Diabetes Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

How is diabetes defined using the WHO criteria?

A
Fasting plasma glucose >7.0mmol/l
Random plasma glucose >11.1 mmol/L
HbA1c >48mol/mol
One abnormal value + symptoms = diabetes
OR
Two abnormal values = diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In what cases of diabetes is an oral glucose tolerance test required for diagnosis?

A

Gestational diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Other than type one and two, what types of Diabetes Mellitus are there?

A

MODY
Gestational diabetes
Pancreatic diabetes mellitis
Latent autoimmune disease of adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What diagnostic investigations can be used to help different between different types of Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Ketone testing +/- bicarbonate
Pancreatic auto-antibodies
C peptide testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What autoantibodies are often found in type one Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies

Insulinoma associated antigen 2 antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patients with type two Diabetes Mellitus can have islet autoantibodies. T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What substance is secreted in equimolar concentrations to insulin and is a useful marker of endogenous insulin secretion?

A

C-peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At what point in the diagnosis of diabetes is the c-peptide test most useful?

A

3-5 years from diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the cause of type one diabetes?

A

Autoimmune destruction of the insulin producing beta cells in the islets of lagerhands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What environmental factors have been linked to an increased risk fo T1DM?

A
Viral infections (enterovirus)
Immunisations
Diet (early exposure to cow's milk)
High socioeconomic status
Obesity
Vitamin D deficiency
Perinatal factors - maternal age, history of preeclampsia, neonatal jaundice, low north weight (protective factor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A family history of diabetes is more significant in type one diabetes than type two. T/F?

A

False - the opposite is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of diabetes makes up the majority of cases?

A

Type two Diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can cause pancreatic diabetes?

A
Pancreatectomy
Pancreatitis
Haemochromatosis
Carcinoma
Cystic fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is there a higher risk of hypoglycaemia in pancreatic diabetes than in type one diabetes?

A

Because pancreatic diabetes also results in loss of alpha cells which produce glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the main features of MODY?

A

<25 years at onset
C peptide not low
Pancreatic autoantibodies negative
Runs in families in AD pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is MODY managed?

A

By managing diet, oral hypoglycaemic agents and insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What genes are. particularly associated with T1DM?

A

HLA DR3/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What endocrinopathies can cause diabetes?

A

Acromegaly, Cushing’s, phaechromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What immunosuppressive agents can cause diabetes?

A

Clozapine

Olanzzipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What genetic syndrome can cause diabetes>

A

Down’s syndrome
Friedreich’s ataxia
Turner’s myotonic dystrophy
Kleinfelter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is T1DM managed?

A
Insulin replacement
Glucose/ketone monitoring
Carbohydrate counting
Structured education
Supported self management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What insulin regimen are most T1DM patients on?

A

Basal bolus regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A BD mix insulin regime requires less injections. What are the disadvantages of this regimen?

A

Requires regimented diet and eating time

Increased likelihood of hypos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can glucose monitoring be conducted?

