Dermatology, Infectious Diseases + Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is Stevens-Johnson syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis)?

A

-usually a reaction to medication (usually amoxicillins) that starts with flu-like symptoms (fever, sore throat etc), followed by a painful rash that spreads and blisters. Then the top layer of affected skin dies, sheds and begins to heal after several days (looks like a burn)

-Nikolsky’s sign = rubbing the skin makes it shed
-type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
-can affect genitals and mouth mucosal membranes
-if 10% of body is affected then it’s steven-johnson but if >30% then it’s toxic epidermal necrolysis

–>fluids, creams, anti-inflammatories, potentially abx, painkillers

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2
Q

What are verucas and what is the treatment?

A

warts caused by a virus on the feet, fingers, hands, palms, knuckles and knees

usually no treatment and should slowly fade within months or about 2 years for one flare up

treatment for long term is first topical salicylic acid (15-50%) for 12 weeks and then potentially cryotherapy if you need

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3
Q

What is the difference between psoriasis and pityriasis rosea?

A

Psoriasis is a chronic, autoimmune condition that it is possible to manage but not cure—> can be seen at the site of injuries healing

Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition without a known cause and lasts about 6-8 weeks. A single pink or red oval patch of scaly skin, called the herald patch”

treatment for both: steroids, vit D, phototherapy

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4
Q

What is impetigo?

A

a staph aureus skin infection which forms fluid-filled vesicles around the mouth (NOT in the mouth like hand, foot and mouth disease) and nose which burst dry to form a “golden crust”

can be seen on tummy as blisters

—> hydrogen peroxide cream or topical fusidic acid if can’t have the cream

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5
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

also known as ‘Spinal tuberculosis’ and is the commonest extrapulmonary manifestation of TB spreading to spine from the lungs via blood.

usually the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae

kyphotic deformity of the spine, gradual back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss, spinal cord compression symptoms

x-ray, MRI, blood cultures, Mantoux Tuberculin skin tests (results are positive in 84-95% of the patients having Pott’s disease)

treatment: anti-tubercular chemotherapy (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol), external bracing and rest

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6
Q

What is the blood test for diagnosing syphillis?

A

non-treponemal test

can also get a treponemal test which is more specific

causes of false positive non-treponemal test:
pregnancy
SLE
TB
leprosy
malaria
HIV

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7
Q

What are the SS+ RNA viruses?

A

Yellow fever (high LFTs and troponin)
dengue
HepC
HIV

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8
Q

What is the first line treatment for:
chlamydia
gonorrhoea
Trichomonas vaginalis/bacterial vaginosis
Syphilis

A

Chlamydia = doxycycline but azithromycin in pregnancy

gonorrhoea = IM ceftriaxone

Trichomonas vaginalis (GREEN and STRAWBERRY CERVIX)/bacterial vaginosis (WHITE and FISHY)= oral metronidazole but if women have BV and are asymptomatic then no abx unless termination of pregnancy

Syphilis is treated using IM benzathine penicillin

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9
Q

What can cause guillan-barré syndrome and how do you treat it?

A

campylocater —> symmetrical weakness in lower limbs
diplopia
diarrhoea
urinary retention

LUMBAR PUNCTURE- isolated HIGH protein in CSF
nerve conduction studies

—> IV immunoglobulins

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10
Q

What is congenital dermal melanocytosis?

A

also known as Mongolion Blue Spots” - blue/grey spots/birthmarkususally on the base of the back/buttocks from birth but fade by teen years and can be lasered

common among people of Asian

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11
Q

What is an Angel’s kiss”?”

A

Known as a Stork bite (nevus simplex) or salmon patch

newborn birthmarks that are pink/red that fade completely within a couple of months and are not harmful

nape of neck, neck, eyelids, forehead, under the nose, on top of the head or lower back

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12
Q

What is Coombs test?

A

Checks blood for antibodies

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13
Q

What are the different type of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

ACID

type 1: Anaphylactic: IgE

type 2: Cytotoxic: IgG/M

type 3: Immune complex: IgG/A

type 4: Delayed hypersensitivity: T-cell: scabies, Guillian Barre, multiple sclerosis, tuberculosis, dermatitis

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14
Q

What is the difference between melasma and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

both have the butterfly pattern across face

melasma = hyperpigmentation

SLE = inflammatory (red)

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15
Q

What is the first line therapy for cellulitis?

A

Oral flucloxacillin

Severe OR NEAR EYES OR NOSE: IV co-amoxiclav

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16
Q

What is the treatment for the different types of infectious diarrhoea:
-campylobacter
-C.diff
-salmonella
-salmonella TYPHI/PARATYPHI (typhoid fever)
-Verocyto-toxic e.coli bacteria
-cholera
-giardia lamblia
-cryptosporidium

A

campylobacter = erythromycin –> guillian-barre + arthritis

C.diff (usually from over-use of abx usually starting with C or OEMEPRAZOLE) = oral vancomycin - 125mg 4 times a day for 10 days (+ IV metronidazole in life threatening situ)
if vanc doesn’t work try fidaxomicin

salmonella = no abx unless it is very severe (immunocompromised, children under 6months etc) then give Ciprofloxacin or cefotaxime

salmonella T/P = Ceftriaxone or Azithromycin –> cough, constipation, ‘rose spots’ on trunk in paratyphoid and yellow green ‘pea-soup’ diarrhoea in typhi

Verocyto-toxic e.coli bacteria = fluids and NO ABX

cholera = fluids and vaccine

giardia lamblia = metronidazole

cryptosporidium = no treatment unless have AIDS and give HAART treatment

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17
Q

What is the treatment for vitiligo and what conditions is it associated with?

A

Associated with:
type 1 diabetes, Addison’s, alopecia

management:
-sunblock for affected areas of skin
camouflage make up
-topical corticosteroids may reverse the changes if applied early
-there may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients

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18
Q

What is rosacea and the treatment for it?

A

chronic skin disease

typically affects nose, cheeks and forehead
flushing is often first symptomt
elangiectasia are common
rhinophyma
ocular involvement: blepharitis
sunlight may exacerbate symptoms

-topical brimonidine gel = redness and flushing
-topical ivermectin = pustules
-topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline = very severe pustules
-daily application of a high factor sunscreen
-laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia
-patients with a rhinophyma should be referred to dermatology

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19
Q

What is an Escharotomy?

A

emergency surgical procedure involving incising through areas of burnt skin to release the eschar and its constrictive effects, restore distal circulation, and allow adequate ventilation

used in bad 3rd degree burns that present with the 6P’s

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20
Q

What is pityriasis versicolor (tinea versicolor)?

A

superficial cutaneous fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur

most commonly affects trunk
patches may be hypopigmented, pink or brown (hence versicolor)
May be more noticeable following a suntan
mild pruritus (itchy) or coming back from a holiday abroad

treatment:
-topical antifungal e.g. ketoconazole shampoo
-if failure to respond to topical treatment then consider alternative diagnoses (e.g. send scrapings to confirm the diagnosis) + oral itraconazole

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21
Q

What abx are usually given for intrabdominal infections?

A

AMG

amoxicillin, metronidazole, gentamicin

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22
Q

What is the difference between venous ulcers and arterial ulcers?

A

Venous ulcers = usually medial malleolus

Arterial ulcers = usually lateral malleolus, toes and top of feet

management –> compression bandaging if ABPI > 0.8

a ABPI < 0.5 = limb ischaemia

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23
Q

What is glandular fever?

A

caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV, also known as human herpesvirus 4, HHV-4 and infectious mononucleosis)

diagnosed by monospot test

-The classic triad of sore throat, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy
-splenomegaly occurs in around 50% of patients and may rarely predispose to splenic rupture
-palatal petechiae
-maculopapular prutitic rash when take amoxicillin and didn’t know had EBV

-supportive management
-avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture

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24
Q

What is the treatment for scabies?

