has been present for more than 1 week,
radiographic evidence of acute osteomyelitis is usually not present.
• Both statements are true
• Both statements are false
• The first statement is true, the second is false
• The first statement is false, the second is true
• Both statements are true
35
Cleft palate usually occurs starting in the
cleft lip usually occurs starting in the
metabolic & genetic jaw diseases
week of embryonic life whereas
week.
• 8th week, 6th week
• 10th week, 8th week
• 6th week, 8th week
• 8th week, 10th week
• 8th week, 6th week
36
A child with achondroplasia has a:
• Relatively normal torso and long arms and legs
• Short torso and long arms and legs
• Long torso and long arms with short legs
• Relatively normal torso and short arms and legs
• Relatively normal torso and short arms and legs
37
Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta is associated with which genetic disease?
• Osteogenesis imperfecta
• Marfan syndrome
• Ehlers-danlos
• Cystic fibrosis
• Osteogenesis imperfecta
38
Hypophosphatasia is a genetic metabolic disorder of bone mineralization
caused by a deficiency in:
• Acid phosphatase
• Vitamin K
• Alkaline phosphatase
• Phosphorus
• Alkaline phosphatase
39
Pituitary adenoma in a 9-year-old will most likely lead to:
• Gigantism
• Acromegaly
• Achondroplasia
• Dwarfism
• Gigantism
40
A new 6-year-old pediatric patient walks into your operatory with her mother.
Your initial physical assessment notes a prominent forehead and flattened nose.
The patient initially seems to have no eyebrows but you later realize that the hair
is just very fine and sparse. When you shake her hand and she smiles, you also
notice that she is missing teeth and the ones she has are cone shaped. What is
her most likely systemic condition?
• Pierre robin syndrome
• Ectodermal dysplasia
• Cleidocranial dysplasia
• Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Osteopetrosis
• Ectodermal dysplasia
41
A 65-year old Caucasian male presents to your office with ill-fitting dentures.
Radiographic and clinical exam lead you to believe the patient has Paget disease.
Which of the following would support this diagnosis?
Select all that apply.
• Hypercementosis
• Enlarged cranium
• Bone of decreased density
• Headaches
• Hearing loss
• Hypercementosis
• Enlarged cranium
• Headaches
• Hearing loss
42
Cherubism is a benign, autosomal dominant condition exhibiting all of the
following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• Radiographically shows multilocular radio-opacities
• Histologically close to central giant cell granuloma
• Clinically presents as non-tender swellings
• Treatment is frequent monitoring
• Most cases occur in mandible
• Affects males more than females
• Radiographically shows multilocular radio-opacities
43
A deficiency of parathyroid hormone can be treated with:
• Vitamin A
• Vitamin C
• Vitamin D
• Vitamin K
Vitamin D
44
Graves disease is the most acute and severe form of hyperthyroidism caused by
the autoimmune disease targeting which receptor?
• MSH receptor
• TSH receptor
• GH receptor
• PTH receptor
• TSH receptor
45
Severe hypothyroidism is called
adults.
metabolic & genetic jaw diseases
in children, whereas it is called in
_
• hashimoto disease, cretinism
• cretinism, Graves disease
• myxedema, dwarfism
• cretinism, Myxedema
• cretinism, Myxedema
46
The clinical features of the primary form of which disease is classically described
as "stones, bones, groans, and moans?"
• Paget disease
• Hypophosphatasia
• Hyperparathyroidism
• Hyperthyroidism
• Hyperparathyroidism
47
On a hospital rotation you see an infant who displays bowed legs and
muscular weakness. On dental examination you notice a delayed eruption
pattern. The child has rickets, which is a deficiency in which vitamin?
• Vitamin A
• Vitamin D
• Vitamin C
• Vitamin E
• Vitamin D
48
Which of the following conditions may be seen in a patient with cerebral palsy?
Select all that apply.
• Difficulty with mastication and swallowing
• Higher incidence of periodontal disease and caries
• Attrition of the teeth
• Multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws
• Difficulty with mastication and swallowing
• Higher incidence of periodontal disease and caries
• Attrition of the teeth
49
Which of the following diseases is associated with a decrease in caries?
• Sjögren syndrome
• Cystic fibrosis
• Cerebral palsy
• Down syndrome
• Cystic fibrosis
50
You are listening to a story about oyster fishing from a fellow classmate
concerning his trip to the East Coast. He mentions that he got sick and had to
be taken to the ER where he was told he had hepatitis. He is fine now. Which
hepatitis is the most likely culprit in your colleague?
• Hepatitis A
• Hepatitis B
• Hepatitis C
• Hepatitis D
• Hepatitis A -
also called infectious, viral or short-incubation hepatitis
51
Which of the following is the most common reason for liver transplant in the
United States and has been linked to a higher incidence of hepatocellular
carcinoma?
• Hepatitis A
• Hepatitis B
• Hepatitis C
• Hepatitis D
• Hepatitis C
52
Which of the following aid in wound healing?
Select all that apply.
• Highly vascular areas (i.e., tongue)
• Hyperthermia
• Younger age
• Cortisone
• Hypothermia
• Highly vascular areas (i.e., tongue)
• Hyperthermia
• Younger age
53
In which one of the following cases is an incisional biopsy indicated?
