Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Semester 2 PM Exam 8 > Diagnostic Imaging > Flashcards

Diagnostic Imaging Flashcards

(56 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Distal Femur - 2nd ossification center

A

Birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Distal Femur - Ossification/Fusion

A

14-16 yrs females

16-18 yrs males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Proximal Tibia - 2nd ossification center

A

Birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Proximal Tibia - Ossification/Fusion

A

14-16 yrs females

16-18 yrs males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tibial Tuberosity - 2nd ossification center

A

8 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tibial tuberosity - ossification/fusion

A

13-15 yrs females
15-19 yrs males
TRACTION EPIPHYSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patella - 2nd ossification center

A

4 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patella - ossification/fusion

A

puberty

Completely cartilage until 4 yrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Routine projections

A

AP
Lateral
Axial or tunnel of intercondylar fossa
Axial patellofemoral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AP of the knee

A 
Taken with knee in extension
Distal femur
Proximal tibia
Fibular head
Tibiofemoral joint
Trabecular markings observable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lateral of the knee - position and beam

A

Knee is positioned into 20 degrees flexion

Beam moves medial to lateral with lateral knee closest to the film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lateral of the knee - what is present

A 
Sesamoid bone (fabella) may be present
Bursa may be observable as a radiolucent line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Axial/Tunnel Intercondylar Fossa - position

A

Patient is prone with knee flexed to 40 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Axial/tunnel Intercondylar fossa - beam

A

beam moves post to ant

It is a PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Axial view of the patellofemoral jt. is AKA

A

Tangential
Sunrise
Skyline
Merchant’s view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Axial view of patellofemoral joint

A

Articular surfaces of the femur and patella

Knee is flexed to varying degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lower leg imaging

A

AP and Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lower leg imaging used for what

A

to determine the condition of the tibia and fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Computed Tomography

A

Bony elements, fractures, and degenerative processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CT myelogram

A

Tends to use contrast within the subarachnoid space - stenosis
Ionizing radiation exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CT good for

A

complex fractures

bone - degenerative processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

A

Soft tissue, inflammation, hemorrhage
More expensive and slower than CT
Metal is absolute contraindication
Can also do myelogram w/o contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Arthrography

Study These Flashcards
A

Use of contrast within joint spaces
Plain film, CT, and MRI
Typically air and contrast medium is injected into the joint and an image is taken

24
Q

Diagnostic Ultrasound

Study These Flashcards
A 
2-15 MHz
Bundled delivery (1% emission; 99% reception)
25
Diagnostic Ultrasound used for
Muscle and tendon architecture, fiber degeneration and tears, nerve inflammation
26
Downside to ultrasound for diagnosing
VERY operator dependent | Does not penetrate bone or transmit though air (lungs)
27
Bone scan (Scintigraphy)
Use of radionuclide to image bone "functional" imaging Indicates abnormal areas of bone activity
28
Bone Scan - Sn and Sp
Is highly sensitive but lacks specificity
29
Closed vs. Open fracture
``` Closed = skin and soft tissue are intact Open = any open wound, any size, is caused by the fractured bone ```
30
Fracture description must include
``` Site and extent Type Alignment Direction Special Features Associated abnormalities ```
31
Site and Extent
``` Anatomic location Upper, middle, lower on the bone Proximal or distal Extra-articular or intra IT, surgical neck, head... ```
32
Type and Alignment
Complete or incomplete Relationship of the longitudinal axis of fragments to each other Position of distal fragment as related to proximal Displacement Distracted
33
Direction
Fracture line in relationship to the longitudinal axis of the bone
34
Different directions
Transverse Longitudinal Oblique Spiral
35
Comminuted
More than 2 fragments
36
Special Features - Impaction
Depression | Compression
37
Depression is common in
tibial condyle
38
Compression is common in
vertebrae | compression from all sides
39
Special features - avulsion
Most commonly where you have a traction epiphysis
40
Special features - epiphyseal
Salter harris classification | if using this classification you know it is younger than 17
41
Associated Features
Joint Dislocation | Soft tissue involvement
42
Ottawa Rules
``` Age 55 yrs or older Tenderness at head of fibula Isolated tenderness of patella Inability to flex knee to 90 Inability to WB (4 steps) immediately after injury or in ED ```
43
Pittsburgh Rules
Blunt trauma or a fall plus either of the following: Age younger than 12 yrs or older than 50 yrs Inability to walk 4 WB steps in the ED
44
Femoral Shaft Fracture
Life threatening - considerable bleeding, fat embolism (resp. issues)
45
Massive forces required - femoral shaft fracture
``` Almost always displaced Other injuries probably exist Circulatory issues Severe pain Rotation and angular displacement of distal end ```
46
Tibial Plateau Fracture
Hohl classification system Joint instability is common MCL and LCL often involved OFten need CT or MRI
47
Tibial Plateau Fracture caused by
axial loading with valgus or varus forces such as a fall from a height or collision with bumper of a car Due to impact of femoral condyle into tibial plateau
48
Tibial Plateau Fracture - WB
Generally unable to WB
49
Tibial Plateau Fracture - more commonly fracture where
Lateral tibial plateau is fractured more frequently than the medial
50
Intercondylar Fracture
Direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee or in rotation Hyperextension with varus or valgus stress Loss of cruciate ligaments may occur
51
Patellar fractures
Disruption of the extensor mechanism
52
Patellar fracture - occur as result of | Most common cause
May occur as a result of an indirect force such as a jump (deceleration) (quad contraction) Direct blow like dashboard injury in a MVA or a fall on a flexed knee
53
Continuous Passive Motion
Post operatively patients use this to ge tthem into flexion and extension Data suggests not very helpful
54
Tibial Plateau Fracture - what do they do surgically
Supporting the fracture fragments with small bone screws and the Ilizarov fixator - removed after 12 weeks
55
Hemophilic Arthopathy
Common complication is bleeding into the joints | As PT you wont know until later if bleeding occurred
56
Meniscal injury - what type of imaging
MRI is imaging modality of choice

Semester 2 PM Exam 8 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions