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Year 4 Overview/Random tests > Derm > Flashcards

Derm Flashcards

1
Q

How many Fitzpatrick skin types?

A

1-6

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2
Q

Pattern of sun exposure for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Chronic sun exposure

Precursors: Bowens/Actinic keratosis (Full/partial thickness keratotic dysplasia)

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3
Q

Pattern of sun exposure for basal cell carcinoma?

A

Intermittent damage ?

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4
Q

Treatment options for actinic keratosis?

A

Solase: topical diclofenac first line

Also, more potent: efudix (5-fluoracil) and imiquimod cream

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5
Q

Variant of SCC?

A

Keratoacanthoma - treat as such

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6
Q

What is a dermatofibroma?

A

Hard lump, typically history of trauma, typically insect bite

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7
Q

Types of bullae?

A

Unilocular or multilocular

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8
Q

Common cause of pustules?

A

Unilocular/multilocular

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9
Q

Keloid scar?

A

Grows outwith original scar area

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10
Q

Alopecia in kids?

A

Often an easily treated fungal hair infection

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11
Q

Severe bacterial infection secondary to fungal?

A

Often fungal infection from animals

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12
Q

Function of mast cells?

A

Histamine release

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13
Q

Function of fibroblasts?

A

Collagen production

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14
Q

Langerhans cell

A

Antigen presentation

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15
Q

Melanocyte

A

Protection from UV radiation

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16
Q

Keratinocyte

A

Vitamin D synthesis

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17
Q

Typical description of lichen planus?

A

Flat topped, violaceous papules
Symmetrical - flexor surfaces of wrists and ankles

Wickhams striae: fine white networks, also in buccal mucosa

Itchy

Scalp involvement: skin atrophy and scarring alopecia.

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18
Q

Is lichen Plans associated with atopy?

A

No

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19
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

Linear eruption of lesions form itching/scratching.

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20
Q

Treatment of lichen planus?

A

Topical steroids, PUVA, UVB and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation.

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21
Q

Layers of epidermis?

A 
Keratin
Granular
Prickle cell
Basal
Dermo-epidermal junction
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22
Q

What is necrobiosis lipoidica

A

Associated with diabetes mellitus

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23
Q

Recognised manifestations of endogenous dermatitis?

A

Nodular prurigo
Discoid eczema
Pompholyx

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24
Q

Mycosis fungoides?

A

Form of cutaneous T cell lymphoma

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25
Where is adrenaline contra-indicated?
Fingers, toes and penis | Areas supplied by end arteries
26
Where is keloid scarring most common?
Shoulders, upper back and sternal area
27
Management of Basal Cell Papilloma
Cryotherapy | If unresponsive -> C+C
28
Management of autoimmune skin conditions? EG bullous disease
Immunofluoresence
29
Recurrent BCC or BCC in difficult anatomical sites?
Mohs Surgery
30
Management of Bowen's on shin?
Diagnostic biopsy
31
Widespread, flaccid blisters? Shear off and leave painful erosions Intra-epidermal blistering
Pemphigus vulgaris
32
Pyogenic granuloma - what is it?
In response to trauma - typically on extremities. | Remove surgically to exclude amelanotic melanoma
33
Where is Bowen's disease commonly seen?
Legs of older ladies
34
What kind of alopecia is alopecia areata?
Localised non-scarring with spontaneous regrowth of initially fine white downy hair by 9 months in majority of patients.
35
How to diagnose alopecia areata?
Exclamation mark hairs: short broken hairs seen at edge of enlarging bald areas
36
What is alopecia areata associated with?
Autoimmune thyroid disease, vitiligo and atopy.
37
Suspect fungal infection with alopecia areata? Management
Treat with Wood's lamp
38
What might isotretinoin affect?
Liver function and lipid levels. Does not affect glucose tolerance or thyroid function
39
Side effects of isotretinoin?
Dry skin, eyes and lips. Dry fingers. | Nosebleeds, muscle aches and increased sensitivity to sunlight.
40
Where is the bullous pemphigoid blistering?
sub-epidermal
41
Treatment for bullous pemphigoid?
Systemic steroids/immunosuppression
42
Natural history of bulls pemphigoid?
Spontaneously resolves in around 50% of patients
43
Conditions where oncholysis might be present?
Psoriasis, thyrotoxicosis, infection, trauma, raynauds. | Hypo/hyperthyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
44
Nail changes in psoriasis?
Pitting, oncholysis and subungual hyperkeratosis (symmetrical)
45
Common differential for oncholysis?
onychomycosis
46
Cause of cold sores?
Herpes simplex
47
Cold sores precipitants?
UV exposure (immunosuppressive), URTI, menstruation, stress etc
48
Chronic urticaria - hallmark from history?
'Moves around' Individual lesions resolve within 24 hours
49
Cut off for acute vs chronic urticaria?
6 weeks
50
Normal PUVA administration?
Psoralen taken 2 hours before (orally) or applied immediately (topically) Twice weekly treatments Wear photo protective glasses for 2 hours after psoralen due to cataract risk
51
Contraindications to PUVA?
Methotrexate/cyclosporin -> increased carcinogen risk
52
Common side effect of psoralens?
Nausea
53
Is compression bandaging safe if ABPI is more than 1.4
No | May indicate calcification.
54
Do retinoids require LFTs etc done before treatment?
Yes
55
Typical response time to systemic antibiotics in acne?
6-8 weeks
56
Roacutane and scarring
Not great
57
Mechanism of action re: dianette in acne?
Reduces sebum production via anti-androgen effects
58
Commonest skin tumour
Basal cell carcinoma
59
Variants of BCC?
Nodular, pigmented, morphealike and superficial
60
'stuck-on' well defined border and warty?
Sebborheic wart
61
Manifestations of endogenous dermatitis?
Nodular prurigo Pompholyx Discoid eczema
62
What is mycosis fungoides?
Form of cutaneous T cell lymphoma
63
Most common drug eruption?
exanthematous or morbiliform eruption
64
Impetigo causative organism?
Staph aureus/beta-haemolytic strep
65
Typical precipitant of guttate psoriasis?
Strep throat infection
66
Differential of guttate psoriasis?
Pityriasis rosacea
67
IMF of cutaneous discoid lupus erythematosus?
Immunofluorescene: presence of autoantibodies
68
ABPI for full compression
0.8 or above
69
Non-sedating antihistamines only useful for itch in which conditions?
Insect bite | Urticaria
70
Herald patch?
Single patch preceding pityriasis rosea
71
Allergy to thiuram?
Rubber accelerator products
72
Most appropriate initial treatment of plaque psoriasis?
Vit D analogue
73
Do atypical naevi have more malignant potential?
Yes and extends to normal skin
74
Max isotretinoin dose with PUVA?
Around 20mg

Year 4 Overview/Random tests (11 decks)

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