• 3 × 3 mm well-encapsulated fibroma
• Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate
• 2 x 2 m papilloma of left commissure of lips
• 3 x 2 mm melanotic macule
• Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate
54
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with all of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
• Oral hairy leukoplakia
• Burkitt lymphoma
• Koplik spots
• Infectious mononucleosis
• Koplik spots
55
Epithelioid cells and giant cells are derived from macrophages and are important
in the development of:
• Initial inflammation
• Granulomatous inflammation
• Acute inflammation
• Subacute inflammation
• Granulomatous inflammation
56
A patient you saw yesterday had minor swelling of the submandibular space
associated with a carious #31. You prescribed amoxicillin and sent him home.
He called today to say the swelling has gotten worse. You squeeze him into the
schedule and notice that he has trouble breathing. You call an ambulance to
escort him to the ER and tell the paramedics that he has Ludwig's angina.
Ludwig angina is a severe and spreading infection that involves the:
• Submental and sublingual spaces only
• Submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces unilaterally
• Submandibular and sublingual spaces only
• Submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces bilaterally
• Submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces bilaterally
57
ESR rises with all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEP-
TION?
• Inflammation
• Administration of hydrocortisone
• Necrosis
• Suppuration
• Pregnancy
• Administration of hydrocortisone
58
Your 2-year-old nephew tells you he feels sick and then proceeds to vomit on
the kitchen floor. You rush him to the bathroom where you notice toothpaste
everywhere and his "SpongeBob" toothpaste tube completely empty. Your
aunt asks you, "What is the estimated toxic dose for fluoride ingestion"?
Your answer to her is:
• 1-2 mg/kg
• 5-10 mg/kg
• 8-10 mg/kg
• 12-15 mg/kg
• 5-10 mg/kg
59
The most common cause of xerostomia is:
• Hereditary
• Medications
• Tooth decay
• Mouth breathing
• Medications
60
Most patients who develop burning mouth syndrome are:
• Children
• Teenagers
• Postmenopausal women
• Middle-aged males
• Postmenopausal women
61
Radiographically, traumatic bone cysts present as a:
• Well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots
• Poorly circumscribed radiopaque lesion which may have a "ground-glass"
appearance
• Saucer-shaped radiopaque lesion
• Poorly defined multilocular radiolucency with a "pear-shaped" appearance between
the maxillary central incisors
• Well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots
62
Where in the oral cavity is malignant melanoma most commonly found?
• Tongue and mandibular alveolar ridge
• Buccal mucosa and pharyngeal pillars
• Palate and maxillary gingiva
• Mucobuccal fold of lower lip
• Palate and maxillary gingiva
63
A 62-year-old African American patient comes into your office complaining of his
loose lower molars. The health history reveals recent lower back pain. On a
hunch, you send him down the hall to the orthodontist to take a lateral skull
radiograph that reveals "punched-out" radiolucencies. You will refer this
patient to the physician suspecting a diagnosis of:
• Non-hodgkin's lymphoma
• Hodgkin's lymphoma
• Multiple myeloma
• Langerhan's cell disease
• Multiple myeloma
64
The least common type of malignant melanoma is:
• Superficial spreading melanoma
• Lentigo maligna melanoma
• Acral-lentiginous melanoma
• Nodular melanoma
• Acral-lentiginous melanoma
65
When using the TNM method in assessing the prognosis and therapy of
malignant neoplasms, the N represents:
• The presence of nikolsky sign
• The presence of nodules
• The presence of regional lymph node involvement
• The presence of erythroplakia
• The presence of regional lymph node involvement
66
The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the:
• Dorsum
• Ventral surface
• Tip
• Posterior lateral b o r d e r
Posterior lateral b o r d e r
67
Of the following types of squamous cell carcinomas, which is the least common?
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx
68
At which growth stage is metastasis most likely for malignant melanoma?
• "Horizontal" growth phase
• "Circular" growth phase
• "Vertical" growth phase
• "Radial" growth phase
• "Vertical" growth phase
69
Cancer of which oral cavity structure is most commonly associated with
mortality?
• Lip
• Tongue
• Floor o f mouth
• Buccal mucosa
Tongue
70
A 47-year-old HIV+ patient is referred from his physician to your office because
of an exophytic growth in the maxillary left mucobuccal fold. Unable to find an
odontogenic source, a biopsy was done. A starry-sky morphology was found and
a dismal diagnosis of Burkitt's lymphoma was made. Which virus is thought to
be responsible for this lymphoma?
• Herpes virus
• Epstein-barr virus
• Cytomegalovirus
• Human papillomavirus
• Epstein-barr virus
71
Ewing's sarcoma most often presents radiographically as:
• Multiple radiolucent/radiopaque lesions resembling "cotton ball" or "cotton wool"
appearance
• Multiple "punched-out" radiolucencies
• Ill-defined lytic lesion with an onionskin parosteal reaction in the long bones
• Ill-defined radiolucent lesion resembling "ground glass"
• Ill-defined lytic lesion with an onionskin parosteal
reaction in the long bones
72
A 15-year-old patient presents to his physician because of localized pain in
his right femur and rapidly enlarging swelling. A radiograph of the area shows
a "sun-ray" appearance. Which is a likely diagnosis for this patient based on
incidence?
• Chondrosarcoma
• O s t e o s a r c o m a
• Scleroderma
• Chronic osteomyelitis
• O s t e o s a r c o m a
73
While doing a dental mission trip in Ethiopia, you notice purplish-brown
nodules on the hard palate of a 32-year-old female patient. You notice more of
these spots on her arms and legs. Given that HIV infection has an almost 5%
prevalence in urban Addis Ababa, for what neoplasm are you suspicious of?
• Nicotinic stomatitis
• Hemangioma
• Kaposi sarcoma
• Leukemia
• Kaposi sarcoma
74
The presents as a movable, painless submucosal nodule with a
yellowish-pink discoloration most commonly in the floor of the mouth.
• lipoma
• ranula
• lymphoma
• oral lymphoepithelial cyst
• Oral lymphoepithelial cyst
75
Which of the following statements concerning metastatic tumors of the jaws are
correct.
Select all that apply.
• They may be completely asymptomatic
• The patient is usually aware of slight discomfort or pain
• The maxilla is affected far more frequently than the mandible
• The molar region is predominantly involved
• They may be completely asymptomatic
• The patient is usually aware of slight discomfort or pain
• The molar region is predominantly involved
76
Explain what is meant by a carcinoma of the oral cavity having the following
TNM designation:
T1, N2c, M1
77
A 65-year-old patient of East Indian origin presents to your clinic with a
omplaint of a lesion on the maxillary alveolar tuberosity. The lesion is a
thick white, exophytic mass with a cauliflower appearance. A social history
reveals that this woman has been chewing a betel nut concoction from her
native India for over 40 years. What is the likely diagnosis of this lesion?
• Papilloma
• Erythroplakia
• Verrucous carcinoma
• Hyperkeratosis
• Verrucous carcinoma
78
A 73-year-old patient presents to your office with complaint of a lasting
ulceration on the right side of his tongue. He has a history of hypertension
and high cholesterol and a 40-year pack history of smoking. The patient takes
antihypertensives and antilipidemies and has no allergies. You cannot find
any sources of trauma. After 2 weeks, the ulcer has grown in size. What is
the likely diagnosis of this most common malignancy of the oral cavity?
• Adenoid cystic carcinoma
• Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
• Basal cell c a r c i n o m a
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Squamous cell carcinoma
79
While attempting to give an inferior alveolar nerve block, if you inject the
anesthetic solution into the capsule of the parotid gland, you may cause a
Bell's palsy-like feeling for the patient by anesthetizing the:
• Trigeminal nerve
• Glossopharyngeal nerve
• Hypoglossal nerve
• Facial nerve
Facial nerve
80
A 25-year-old college student comes into your office complaining that, when
she wakes up, she has trouble opening her mouth. When conducting a TMJ
exam, you note tenderness of the right lateral pterygoid and nonreciprocal
clicking of the right TMJ. What is the most likely cause of the patient's
myofacial pain?
• Trauma
• Muscle spasm
• Periodontal disease
• Tumor
Muscle spasm
81
A 53-year-old patient comes to your office and notes that, sometimes when
he swallows, he gets a sharp "jolt" on the right side of his throat. He says the
pain is severe and he can even feel it in his ear. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Postherpetic neuralgia
• Orolingual paresthesia
• Frey syndrome
• Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
• Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
82
Which of the following is a relatively rare autoimmune disorder of peripheral
nerves in which antibodies form against acetylcholine (ACh) nicotinic
post-synaptic receptors at the myoneural junction?
• Myasthenia gravis
• Myelofibrosis
• Multiple sclerosis
• G r a v e s disease
• Myasthenia gravis
83
A 34-year-old dentophobe is your patient for the morning. After getting a very
hesitant health history, you decide to begin your oral exam. As you reach toward
her face, she immediately flinches and puts her hands up. She lets you know that
if you touch a particular point above her lip, she gets sharp, stabbing jolts of
pain. You let her know that a neurologist can work her up for:
• Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
• Trigeminal neuralgia
• Postherpetic neuralgia
• Diabetic neuralgia
• Trigeminal neuralgia
84
Which of the following are typically within soft tissue and may mimic
inflammatory lesions of odontogenic origin?
• Median palatal cyst
• Traumatic bone cyst
• Nasolabial cyst
• Nasopalatine cyst
• Nasolabial cyst
85
Which of the following cysts are congenital?
Select all that apply.
• Thyroglossal duct cyst
• Branchial cyst
• Stafne bone cyst
• Dermoid cyst
• Thyroglossal duct cyst
• Branchial cyst
• Dermoid cyst
86
Which of the following cysts are developmental (or fissural)?
Select all that apply.
• Nasopalatine duct (canal)
• Nasolabial (nasoalveolar)
• Branchiogenic
• Median palatal
• Median alveolar
• Nasopalatine duct (canal)
• Nasolabial (nasoalveolar)
• Median palatal
• M e d i a n alveolar
87
The circular radiolucent area seen in this radiograph is clinically seen as a
marked swelling in the region of the palatine papilla. It is situated mesial to the
roots of the central incisors. The pulps of the anterior teeth in this patient tested
vital. These findings would be compatible with what diagnosis?
• Nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst - also known as an incisive canal cyst
88
The soft tissue, and far less common, variant of the nasopalatine canal cyst is
the:
• Median mandibular cyst
• Nasolabial cyst
• Cyst of the incisive papilla
• Aneurysmal bone cyst
• Cyst of the incisive papilla
89
An 8-year-old girl who looks like she is 14 years old comes with her father into
your office. Her father states during the health history that she has McCune-
Albright syndrome. Which of the following would you expect the patient to have?
Select all that apply.
• Congenital heart defects
• Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• Café au lait spots
• Endocrine dysfunction
• Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• Café au lait spots
• Endocrine dysfunction
90
An 8-year-old child has complained of pain on the left side of his head for 5
weeks. There are no abnormal findings on physical examination. A pan reveals
multiple radiolucent lesions on the left side of the maxilla. The lesions give the
appearance of teeth that are "floating in air." The lesions are sharply circum-
scribed with a punched-out appearance. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
• Langerhans cell disease
• Hyperparathyroidism
• Cherubism
• Paget disease
• Langerhans cell disease
91
Which of the following are true regarding central giant cell granulomas?
Select all that apply.
• Appear more frequently than peripheral giant cell granulomas
• Found predominantly in children and young adults
• Affects females more than males
• Present almost exclusively in the small bones of the hands and feet
• Found predominantly in children and young adults
• Affects females more than males
92
A 21-year-old male patient is home from college and came to you because his
"bite seems off." A quick physical assessment seems to indicate that his chin is
deviated to the right. Taking a panoramic x-ray and comparing to the previous
panoramic radiographs you have in his chart, you notice that the left condylar
neck seems to have elongated. What condition does this patient most likely have?
• Condylar agenesis
• Condylar hyperplasia
• Condylar hypoplasia
• Hemifacial microsomia
• Condylar hyperplasia
93
A 6-year-old boy is a patient in your practice who has been hospitalized multi-
ple times for broken bones. During routine lab tests, it was noted that his
alkaline phosphatase levels were quite high. If this patient has a form of
fibrous dysplasia, which radiographic feature may you find?
• The lesions are usually radiolucent, well-circumscribed, and may have a "cotton wool"
a p p e a r a n c e
• The lesions are usually a saucer-shaped radiolucency
• The lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and may have a "ground-
glass" appearance
• The lesions are usually well-demarcated unilocular or multilocular
• The lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and
may have a "ground-glass" appearance
94
Mandibular tori most often appear:
• In the retromolar pad region
• On the lingual surface of the mandible, most often in the premolar region
• On the lingual surface of the mandible, inferior to the mylohyoid ridge
• Along the midline of the hard palate
• On the lingual surface of the mandible, most often in the premolar region
95
Al of the following are features of an ossifying fibroma EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
• Slow growing expansile lesion
• More often in maxilla
• Asymptomatic
• Common in young adults around 35 years of age
• More common in female
• More often in maxilla
96
A 17-year-old patient of yours comes in for a routine examination. A head and
neck examination reveals multiple cysts of the skin. Her panoramic exams
have always shown multiple impacted teeth and today shows multiple radio-
pacities of the jaws, especially at the angle of the mandible. You suspect Gardner
syndrome. What is the most serious complication she should be concerned with
when consulting her physician?
• Odontomas
• Osteomas
• Epidermoid cysts
• Multiple polyps that affect the large intestine
• Multiple polyps that affect the large intestine
97
A 10-year-old boy comes with his mother to the dental office because of a
painless swelling of his maxilla. Radiographic exam reveals an irregularly
shaped radiopaque mass with a ground-glass appearance. No other bulges have
been noted by the mother. A biopsy reveals fibrous tissue in the bone. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
• Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
• Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
• Albright syndrome
• Jaffe syndrome
Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
98
A new patient walks into your office. Your initial physical assessment reveals
that his eyes are set wide and that he has multiple lesions of the skin. When
shaking his hand, you notice that the skin of his palm is very thick and has
palmer pitting. When doing a health history, he reveals that he sees a neurologist
and that he has some calcified structures "in his brain." A panoramic radiograph
may likely reveal:
• O s t e o m a s
• Keratocystic odontogenic tumors
• Odontomas
• Dentigerous cysts
• Keratocystic odontogenic tumors
99
A mother brings her 2-year-old boy into the dental office because of a "swelling"
on his alveolar ridge. Your exam reveals a smooth-surfaced bluish lesion with
fluctuance where tooth #K will be erupting. The most likely diagnosis of this is:
• Dentigerous cyst
• Eruption cyst
• H e m a t o m a
• Hemangioma
• Eruption cyst
100
Upon viewing a panorex of a 14-year-old patient, you see a well-defined
radiolucency with scalloping around the roots on the left side of the mandible
apical to the canine and first premolar. No clinical symptoms are present. Teeth
are not carious and respond normally to vitality tests. Medical history is
unremarkable. On opening the area, no fluid or tissue is evident. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
• Dentigerous cyst
• Traumatic (simple) bone cyst
• Primordial cyst
• Residual cyst
• Stafne (static) bone defect
• Traumatic (simple) bone cyst
101
A healthy 19-year-old patient presents to your office for a routine exam. Taking
a panoramic radiograph, you see a well-corticated, unilocular radiolucency
surrounding the crown of impacted tooth #17. The lesion is asymptomatic. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
• Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
• Dentigerous cyst
• Cystic ameloblastoma
• Central ossifying fibroma
• Dentigerous cyst -
or Follicular cyst
Clinical features:
• It usually contains a crown of an unerupted
102
The keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KOT) (formerly known as the odontogenic
keratocyst [OKC]) is derived from which of the following:
• Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
• The reduced enamel epithelium
• Remnants of the dental lamina
• A preexisting osteoma
• Remnants of the dental lamina
103
Which of the following most commonly appears radiographically as a well-
circumscribed radiolucency with corticated margins, located laterally to a vital
mandibular canine?