A

permethrin cream keep on for 8-12 hours and then wash off. Repeat treatment 7 days later

post-scabietic itch with crotamiton cream

All members of their household, their sexual partners within the past month, and any other close personal contacts (even if asymptomatic) should also be treated

bedding, clothing, and towels (and those of all potentially infested contacts) should be decontaminated

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25
Q

What is guttate psoriasis?

A

more common in children and adolescents.

It may be precipitated by a streptococcal infection 2-4 weeks prior to the lesions appearing.

tear drop papules on the trunk and limbs

most cases resolve spontaneously within 2-3 months

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26
Q

What is the treatment for Pyoderma gangrenosum and what GI condition is it associated with?

A

oral steroids e.g. prednisolone

associated with IBD + Crohn’s

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27
Q

What is Urticaria?

A

local or generalised superficial swelling of the skin.

The most common cause of urticaria is allergy although non-allergic causes are seen.

can be caused by aspirin

pale, pink raised skin
‘hives’, ‘wheals’, ‘nettle rash’
pruritic

treatment:
non-sedating antihistamines are first-line e.g. loratadine
prednisolone is used for severe or resistant episodes

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28
Q

What is the treatment for acne vulgaris?

A

Mild: open and closed comedones
Moderate: non-inflammatory lesions and papules and pustules
Severe: inflammatory lesions, nodules, scarring (needs referral to derm)

Mild/moderate: 12 weeks of:
-topical adapalene with benzoyl peroxide
-topical tretinoin with topical clindamycin
-topical benzoyl peroxide with topical clindamycin

Moderate/severe: 12 weeks of:
-same as above + oral doxycycline (never an abx by itself)
-COCP
-oral isotretinoin: REFER to derm

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29
Q

What is Schistomiasis (Bilharzia)?

A

parasitic worm infection in infected fresh water

swimmers’ itch
Katayama fever- fever, urticaria, cough, diarrhoea
blood in urine or pain passing urine

can give praziquantel

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30
Q

What is the test for latent TB?

A

Mantoux test

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31
Q

What are the most common causes of BACTERIAL meningitis?

A

0-3 months = group B strep

3 months - 6 years = neisseria

6 years - 60 years = neisseria

> > 60 years = strep pneumoniae

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32
Q

What are the incubation periods for staph aureus, bacillus, salmonella, E.coli, shigella, campylobacter, giardiasis and ameobiasis regarding diarrhoea?

A

staph aureus + bacillus = 1-6hrs

salmonella + E.coli (most common in travellers) = 12-48hrs

shigella + campylobacter = 48-72hrs

giardiasis + ameobiasis = more than 7 days

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33
Q

What are the differences between Hep A, B, C, D and E?

A

A- faecal/oral spread (gay sex), RUQ pain, jaundice, vaccine for travellers/chronic liver disease/gay/IV drug/sewage and lab workers

B- body fluids from mother to child, fever, haundice, ‘ground glass’ hepatocytes, vaccine for children, healthcare workers, sex workers, hep B family, IV drug users, chronic kidney + liver disease–> managed by pegylated interferon-alpha

C- needles/blood from mother to child or IV drug users, fatigue, jaundice, arthralgia, NO vaccine –> treat with ribavirin

D- like hep B

E- faecal/oral spread, undercooked pork, mostly common in pregnancy and no vaccine yet

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34
Q

What is red man syndrome?

A

an ADR of giving rapid IV vancomycin

redness, pruritus, burning sensation, usually in upper body

stop giving IV vancomycin and when symptoms resolve then RESTART at a slower rate

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35
Q

What is syphilis?

A

PAINLESS ulcer (unlike chancroid which is painful- think of Ls)
lymph node enlargement feversrash on trunk, palms and soles
buccal ‘snail track’ ulcers Hutchinson teeth is a sign of congenital syphilis

treated with IM benzathine penicillin

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36
Q

What abx is recommended for animal bites and human bites?

A

co-amoxiclav

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37
Q

Whats the most common cause of central line infections?

A

staph epidermidis

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38
Q

What is dengue fever?

