Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SBL Week 4/5 > Dermatologic Pharm > Flashcards

Dermatologic Pharm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

What are creams made of?

What are ointments made of?

A

1) Half water/half oil with emulsifier so water evaporates

2) 20% water in 80% oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do creams absorb?

How do ointments absorb?

A

1) Well absorb and wash off with water

2) Stay on surface of skin and not well absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Between ointments and creams, which product is better for dry skin?

Which product is better for oozing/wet skin conditions?

A

1) Ointments

2) Creams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Between creams or ointments which provides for more complete absorption of the active ingredient or medication?

Which is less likely to cause an allergic reaction?

A

Ointments for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the single most important measure to reduce transmission of microorganisms to other areas of body or other patients?

A

Hand Hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long should you wash your hands for?

A

15-30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is alcohol-based hand disinfection not effective against?

What should be used instead?

A

1) C. difficile

2) Soap and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Emollients are a component of moisturizer that does what?

What do humectants do?

What do horny substance (keratin) softeners do?

A

1) Forms an oily layer on top of the skin that traps water in the skin
2) Draws water into the outer layer of the skin
3) Loosens the bonds between the top layer of cells to help dead skin cells fall off, helps the skin retain water, and gives it a smoother, softer feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Petrolatum, lanolin, mineral oil and dimethicone are common?

Glycerin, lecithin, and propylene glycol are common?

Urea, alpha hydroxy acids (e.g., lactic, citric, glycolic), and allantoin are common?

A

1) Emollients
2) Humectants
3) Horny substance (keratin) softeners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For what skin type do you want to choose a water based moisturizer that has a light, non greasy feel and contain lightweight oils, such as cetyl alcohol, or silicone-derived ingredients, such as cyclomethicone?

A

Normal skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For what skin type do you want to choose a heavier, oil based moisturizer that contains ingredients such as antioxidants, grape seed oil or dimethicone?

What are preferable for severe cases of this skin type?

A

1) Dry skin

2) Petrolatum-based products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For what skin type do you want to choose a water-based product that is labeled “non-comedogenic”?

What is the use of these products for?

A

1) Oily skin

2) Provide moisture while limiting acne breakouts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For what skin type do you want to choose a moisturizer with chamomile or aloe that does not contain potential allergens (e.g., fragrances, dyes) or acids?

A

Sensitive skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For what skin type do you want to choose an oil-based moisturizer that contains petrolatum as the base plus antioxidants or alpha hydroxy acids?

What are the antioxidants or alpha hydroxy acids used for?

A

1) Mature skin

2) Combat wrinkles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What causes most erythema/sunburn, skin aging and photocarcinogenesis?

What causes skin aging and cancer?

A

1) UVB radiation (280-320 nm)

2) UVA radiation (320-400 nm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What sunscreen compound is active in UVB range?

A

p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What sunscreen compound has a wider 250-360 nm range but less effective than PABA?

A

Benzophenones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What sunscreen compound is active in UVA range?

What conditions is it particularly useful for?

A

1) Dibenzoylmethane

2) Drug-induced photosensitivity and cutaneous lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which antiseptics MOA involves the cross-linking of proteins?

What is its target?

A

1) Glutaraldehyde

2) Cell envelope and cross-linked macromolecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which antiseptics MOA damages phospholipid bilayers?

What is its target?

A

1) Quaternary amines

2) Inner cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antiseptics MOA affects membrane integrity and congealing of cytoplasm?

What is its target?

A

1) Chlorhexidine

2) Inner cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which antiseptics MOA causes oxidation of thiol groups to disulfides, sulfoxides or disulfoxides?

What is its target?

A

1) Halogens

2) Oxidizing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which antiseptics MOA causes formation of free hydroxyl radicals to oxidize thiol groups in enzymes and proteins?

What is its target?

A

1) Hydrogen peroxide

2) Oxidizing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which antiseptics MOA causes disruption of thiol groups in proteins?

What is its target?

A

1) Peracetic acid

2) Oxidizing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent widely used in homes and hospitals due to general efficacy on skin (including oral mucosa) and low irritability?

A

Chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which type of microorganism does chlorhexidine not kill but instead prevents its growth?

Which type cause protoplast and spheroplast lysis and at high concentrations cause precipitation of proteins and nucleic acids?

Which type causes protoplast lysis and intracellular leakage, high concentrations cause intracellular coagulation?

A

1) Bacterial spores and mycobacteria
2) Non-sporulating bacteria
3) Yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

While chlorhexidine has low activity against many viruses, it is more sensitive to which type?

A

Lipid enveloped viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does chlorhexidine affect the activity against protozoa?

A

Affects trophozoites but not protozoa in cystic form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What effect does antiseptics and disinfectants have on cryptosporidium, Bacillus, and C. Difficile?

A

None, b/c they’re resistant to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What effect does antibiotics have on biofilms?

A

1) Limited penetration
2) Antibiotic neutralization
3) Slow growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is the use of antiseptic wash solutions such as dilute iodine, chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide generally not necessary?

When should antibiotic therapy be reserved for?

A

1) Potentially impede wound healing through toxic effects on normal tissue
2) Infected wounds

32
Q

In primary closure of surgical wounds in high-risk patients, poor control of what is significantly associated with worse outcomes?

A

Glycemic control

33
Q

What type of debridement should be routine since it flushes bacteria and removes loose material?

What type is appropriate for removing large areas of necrotic/infected tissue?

What type uses products such as collagenase to promote endothelial cell and keratinocyte migration for angiogenesis and epithelialization?

What type uses maggot therapy which results in liquefaction of necrotic tissue while leaving healthy tissue intact?

A

1) Low-pressure irrigation with normal saline
2) Surgical debridement
3) Enzymatic debridement
4) Biologic debridement

34
Q

What platelet derived growth factor is used in wound healing because it promotes cell proliferation and angiogenesis?

A

Becaplermin

35
Q

What is becaplermin the only agent approved for?

A

Treatment of chronic diabetic foot ulcers

36
Q

What does becaplermin have a black box warning for?

A

Malignancy

37
Q

What are the general principles for wound dressings?

How do occluded wounds heal?

A

1) Wounds should be kept moist, and should not be exposed to air
2) Heal faster and have less scarring

38
Q

During wound dressing, what should be used for the debridement stage?

What’s used for the granulation stage?

What’s used for the epithelialization stage?

A

1) Hydrogels
2) Foam and low-adherence dressings
3) Hydrocolloid and low-adherence dressings

39
Q

What topical antibacterial agent inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

What bacteria is it active against?

A

1) Bacitracin

2) Gram positive

40
Q

What topical antibacterial agent binds to 30S ribosomal subunit to inhibit protein synthesis?

What bacteria is it active against?

A

1) Neomycin

2) Gram negative

41
Q

What topical antibacterial agent binds to phosphor-lipids to alter permeability and damage bacterial cytoplasmic membrane?

What bacteria is it active against?

A

1) Polymyxin B

2) Gram negative

42
Q

What blocks ergosterol synthesis and has a wide range of activity against dermatophytes and yeasts?

A

Topical imidazoles

43
Q

What imidazole antifungal is a topical application as a cream or lotion used for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Which is used for onychomycosis treatment?

Which is a cream for topical treatment of dermatophytosis and candidiasis, and is a shampoo or foam for seborrheic dermatitis?

A

1) Miconazole and Clotrimazole
2) Efinaconazole
3) Ketoconazole

44
Q

Which topical antifungal agent disrupts macromolecular synthesis?

How does it affect dermatophytes, Candida and Malassezia?

A

1) Ciclopirox

2) Affects them all

45
Q

Which topical antifungal agent inhibits squalene epoxidase, a key enzyme for the synthesis of ergosterol?

How does it affect dermatophytes and yeasts?

A

1) Terbinafine

2) Highly active against dermatophytes but less active against yeasts

46
Q

Which topical antifungal agent distorts hyphae/stunts mycelial growth?

How does it affect dermatophytes, Candida and Malassezia?

A

1) Tolnaftate

2) Effective against various dermatophyte and malassezia infections but not Candida

47
Q

Which topical antifungal agent binds to fungal sterols and alters membrane permeability?

How does it affect Candida?

A

1) Nystatin and Amphotericin B

2) Limited to cutaneous and mucosal candida infections

48
Q

Which topical antiviral agent is a synthetic guanine analog with inhibitory activity against herpes simplex types 1 and 2?