• Lateral periodontal cyst
• Dentigerous cyst
• Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
• All of the above
• Lateral periodontal cyst
104
A dental granuloma and a radicular cyst can be differentiated:
• Based on symptoms
• Radiographically
• Histologically
• By an electric pulp tester
Histologically - and only histologically
105
A 37-year-old patient comes into your office with the complaint of a slow-
growing, painless swelling of his lower left jaw. A panoramic shows a
multilocular radiolucency with well-defined and sclerotic margins along the left
mandibular molar-ramus area. All teeth test as vital. A biopsy showed the lesion
to be an ameloblastoma. It is most likely to be which type of ameloblastoma?
• Solid (multicystic or polycystic)
• Unicystic
• Extraosseous (peripheral)
• Solid (multicystic or polycystic)
106
A 30-year-old patient comes into your office complaining of a painless swelling
of his lower left jaw. A panoramic radiograph shows a well-circumscribed mul-
tilocular radiolucency with a "honeycomb" pattern at the location of the lower
left molars. The teeth have been displaced. The pathology report calls this an
odontogenic myxoma. This tumor:
• Is composed of large polyhedral, neoplastic, epithelial cells
• Is composed of neoplastic epithelium and mesenchyme
• Arises from odontogenic ectomesenchyme
• Is composed of spindle-shaped mesenchymal cells and aggregates of multinucleated
giant cells
• Arises from odontogenic ectomesenchyme
107
The cementoblastoma is more often seen:
• In the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the posterior than in the
anterior regions
• In the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the anterior than in the
posterior regions
• In the maxilla than in the mandible, and more often in the posterior than in the
anterior regions
• In the maxilla than in the mandible, and more often in the anterior than in the
posterior regions
• In the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the
posterior than in the anterior regions
108
All of the following are true regarding periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• Appears in middle age
• Mandible is affected more than maxilla
• A predilection for middle-aged black women
• No treatment is usually required
• Teeth are non-vital
Teeth are non-vital
109
The most common location for a Pindborg tumor (calcifying epithelial
odontogenic tumor [CEOT]) is the:
• Tuberosity area
• Maxillary anterior area
• Mandibular premolar area
• Posterior mandible
Posterior mandible
110
The ameloblastic fibroma and ameloblastic fibro-odontoma appear to be
variations of the same process. These neoplasms occur predominantly in:
• Adults with a mean age of 40
• Elderly people with a mean age of 75
• Young adults with a mean age of 25
• Children and young adults
Children and young adults
111
How would you refer to the group of small radiopacities between the mandibu-
lar canine and first premolar on the periapical x-ray below?
• Compound odontoma
Remember: A compound odontoma looks like a tooth, and a complex odontoma does
not (it is a disorganized arrangement of tubular dentin, enamel, and thin layers of
cementum).
112
A 45-year-old African-American female presents to your office for a routine exam.
Periapicals of the mandibular incisors show multiple radioopacities with radiolu-
cent rims. Teeth #23 through #26 test as vital. There is no pain on percussion or
palpation. Treatment for these lesions should be:
• Do nothing (observe)
• RCT treatment for teeth #23 through #26
• Surgical excision of lesions
• None of the above
• Do nothing (observe)
113
A 5-year-old boy presents with his mother for his first dental exam. Your exam
reveals a normally developing dentition, but you notice multiple "freckles" on his
lower lip and on the buccal mucosa. For what condition should you be
concerned?
• Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
• Gardner syndrome
• Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Cleidocranial dysplasia
• Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
114
What most likely caused the discoloration of the gingiva as seen in the
picture below?
• Amalgam
An amalgam tattoo is the most common oral pigmented lesion. The tattoo has been mistaken for a melanin-
pigmented lesion. The most common locations for amalgam tattoos are the alveolar gingiva and buccal
mucosa. Note: Attempt to locate amalgam on x-ray if tattoo is suspected; if you cannot locate any
amalgam, a biopsy is needed to rule out a melanocytic neoplasm.
115
The most common location for an intraoral congenital nevi (birthmark) is the:
• Buccal mucosa
• Tongue
• Hard palate
• Alveolar mucosa
Hard palate
116
Which of the following conditions demonstrate pigmentation of the intraoral
mucous membranes.
Select all that apply.
• Addison disease
• McCune-Albright syndrome
• Cushing syndrome
• Putz-Jeghers syndrome
• A d d i s o n d i s e a s e
• McCune-Albright syndrome
• Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
117
A 40-year-old patient presents to his physician with complaints of muscle
weakness and loss of appetite. He has noticed a loss of weight and also that his
skin has started to "bronze." His labs show lowered blood glucose and sodium
and increased potassium. One condition likely to be causing this is:
• Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Cushing syndrome
• Addison disease
• Albright syndrome
Addison disease
118
Focal melanosis is a common circumstance in which brownish areas of pigmen-
tation occur in the oral cavity. Once properly diagnosed:
• Surgical excision is required
• Radiation is required
• No treatment is necessary
• Antibiotics are require
• No treatment is necessary
119
The intraoral nevus is usually a/an:
• Intradermal nevus
• Compound nevus
• Junctional nevus
• B l u e nevus
• Intramucosal nevus
Intramucosal nevus
120
A patient presents with an asymptomatic, elongated, erythematous patch of
atrophie mucosa of the mid-dorsal surface of the tongue due to a chronic
Candida albicans infection. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Thyroglossal duct cyst
• Lymphangioma
• Hemangioma
• Median rhomboid glossitis
• Median rhomboid glossitis
121
A 13-year-old patient presents with his father to your dental clinic for a routine
examination. From the health history, you gather that the patient has frequent
nosebleeds, just like his father. Upon intraoral examination, you notice multiple
Red spots on the patient's lower lip and tongue. The father states that he has these
same marks on his tongue, palate, hands and eyes. What condition do you
suspect the child has?
• Wegener granulomatosis
• Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
• Sturge-Weber angiomatosis
• Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
• Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
- aka Rendu-Osier-Weber syndrome
122
A clinical term defined as a red patch that cannot be clinically or patholog-
ically diagnosed as any other condition is called:
• Leukoedema
• Psoriasis
• Erythroplakia
• White sponge nevu
• Erythroplakia
123
The arrow in the picture below is pointing to a fast-growing reactive prolifera-
tion of endothelial cells which is commonly found on the gingiva and usually
forms in response to chronic irritation. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Pyogenic granuloma
124
Peripheral giant cell granulomas are seen exclusively in the:
• Buccal mucosa
• Alveolar mucosa
• Bone
• Gingiva
• Gingiva
125
The picture below shows a benign, soft, moderately well-circumscribed,
painless mass which is deep red or blueish red in coloration. The most likely
diagnosis is:
Hemangioma
126
Tumors of the salivary glands are:
• Uncommon and represent 2-4% of head and neck neoplasms
• Common and represent 75-80% of head and neck neoplasms
• Uncommon and represent 25-30% of head and neck neoplasms
• Common and represent 95-98% of head and neck neoplasms
• Uncommon and represent 2-4% of head and neck neoplasms
127
which lesion below presents itself as a deep-seated palatal ulcer with clinical and
histologic features mimicking those of a malignant neoplasm?
• White sponge nevus
• Lichen planus
• Necrotizing sialometaplasia
• Focal hyperkeratosi
• Necrotizing sialometaplasia
128
In a small Amish community, there is an infectious outbreak. Multiple children
e coming down with symptoms including fever and malaise. Commonly, there
is swelling of the parotid glands. Given that this community does not receive
vaccinations, what is a likely diagnosis for the condition?
• Measles
• Mumps
• Rubella
• Chicken pox
Mumps
129
The Stafne bone defect is a developmental anomaly represented by a bone
concavity usually containing:
• Parotid gland tissue
• Submandibular gland tissue
• Sublingual gland tissue
• All of the above
• Submandibular gland tissue
130
A 53-year-old woman comes into the dental clinic with bilaterally enlarged
parotid glands. It was discovered that she had recently been to the African
continent and had contracted tuberculosis. What is the name of the autoimmune
disease associated with enlarged salivary glands in association with a secondary
disease?
• Sjögren syndrome
• Mikulicz disease
• Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
• Pierre Robin syndrome
• Apert syndrome
• Mikulicz disease
131
A 33-year-old patient comes into your office for a routine maintenance
appointment. While doing an intraoral exam, the hygienist discovers a bluish
lesion of the lower lip. The patient relates a history of biting this area last week
when he had a sinus infection. What is the most likely diagnosis of this lesion?
• Ranula
• Infectious sialadenitis
• Maxillary sinus retention cyst
• Mucocele
• Mucocele
132
What is the most probable diagnosis for a lesion that presents as a translucent,
bluish, well-rounded, smooth-surfaced bulge that protrudes from one side of the
floor of the mouth?
• Adenoid carcinoma
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• A ranula
• A lymphangioma
A ranula
133
A patient comes to your office complaining of pain when eating and even
sometimes when thinking about food. Your intraoral exam reveals a small,
hard swelling in the floor of the mouth. A mandibular occlusal radiograph
shows a pea-sized radiopacity with "onion-skin" thickening lingual to the
right mandibular border. Name the likely diagnosis:
• Sialometaplasia
• Sialadenitis
• Sialolith
• Sialosis
Sialolith
134
Of the neoplasms affecting the major or minor glands, the
most common.
• basal cell adenoma
• sebaceous adenoma
• pleomorphic adenoma
• ductal papilloma
pleomorphic adenoma
135
Which of the following disorders should be included in your differential
diagnosis of parotid gland enlargement.
Select all that apply.
• Sarcoidosis
• Mikulicz disease
• Sjögren syndrome
• Hypothyroidism
• Diabetes mellitus
• Malnutrition/starvation
• Dehydration
• Cystic fibrosis
• Sarcoidosis
• M i k u l i c z d i s e a s e
• Sjögren syndrome
• Diabetes mellitus
• M a l n u t r i t i o n / s t a r v a t i o n
• Dehydration
• Cystic fibrosis
136
The acinic cell carcinoma is derived from serous acinar cells and is found
almost exclusively in the:
• Submandibular gland
• Parotid gland
• Minor glands of the palate
• Sublingual gland
• Parotid gland
137
__________is the most common salivary gland malignancy and makes up between
5% and 9% of all salivary gland neoplasms.
• Adenoid cystic carcinoma
• Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
• Acinic cell carcinoma
• Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
138
Which autoimmune disease is associated with the increase in caries?
• Lupus erythematosus
• Sjögren syndrome
• Sarcoidosis
• Crohn disease
• Sjögren syndrome
139
The ______salivary gland presents with the most number of tumors and______
carcinoma is the most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm.
• parotid, acinic cell
• parotid, mucoepidermoid
• sublingual, mucoepidermoid
• sublingual, acinic cell
• parotid, mucoepidermoid
140
Oncocytomas are ____ tumors that constitute about______ of benign
epithelial salivary gland neoplasms.
• common; 50%
• common; 75%
• rare; 2%
• rare; 15%
• rare; 2%
141
A 65-year-old patient comes to your office complaining of a slowly growing
enlargement of the jaw. You palpate the angle of his right ramus and find an
encapsulated mass that is nontender and firm. Your oral pathologist defines
it as a glandular and cystic tumor lined by a bilayered (inner columnar
oncocytic and outer basal) epithelium with a lymphoid stroma. Name this second
most common benign neoplasm of the parotids.
• Pleomorphic adenoma
• Warthin tumor
• Fibroadenoma
• Monomorphic adenom
• W a r t h i n t u m o r
142
A 40-year-old female presented with a subcutaneous nodule on the lower lip
(arrow is pointing to lesion). The nodule was non-tender, soft, movable and had
been slowly growing for about 2 years. The nodule was excised. Its cut surface
was yellow and lobulated. What is the clinical significance of the nodule being
movable and slow-growing?
• These are characteristics of a benign neoplasm
143
An overgrowth of normal tissues in a place where that tissue is not normally found
is referred to as a:
• Teratoma
• Choristoma
• Hamartoma
• None of the above
• Choristoma
144
Malignant neoplasms range from well-differentiated to undifferentiated.
Malignant neoplasms composed of undifferentiated cells are said to be:
• Metaplastic
• Hyperplastic
• Anaplastic
• Dysplastic
Anaplastic
145
Metaplasia most commonly occurs by replacement of ______by______
• cuboidal cells; columnar cells
• columnar cells; stratified squamous epithelium
• columnar cells; pseudostratified columnar cells
• cuboidal cells; stratified squamous epithelium
• columnar cells; stratified squamous epithelium
146
A 25-year-old dental student has been cramming for his dental physiology
and pharmacology final exams. He is sleep deprived but otherwise healthy.
When flossing, he notices a 3-mm ulceration on the inner surface of his lower
lip. He can find no other instances of this lesion and remembers that he had
one a long time ago in undergraduate clinic, which went away. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
• Recurrent aphthous minor
• Recurrent aphthous major
• Recurrent herpetiform aphthous
• Recurrent herpetic stomatitis
Recurrent aphthous minor
147
Which of the following make up the triad of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)?
• Stomatitis
• Lesions of the eye
• Genital lesions
• Maculopapular rash
• S t o m a t i t i s
• Lesions of the eye
• G e n i t a l lesions
148
The lesion below is a small (2 mm-5 mm in diameter), whitish sore with a red
border. The patient states that it usually begins as a reddish area with a burn-
ing or tingling sensation. The most likely diagnosis is
• Recurrent aphthous minor
149
Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a
distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the:
• Chronic desquamative gingivitis
• Petechial hemorrhage
• Iris or target lesion
• M u c o c u t a n e o u s rash
• Iris or target lesion
- appears as a central lesion surrounded by concentric rings
of pallor and redness over the dorsal aspect of the hands and forearms
150
A 43-year-old man presents to the ER with a purple lump of the jaw that is
painful. He has an extraoral sinus tract presenting with yellowish crust. The ER
places the individual on a long-term penicillin regimen. What was the most likely
diagnosis?
• Coccidioidomycosis
• Histoplasmosis
• Tuberculosis
• Actinomycosis
• Scarlet feve
• Actinomycosis
151
Treponema pallidum is the infectious organism of which disease?
• Syphilis
• Gonorrhea
• Chlamydia
• Tuberculosis
Syphilis
152
The screwdriver-shaped central incisors seen in picture below of a child with
congenital syphilis are called:
• H u t c h i n s o n i n c i s o r s
153
Which of the following fungal infections is most commonly associated with
diabetes mellitus?
• Coccidioiodomycosis
• Mucormycosis
• Aspirgillosis
• None of the above
• Mucormycosis
154
A 4-year-old patient comes with her mother for a routine appointment. The
mother states that her daughter just started not feeling well and had a mild
fever earlier in the day. The daughter has been having trouble swallowing.
An intraoral exam reveals multiple 1-mm to 2- mm vesiculopapular lesions
of the nasopharynx and soft palate. Your working diagnosis is:
• Herpangina
• Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease
• Herpes simplex infection
• Pemphigus vulgaris
Herpangina
155
Which type of herpes virus is associated with the lesion on the lower lip?
• HSV-1
• HSV-2
• HSV-3
• H S V- 4
HSV-1
156
The dormancy state with latency in the trigeminal ganglion is associated with
which form of herpes?
• Cytomegalovirus
• Epstein-barr virus
• Herpes simplex virus type 1
• Herpes simplex virus type 2
• Herpes simplex virus type 1
157
A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic in regards to upper dentures. When
getting his health history, you ask about history of infectious diseases. He
mentions that a year ago, his eldest son died and later he broke out in blisters on
only half of his back. He says he doesn't remember what the doctor called it, but
he remembers the physician saying it "stopped at the midline." What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• Herpes zoster
• Herpangina
• Recurrent herpes
• Chickenpox
Herpes zoster
158
Over 90% of primary herpes simplex viral infections are:
• Manifested as ANUG
• Associated with HIV
• Subclinical
• Characterized by severe lymphadenopathy and acute dermatitis
• Subclinical
159
After the initial primary attack during the early childhood period, the herpes
simplex virus remains inactive most commonly in the:
• Geniculate ganglion
• Ciliary ganglion
• Trigeminal ganglion
• Pterygopalatine ganglion
• Trigeminal ganglion
160
A 49-year-old patient of Ashkenazi heritage presents to your office complaining
of "blisters in her mouth." Your intraoral exam shows ulcers present on multi-
ple areas of mucosa. She also related to you that, while getting out of the car ear-
lier, the skin of her arm rubbed against the car door and tore. Known as Nikolsky
sign, this phenomenon is associated with which disease?
• Herpes zoster
• Lupus erythematosus
• Lichen planus
• Pemphigus
Pemphigus
161
The oral lesions of benign mucous membrane pemphigoid most commonly
present as a:
• Candidiasis
• Hairy leukoplakia
• Desquamative gingivitis
• Hemorrhagic mass
• Desquamative gingivitis
162
The common wart or verruca vulgaris is caused by the:
• Human papillomavirus
• Adenovirus
• Epstein-barr virus
• Human parvovirus
• Human papillomavirus
163
A 45-year-old female walks into your office complaining of a "wart" on her gums
that has been there for years. Your exam reveals an asymptomatic, well circum-
scribed, slightly raised, papillomatous lesion on the buccal gingiva of tooth #5. A
likely diagnosis of this is:
• F i b r o s a r c o m a
• Neurosarcoma
• Lipoma
• Verruciform xanthoma
• Verruciform xanthoma
164
A 63-year-old completely edentulous patient comes into your office because her
dentures have "finally gotten too bothersome to wear." Her health history
consists of COPD and cigarette 40-year pack history. Your intraoral exam
reveals a noxious odor and an ill-fitting upper denture. When you remove the
upper denture you note multiple red, papillary projections of the hard palate.
Your patient states she does not remove her dentures at night or between meals.
After reviewing denture hygiene instructions, you give her the diagnosis of:
• Epulis fissuratum
• Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
• Nicotinic stomatitis
• Kaposi sarcoma
• Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
165
A 54-year-old African-American female presents to your clinic for an initial
exam. She has a history of hypertension controlled with beta-blockers but no
other contributory health findings. Your intraoral exam reveals a bilateral
filmy opalescence of the buccal mucosa. When stretching out her cheeks, this
white hue disappears. Your most likely diagnosis is:
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Fordyce granulation
• Leukoedema
• Leukoplakia
• Leukoedema
166
A 67-year-old Caucasian male comes into your office for a routine check-up. He
relates to you that he just got back from Florida where he goes for the fall and
winter months. He enjoys taking his boat out with his wife. Your extra-
oral exam shows chapped lips, but his lower lip also presents with grayish-white
plaques. There is a blurring of the vermilion border. Which of the following
would you make your diagnosis:
• Actinic keratosis
• Actinic cheilitis
• Actinic dermatitis
• Solar lentigo
• A c t i n i c cheilitis
167
An incisional biopsy is indicated for which of the following lesions?
• A O.2-cm exostosis of the hard palate
• A 0.2-cm area of Fordyce granules of the cheek
• A 0.3-cm hemangioma of the tongue
• A 0.3-cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate
• A 0.3-cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate
168
You are conducting a routine exam on a 54-year-old patient with diabetes melli-
tus type 2 and a 20-year pack history of smoking. You see a white patch on the
floor of the mouth. The lesion cannot be wiped off and the patient denies a
history of trauma or allergies. Which of the following would be your diagnosis?
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Lichen planus
• Erythroplakia
• Leukoplakia
Leukoplakia
169
A 75-year-old patient comes to your office wanting a new set of dentures. She
hasn't been wearing her old dentures for about 2 years. She has a collapsed
vertical dimension of occlusion and her physician is concerned about her iron
deficiency. The corners of her mouth are fissured, dry, and erythematous. Which
of the following conditions is the likely diagnosis?
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Angular cheilitis
• Verruca vulgaris
• Stomatitis nicotina
• Angular cheilitis -
also called perlèche
170
A 34-year-old male comes into the clinic for an initial exam. Your health history
is noncontributory. The patient presents with bilateral asymptomatic, white,
folded and spongy tissue on the buccal mucosa. There is no history of cheek
biting, and the patient recalls that the lesions have been present as long as he
can remember. You diagnosis is:
• Hyperkeratosis
• Leukoplakia
• Epidermolysis bullosa
• White sponge nevus
• White sponge nevus
171
Hairy tongue is a condition characterized by hypertrophy of the:
• Filiform papillae
• Fungiform papillae
• Circumvallate papillae
• Foliate papillae
• Filiform papillae
172
A 62-year-old African-American female patient presents to your clinic for
routine dental work. Your intraoral exam reveals white, lace-like webbing on the
buccal mucosa. Your patient has never noticed these and they have never caused
her a problem. You suspect the following:
• Lupus erythematosus
• Erythema multiforme
• Pemphigus vulgaris
• Lichen planus
Lichen planus
173
A white patch that, when scraped or removed from the oral mucosa leaves
a raw surface most likely is:
• Leukoplakia
• White sponge nevus
• Candidiasis
• Lichen planus
Candidiasis
174
The "white patch" seen below has been present for 9 months on a patient who
is a heavy pipe smoker. What is the treatment of choice?
Biopsy
175
A 35-year-old healthy female presents to your office for a routine cleaning. While
completing the scaling on the LL quadrant, you notice that her tongue has
multiple irregularly shaped red lesions that have a white border. You make a
note in her chart. When she returns 2 weeks later for the restorative work on the
LR quadrant with the dentist, he notes that there are still lesions, but in
different locations on the tongue with different shapes. What is your diagnosis?
• Fissured tongue
• Macroglossia
• Geographic tongue
• Hairy tongue
• Geographic tongue