A

viral infection –> progress to haemorrhagic fever

fever
headache (often retro-orbital)
myalgia, bone pain and arthralgia (‘break-bone fever’)
pleuritic pain
facial flushing (dengue)

supportive treatment

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39
Q

What is Chancroid?

A

painful genital ulcers with UNILATERAL painful lymph node enlargement

treat with azithromycin

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40
Q

Who should be offered the influenza vaccine?

A

over 65 OR with:

-chronic resp (asthma who use inhaled steroids/COPD/cystic fibrosis), kidney (stages 3/4/5), liver, neuro and heart disease
-diabetes
-immunosuppressed
-splenic dysfunction
-pregnant
-healthcare workers

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41
Q

What is Botulism?

A

from tinned contaminated food or IV drug use

patient usually fully conscious with no sensory disturbance
flaccid paralysis (Tetnus has facial spasms rathen than paralysis)
diplopia
ataxia
bulbar palsy

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42
Q

What is the treatment for MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

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43
Q

What is the treatment for genital warts?

A

Topical podophyllum (multiple warts) or cryotherapy (single warts)

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44
Q

What is Trypanosomiasis?

A

protozoal diseasetwo types:
African (sleeping sickness) and American (Chagas’)

African:
-painless subcut nodule at site
-intermittent fever and lymph nodes
-headaches, mood changes–> treat with IV pentamidine for acute and IV melarsoprol for chronic

American:
-red nodule at site
-periorbital oedema
-myocarditis
-GI features: megaoesophagus and megacolon–> treat with benznidazole for acute

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45
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

common benign skin lesion- seen in hand surgery

seen in trauma, pregnancy and more common in women and young adults

Features:
most common sites are head/neck, upper trunk and hands.
Lesions in the oral mucosa are common in pregnancy
initially small red/brown spot
rapidly progress within days to weeks forming raised, red/brown lesions which are often spherical in shape
the lesions may bleed profusely or ulcerate

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46
Q

If someone has a negative HIV test when they are asymptomatic, what should you do and what are the tests?

A

repeat test at 12 weeks

HIV antibody and p24 antigen

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47
Q

What is Pneumocystis jiroveci/carinii penumonia?

A

in HIV patients, dyspnoea, dry cough, fever

causes exercise induced desaturation

give trimoxazole and ALL patients with a CD4 less than 200 should be given PCP prophylaxis

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48
Q

What is Jarisch Herxheimer reaction (JHR)?

A

after giving abx patients get infected by spirochetes: syphilis, Lyme disease and fever

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49
Q

What is the most common cause of travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

E.coli

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50
Q

What drugs are used to treat TB and what are the side effects?

A

RIPE for the first 2 months and then just RI for the next 4 months

Rifampicin = turns urine and tears orange

Isoniazid = peripheral neuropathy (numbness and tingling) –> treat with B6 pyridoxine

Pyrazinamide: gout, arthralgia, hepatitis

Ethambutol: optic neuritis

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51
Q

What is the treatment for genital herpes and how do you diagnose it?

A

HERPES is usually fluid filled unlike warts

oral aciclovir (even in pregnancy until delivery but must also have a C-section if have a flare up)

use the nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

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52
Q

What is anthrax (Woolsorters’ disease)?

A

four types: skin, lungs, intestinal and injection

painless black blister
GI bleeding

give ciprofloxacin

53
Q

What can Herpes 8 cause?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV patients

RAISED PURPLE LESIONS or plaques on the skin or mucosa which may ulceratere

spiratory involvement may cause massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion

radiotherapy + resection

54
Q

Who should be offered the pneumococcal vaccine?

A

over 65 OR with:

-chronic resp (asthma who use inhaled steroids/COPD/cystic fibrosis), kidney (stage 4/5), liver, neuro and heart disease (not if controlled hypertension)
-diabetes
-immunosuppressed (HIV)
-splenic dysfunction
-cochlear implants
-cerebrospinal fluid leaks

55
Q

How is malaria diagnosed and what symptoms would point towards malaria?

A

thick and thin blood smear test

fever on alternating days

56
Q

What is the treatment of HIV?

A

Oral antiretrovirals for 4 weeks

2 NRTI (zidovudine- can cause peripheral neuropathy and black nails) and 1 NNRTI (nevirapine)

57
Q

What is Lyme disease?

A

caused by borrelia burgdorferi by TICKS

‘bulls-eye’ rash: 1-4 weeks after bite
painless
headache, lethargy, fever

remove tick
ONLY confirmed LYME disease by antibody (ELISA) test: doxycycline

58
Q

What is diphteria?

A

-sore throat
-GREY pharyngeal wall
-‘bull’ neck = enlarged lymph nodes
-recent visits to East europe/russia/asia
-heart block

throat swab can diagnose

give IM penicillin and diphtheria antitoxin

59
Q

What is slapped cheek syndrome?

A

caused by the parvovirus B19

rose-red rash on cheeks and may spread to rest of body

no specific treatment and do not need to be off school needed

60
Q

What is amoebiasis and what is the difference between this and giardiasis?

A

gradual onset of bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain and TENESMUS
lasts for WEEKS

giardiasis is non-bloody

61
Q

What is Leprosy (Hansen’s disease)?

A

disease affecting peripheral nerves and skin

-hypopigmented skin affecting bum, face and extensor surfaces of limbs
-sensory loss

treat with triple therapy: rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine

62
Q

What can eating undercooked/reheated rice?

A

Can give you B.cereus- food poisoning

63
Q

What is cytomegalovirus (CMV)?

A

herpes virus

‘owl’s eye’ appearance on histology

types:
-congenital: blueberry muffin skin lesions, seizures, growth retardation, sensorineural deafness
-retinitis: seen in HIV patients, blurred vision ‘pizza’ retina –> give IV ganciclovir

64
Q

What is tetanus, also known as lockjaw?

A

spores in soil and may get into a wound
seen in IV drug users

fever, lethargy, headache
neck and jaw muscles lock unable to move
facial spasms
opsithotonus: arched back and hyperextended neck

supportive therapy, vaccine and immunoglobulins

tetanus vaccine is part of routine immunisation: 5 doses

only give a tetanus shot in a wound due to animal bites/scratches, soil, severe burns, gardening injuries etc:
-vaccine history is unknown
-last dose vaccine more than 10 years ago

65
Q

What is Leishmaniasis?

A

spread by bites of sandflies in the tropics, subtropics and southern europe

crusting of site and may be underlying ulcer

give an antifungal

66
Q

What are some features of pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

rapid onset
fever
chest pain
herpes labialis (cold sores)

67
Q

What is ‘hot tub’ folliculitis?

A

contaminated water on someone’s skin for a long time causes a ‘hot tub’ rash

caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa

68
Q

What must a patient take after a splenectomy?

A

Penicillin prophylaxis for a minimum of 2 years

69
Q

What can cause erythema nodosum?

A

Pregnancy
TB
sarcoidosis

70
Q

What are the incubation times of chlamydia, gonorrhoea and syphilis?

A

gonorrhoea = 2-5 days
chlamydia = 7-21 days
syphilis = 9-90 days

71
Q

What are the different types of dermatitis and how are they treated:
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Contact dermatitis
Nickel dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis = associated with coeliac’s, on extensor surfaces (elbows, knees, bum), skin biopsy if IgA –> gluten free diet, dapsone

Contact dermatitis =
1) irritant: on hands
2) allergic: often seen on head after hair dye, weeping eczema –> topical steroid

Nickel dermatitis = caused by jewellery –> skin patch test

Periorificial dermatitis = perioral, perinasal and periocular region, looks like acne or rosacea, woman 20-45years –> topical/oral abx

72
Q

What is Q fever?

A

caused by Coxiella burnetiisource of infection is typically an abattoir, cattle/sheep or it may be inhaled from infected dust

Features typically produce: fever, malaise, causes pyrexia of unknown origin, transaminitis atypical pneumoniaendocarditis (culture-negative)–> doxycycline

73
Q

What is lichen sclerosus vs lichen planus?

A

Sclerosus:
-inflammatory condition affecting genitalia and more common in females (elderly)
-white patches
-itchy
-pain during intercourse or urination
–> topical steroids and emollients

PLANUS:
purple, pruritic, papular
–> topical steroids

74
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

skin infection usually seen in children and can be very contagious

pinky or pearly white papules with central umbilication

usually NOT seen on palms of hands and soles of feet

no need to be off school and usually no treatment needed

75
Q

In dermatology, what can the presence of milia like clouds (MILK SPOTS) suggest?

A

these are tiny white dots on the area of skin that is affected

can suggest basal cell carcinoma (BCC) and rarely seborrhoeic keratosis

76
Q

What is seborrheic keratosis?

A

benign skin lesion seen in older peoplecan be flesh coloured to light-brown/black

have a ‘stuck on’ appearance

keratotic plugs may be seen on the surfacere

assurance and removal

77
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid?

A

autoimmune (BP180 OR BP230) sub-epidermal blistering of the skinseen in the elderly

itchy, tense blisters typically around flexures
the blisters usually heal without scarring

immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction

refer to derm -> biopsy and steroids

78
Q

What are most itchy rashes under the armpit and around the groin most likely to be?

A

fungal skin infection

these areas are moist, warm areas

antifungal cream e.g. canesten
check glucose to exclude diabetes

79
Q

In terms of site, what is the difference between psoriasis and eczema?

A

psoriasis = scalp, elbows, knees, bum, face

eczema = back of knees, inside of elbows

80
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

dry, dark patches of skin that usually appear in the armpits, neck or groin

linked to gastro adenocarcinoma

caused by T2 DM, PCOS, hypothyroidism, Cushing’s and taking steroids

81
Q

What is keratosis pilaris (chicken skin)?

A

skin on back of upper arms
usually becomes rough and bumpy

gets better on own
moisturise skin with emollients

82
Q

In patients with psoriasis, how long should the break be between topical steroids?

A

4 weeks

83
Q

What is actinic keratoses?

A

skin lesions due to chronic sun exposure

sun exposed areas
pink, red or brown

suncream
fluorouracil cream
crytotherapy
cautery

84
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2

-rapidly progressing painful rash
-commonly seen in children with atopic eczema
-monomorphic punched out circular, depressed, lesions

life threatening –> children should be admitted for IV aciclovir

85
Q

What is the difference between plaque psoriasis and flexural psoriasis and what can exacerbate this?

A

flexural is smooth skin and plaque is red scaly

Beta blockers make Plaque psoriasis worse

Lithium can make any psoriasis worse

86
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

skin lesions that appear at the site of injury

seen in psoriasis

87
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

FLAKY DANDRUFF

eczematous lesions on the sebum-rich areas: scalp (may cause dandruff), periorbital, auricular and nasolabial foldsotitis externa and blepharitis may develop

associated with HIV and Parkinsons

management:
-scalp = zinc pyrithione (Head and Shoulders)
-face and body = antifungals e.g. ketoconazole

88
Q

What is ringworm (tinea)?

A

tinea capitis (scalp):
-scarring alopecia seen in children
-pustular spongy mass called a kerion may form
-most commonly caused by trichophyton tonsurans or by microsporum canis from cats or dogs–> oral antifungals e.g. terbinafine and also topical ketoconazole shampoo for 2 weeks

tinea corporis (ringworm):
-caused by trichophyton rubrum and verrucosum from cattle
-well defined annular erythematous lesions with pustules and papules–> oral fluconzaole

89
Q

What is athlete’s foot (tinea pedis)?

A

scaling, flaking and itching between the toes due to a fungi

–> topical imidazole

90
Q

When should you admit burns?

A

all deep dermal and full-thickness burnssuperficial dermal burns of more than 3% TBSA in adults, or more than 2% TBSA in children

superficial dermal burns involving the face, hands, feet, perineum, genitalia, or any flexure, or circumferential burns of the limbs, torso, or neck

any inhalation injuryany electrical or chemical burn injury

suspicion of non-accidental injury

91
Q

What is a potential difference between lipomas and liposarcomas?

A

usually mobile painless lumph

owever if more than 5cm then ultrasound to rule out a liposarcoma

92
Q

What is shingles?

A

reactivation of varicella-zoster virus

dermatomes affect T1-L2
burning pain
rash

-avoid pregnant women
-paracetamol and NSAIDs (1st line)
-oral steroids only in the first 2 weeks (2nd line)
-antivirals within 72hrs unless <50 years and have a mild truncal rash with mild pain and no risk factors

antivirals reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia

93
Q

How are burns treated with fluids?

A

IV fluids given if burns are greater than:
10% of total body surface in children
15% of total body surface in adults

fluids are calculated using the Parkland formula which is;
volume of fluid= total body surface area of the burn % x weight (Kg) x4.

Half of the fluid is administered in the first 8 hours.

94
Q

What is Necrobiosis lipoidica?

A

rare, chronic idiopathic disease of collagen degeneration

classically seen in diabetics
shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically on the shin
often associated with telangiectasia

–> Strong steroid creams

95
Q

What is Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?

A

caused by chlamydia

stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer

stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy

stage 3: proctocolitis

–> doxycycline

96
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

autoimmune disease causing blistering

mucosal ulceration - oral involvement
skin blistering
painful but not itchy

Nikolsky’s sign
acantholysis on biopsy

97
Q

What is erythema ab igne?

A

erythematous patches with hyperpigmentation and telangiectasia

elderly women who sit next to an open fire

linked to squamous cell skin cancer

98
Q

What is the first line treatment for hyperhidrosis (over sweating)?

A

topical aluminium chloride

99
Q

What test should be offered to all patients with TB?

A

HIV

100
Q

How can you tell it is a nodular melanoma?

A

this is a type of melanoma

red or black lump which bleeds or oozes

101
Q

How do you treat latent TB?

A

3 months of RIP or 6 months of IP

102
Q

What most commonly does acid-fast bacillus cause?

A

Tuberculosis

103
Q

What is a Curling ulcer?

A

seen in massively burnt patients could then vomit blood due to the burns causing ‘curling ulcers’ in the stomach

104
Q

How do you manage hirsutism (excess hair)?

A

advise weight loss if overweight

-combined oral contraceptive pills such as co-cyprindiol (Dianette) or ethinylestradiol and drospirenone (Yasmin)

-facial hirsutism: topical eflornithine - contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding

105
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults?

A

Enteroviruses

106
Q

What is pre-tibial myxoedema?

A

Orange peel shin lesions

Grave’s disease

107
Q

What antibiotic has photosensitivity and can cause bad sunburn?

A

Doxycycline

108
Q

What is venous stasis eczema (varicose eczema)?

A

skin condition that affects lower legs in people with varicose veins

factors:
female, obesity, pregnancy, DVTs, elderly

could lead to leg ulcers

treatment:
keeping active and raising legs
moisturisers
steroids
compression stockings

109
Q

What STI is gram negative?

A

Gonorrhoea

110
Q

What is alopecia areata?

A

localised, well demarcated patches of hair loss. At the edge of the hair loss, there may be small, broken ‘exclamation mark’ hairs

Hair will regrow in 50% of patients by 1 year, and in 80-90% eventually.

SCREEN FOR AUTOIMMUNE - thyroid

Careful explanation
topical or intralesional corticosteroids
topical minoxidil
phototherapy
dithranol
contact immunotherapy
wigs

111
Q

What type of cancer are melanoma’s most likely to cause?

A

brain mets

112
Q

What is Bowen’s disease?

A

Precancerous squamous cell carcinoma

More common in elderly

Red scaly patches
Slow growing
Sun exposed areas

—> topical 5-fluorouracil for 4 weeks (causes redness) and steroids
Cryotherapy
Excision

113
Q

What is a cherry haemangioma?

A

AKA Campbell de Morgan spots

Benign proliferation of capillaries
No treatment required

114
Q

What is a dermatofibroma?

A

ALA histiocytomas

Often after an injury

Firm papule or nodule

115
Q

What is erythrasma?

A

A rash found in groin or axillae

Flat
Slightly scaly
Pink/brown

Overgrowth of diphtheroid Corynebacterium minutissimum

Examination with Wood’s light reveals a coral-red fluorescence.

Topical miconazole or antibacterial are usually effective. Oral erythromycin may be used for more extensive infection

116
Q

How do you treat fungal nail infections?

A

Nail clippings and scrapings for microscopy and culture

If dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed: topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer

if more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection: oral terbinafine is currently recommended first-line; 6 weeks - 3 months therapy is needed for fingernail infections whilst toenails should be treated for 3 - 6 months

if more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection: oral itraconazole is recommended first-line; ‘pulsed’ weekly therapy is recommended

117
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

AKA osler Weber rendu syndrome

Need 3 or more to be diagnosed:
-epistaxis : spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds
-telangiectases: multiple at characteristic sites (lips, oral cavity, fingers, nose)
-visceral lesions: for example gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, spinal AVM
-family history: a first-degree relative with HHT

118
Q

What is hidradenitis suppurativa?

A

Painful long-term skin condition that causes abscesses and scarring on the skin

Axilla is the most common site
“Rope like scarring”

Good hygiene
Smoking cessation
Weight loss in obese
Acute flares —> steroids or fluclox
Long term abx
Lumps can be drained

119
Q

How are keloid scars treated?

A

Intra-lesional steroids

120
Q

What is a non-healing painless ulcer associated with a chronic scar indicative of?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

121
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

Premalignant condition
White hard spots in the mucous membranes in the mouth

Common in smokers

122
Q

What is the management of bacterial meningitis?

A

CT head before lumber puncture to rule out coning

Decide whether to lumber puncture or not, and if you cannot same as below, plus blood cultures

Antibiotics and steroids
-IV cefotaxime/cefriaxone (don’t use with calcium)
-(+/- vancomycin if have been an area with drug resistance)
-Newborns and elderly over 50 may require IV amoxicillin
-IV dexamethasone (NOT IN SEPSIS or in children younger than 3 months)
-REPORT The case as close contacts within seven days before onset will be started on chemo prophylaxis e.g. ciprofloxacin (preferred) or rifampicin

123
Q

What is PrEP medication used for?

A

To prevent HIV

124
Q

What is erythroderma?

A

When 95% of the skin is involved in a rash of any kind

features:
generalised erythema
scaling 2-6 days
itchy
chronic: loss of pigment

Causes of erythroderma: ID SCALP
idiopathic
drugs e.g. gold
Seborrheic dermatitis
contact dermatitis
atopic dermatitis
lymphomas, leukaemias, HIV
psoriasis

can lead to Erythrodermic psoriasis!!

investigations:
FBC, LFT, ESR, CRP, albumin
IgE,
blood mears
skin scraping, biopsy, patch test
HIV
chest x-ray

management:
-Rest (warming)
- Emollients
- Wet dressings
- Analgesia
-Optimisation of urea and electrolytes, folate, iron, haemaglobin
- Strict input/out fluid status
- Ciclosporin/Infliximab for rapid control of pro-inflammatory state

125
Q

How do you investigate/manage skin conditions?

A

Skin examination
LYMPH node examination

Dermoscopy
Photography of lesions
bloods: FBC, CRP, U+Es
skin shavings for biopsy
punch hole biopsy

surgical removal with WIDE margins
conservative: red flag symptoms, suncream

126
Q

How can you tell the difference between a BCC, SCC and melanoma?

A

BCC:
reddish/pink with PEARLY white edges
may ulcerate
often telangiectasia

SCC:
white, pink or brown
scaly/crusted
may have ulceration

melanoma:
asymmetrical/irregular shape
may ulcerate
bleeds/itchy

127
Q

Can you break confidentiality for STIs?

A

ONLY IF THEY ARE BLOOD BORNE e.g. HIV, hep B, hep C

128
Q

How do you investigate and treat rubella?

A

FBC, CRP, U+Es
Serology for rubella
Viral swab

Supportive
Isolate for 7 days
!! Notifiable !!
Vaccine