A

Glucose/ketone meters

Flash glucose monitoring (freestyle libra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How can insulin be administered?
Insulin pen | Insulin pump
26
What HbA1c target is aimed for in T1DM?
<53 mol/L
27
What is the target blood sugar level before breakfast in T1DM?
5.5-7 mol/l
28
What is the target blood sugar level before lunch and dinner in T1DM?
4.5-7.5 mol/l
29
What is the target blood sugar level before bed in T1DM?
6.5-8 mol/l
30
What factors need to be discussed when educating patients with T1DM?
``` Administration of insulin Glucose/ketone monitoring Sick day rules Hypoglycaemia Driving regulations Exercise and alcohol Pregnancy Targets Complications ```
31
Carbohydrate counting is only used in which insulin regimen?
Basal bolus regimen
32
What are the goals of therapy in T2DM?
Reduce rates of microvascular complications Minimise CVD risk Reduce rates of microvascular complications
33
Give examples of microvascular complications of T2DM?
Retinopathy Nephropathy Foot disease
34
Give examples of macrovascular complications of T2DM?
MI Stroke Heart failure Peripheral vascular disease
35
What factor is most important in preventing microvascular disease in T2DM?
Good glycemic control
36
What are the targets for the treatment of T2DM?
HbA1c of 7% BP <130/80mmHg Cholesterol. <5 once statins started Normal body weight
37
At what age should patients with T2DM be started on statins?
>40 years
38
What is the first line treatment of T2DM?
Metformin
39
What drugs can be added to metformin in the second line treatment of T2DM?
Sulphonylureas SGLT-2 inhibitors DPP-4 inhibitors Glitazones
40
Another second line agent can be added in the third line management of T2DM, alternatively an injectable medication can be used. Give examples of these injectable medications?
Insulin | GLP-1 agonists
41
How does metformin act as a hypoglycaemic agent?
Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis to reduce glucose output from the liver Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity Increases glucose uptake and ultilisation Increases AMPK activity
42
What effect does metformin have on weight?
Reduces weight
43
What are the side effects of metformin?
GO side effects
44
Why can metformin not be used if eGFR is <30?
Small risk of lactic acidosis
45
What is the efficacy of metformin?
Moderate
46
Which hypoglycaemic agents reduce weight?
Metformin SGLT2 inhibitors GLP-1 receptor agonists
47
Which hypoglycaemic agents result in weight gain?
Sulphonylureas Thiazolidinediones Insulin
48
Which hypoglycaemic agent is weight neutral?
DPP-4 inhibitors
49
Which hypoglycaemic agent should be used at a rescued dose in CLD?
DPP-4 inhibitors
50
Which hypoglycaemic agents can't be used in CKD?
Metformin (<30 eGFR) Caution use of sulphonylurea SGLT2 inhibitors
51
What is the mechanism of action of sulphonylureas?
Bind to SUR1 receptor on cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells which results in closure of ATP-potassium channels which allows an influx of calcium which results in exocytosis of insulin
52
What is the efficacy of sulphonylureas?
High efficacy
53
What are the disadvantages of the use of sulphonylureas?
No CV benefit Weight gain High hypoglycaemic risk Caution use in CKD
54
What is the mechanism of action of DPP-4 inhibitors?
Rapidly inactivate DPP-4 which prolongs the action fo endogenous incretins, enhancing the first phase insulin response.
55
What is the efficacy of DPP-4 inhibitors?
Low/moderate efficacy
56
There is a low risk of hypos with DPP-4 inhibitors. T/F?
True
57
Which hypoglycaemic agents also have a CV benefit?
Metofmrin Thiazolidinedione (probably) SGLT-2 inhibitors GLP-1 receptor agonists
58
What is the mechanism of action of SGLT2 inhibitors?
Inhibit SGLT2 glucose transporters in the proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney to decrease the renal reabsorption of glucose
59
What is the efficacy of SGLT2 inhibitors?
Moderate efficacy
60
What are the risks associated with the use of SGLT2 inhibitors?
GU infections | Small risk of hypovolaemia/DKA
61
What is the mechanism of action of thiazolidinediones?
Increased insulin sensitivities by acting as. ligands for the nuclear hormone receptor PPARgamma to regulate its transcription activity. This reduces the availability of fatty acids as an energy source, thereby favouring the utilisation of glucose.
62
What is the efficacy of thiazolidinidiones?
Moderate
63
Why are thiazolidinidiones no longer commonly used?
Cause fluid retention | Fractures
64
In addition to increasing the endogenous effects of icnretins, what are the effects of GLP-1 receptor agonists?
Increases satiety | Suppress appetite
65
What is the efficacy of GLP-1 receptor agonists?
High efficacy
66
Which hypoglycaemic agent has the highest hypoglycaemia risk?
Insulin
67
What considerations need to be taken when prescribing hypoglycaemic agents in elderly patients?
Increased poly pharmacy which increases risk of drug interactions Increased likelihood of adverse reactions Likely to have decreased eGFR so some agents not suitable Increased risk fo hypoglycaemia Important to individualise therapy
68
Can metofmrin be prescribe in heart failure?
It can be used in chronic heart failure but should be withheld with acute episodes of failure
69
Can thiazolidinediones be used in heart failure?
No
70
Which hypoglycaemic agent reduces hospitalisations for heart failure, with and without diabetes?
SGLT2 inhibitors