A

Acyclovir

49
Q

Topical calcineurin inhibitors are particularly useful in what type of pruritus?

A

Anogenital pruritus

50
Q

Capsaicin and lidocaine patches are particularly useful in what type of pruritus?

A

Neuropathic pruritus

51
Q

Pramoxine is useful for what type of pruritus?

A

Pruritus on face and that associated with CKD

52
Q

What channel does the topical therapy for pruritus capsaicin activate?

What does menthol activate?

A

1) TRPV1 (heat)

2) TRPM8 (cold)

53
Q

What does capsaicin do?

A

1) Releases substance P

2) Induces lasting desensitization

54
Q

What is salicylic acid?

A

COX inhibitor

55
Q

Mirtazapine is useful for what type of pruritus?

A

Nocturnal pruritus

56
Q

Sertraline is useful for what type of pruritus?

A

Cholestatic pruritus

57
Q

Naltrexone is useful for what type of pruritus?

A

Cholestatic and CKD associated pruritus

58
Q

Butorphanol is useful for what type of pruritus?

A

Nocturnal and intractable pruritus

59
Q

Gabapentin and pregabalin are useful for what type of pruritus?

A

Neuropathic pruritus

60
Q

What does brimonidine and oxymetazoline treat?

What is each an agonist of?

A

1) Rosacea

2) Alpha 2

61
Q

Which topical agent is used to treat ectoparasitic infections by acting as an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor?

Which topical agent is used to treat ectoparasitic infections by binding to insect Na+ channels and blocking membrane repolarization?

Which oral agent is used to treat ectoparasitic infections by binding to glutamate-gated Cl- channels in invertebrates, hyperpolarizes the nerve and muscle cells?

Which topical agent is used to treat ectoparasitic infections by disrupting GABAergic transmission in insects?

A

1) Malathion
2) Permethrin
3) Ivermectin
4) Lindane

62
Q

What topical acne medication causes local skin irritation, dryness, flaking, sun sensitivity, and may cause an allergic reaction to fish?

What category of acne medication is it?

A

1) Tretinoin

2) Retinoid

63
Q

What topical acne medication causes local skin irritation and may bleach hair or clothes?

What category of acne medication is it?

A

1) Benzoyl peroxide

2) Antimicrobial

64
Q

What acne medication kills acne bacteria and decreases the production of keratin?

A

Azelaic acid

65
Q

What acne medication is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Oral isotretinoin

66
Q

What is the MOA for retinoid in acne treatment?

A

1) Decreased cohesiveness of keratinocytes

2) Reduced follicular occlusion and microcomedone formation

67
Q

What is the initial choice for mild to moderate psoriasis?

What are the initial choices for moderate to severe psoriasis?

A

1) Emollients and corticosteroids

2) UVB and PUVA

68
Q

What is the MOA of apremilast?

What are its effects?

What are its clinical applications?

How is it administered?

A

1) Inhibits PDE4 which increase cAMP levels
2) Decrease NO synthase, TNF-alpha, IL-23 while increasing IL-10
3) Plaque psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
4) Orally

69
Q

What is the MOA of ustekinumab?

What are its clinical applications?

What toxicity may it cause?

A

1) Blunts IL-12 and IL-23 effects
2) Plaque psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
3) Increases risk for infections

70
Q

What is the MOA for secukinumab?

What are its clinical applications?

What toxicity may it cause?

A

1) Blunts IL-17A effects
2) Plaque psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
3) Increases risk for infections

71
Q

What treatment option for Actinic Keratosis inhibits thymidylate synthetase in order to blunt DNA synthesis of fast-growing dysplastic cells?

A

Topical 5-Fluorouracil

72
Q

What is the conventional chemotherapy for treating melanoma?

A

Dacarbazine

73
Q

What MAP kinase pathway inhibitors is used to treat melanoma with BRAF v600D gene mutation?

A

Vemurafenib

74
Q

What treatment for male pattern baldness causes vasodilation due to K+ -channel opening?

A

Minoxidil

75
Q

What treatment for male pattern baldness is an oral inhibitor of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) production?

A

Finasteride

76
Q

What is the treatment for Alopecia Areata?

A

1) Topical corticosteroids

2) Topical immunotherapy such as DPCP (diphenylcyclopropenone)

SBL Week 4/5 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions