diagnostic lab interpretation Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

what are CBCs used for

A

evaluation of infection, anemia, bruising, petechiae, malignancy, over all immune status and many bothers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what tube is CBC collected in

A

Whole blood-lavender (EDTA) tube-invert tube 8-10 times after collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when do we see an elevated WBC count

A

infection
steroid use
inflammation
smoking (mild)
allergies (mild)
pregnancy (mild)
Leukemia (very high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when would a WBC count be decreased

A

Malignancy
immunocompromised
autoimmune disease
sepsis
mono

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is included in WBC differential

A

Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
Bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when are neutrophils increased

A

infections (bacterial/fungal)
trauma
stress
rheumatoid arthritis
myelocytic leukemia
gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a ‘left shift’

A

bands - usually occur with acute and or severe infection
immature neutrophils “bands”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is neutropenia and when is it seen

A

Low neutrophils
chemo/radiation
severe sepsis
aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the ANC

A

absolute neutrophil count (used to determine severity)
<15000 is neurtropenia
<500 is severe neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when are lymphocytes increased

A

chornic bacterial infetion
hepatitis
mono
lymphocytic leukemia
MM
Viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when are lymphocytes decreased

A

HIV
Leukemia
Sepsis
Steroid
Chemo/radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when are monocytes increased

A

Leukemia
Viral infection (EBV)
chronic inflam dz
parasitic infection
tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when are eosinophins increased

A

allergies (m/c)
addisons disease
parasitic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when are eosinophils decreased

A

alchohol intoxication
excessive cortisol production (cushings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when are basophils increased

A

allergies
myeloproliferative dz
collagen vascular disease
varicella
s/p splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when are basophils decreased

A

acute infection
trauma
neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is included with red cell components

A

red blood cell count (RBC)
Hemoglobin (Hb)
Hematocrit (Hct)
(reticulocyte count)
MCV
MCH
MCHC
RDW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

who has higher RBC values

A

men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when would RBC be increased

A

conditioned athlete
higher altitudes
combat hypoxia from chronic disease
blood doping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when would a RBC be decreased

A

iron deficiency
blood loss
hemolysis
bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is hemoglobin

A

oxygen carrying portion of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is hematocrit

A

percentage of RBCs in whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when would H&H be low

A

hemorrhage, excess fluids, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when would H&H be elevated

A

dehydration, polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are reiculocytes
*increased in response to decreased H&H / RBC* created in bone marrow occur after hemorrhage, RBC loss *induced by erythropoietin*
26
when would MCV be increased
flate or B12 deficiency megaloblastic anemia liver disease hypothyroidism
27
when would MCV be decreased
iron deficiency lead poisoning thalassemia
28
what is the MCV
size of the RBC determines type of anemia
29
What is the RDW
red cell distribution width -estimate of uniformity of cell cells -normal RDW in presence of anemia sugggests thalassemia
30
when does RDW increase
foalte, B12 deficiency
31
when would RDW be low
iron deficiency
32
What is MCH
mean corpuscular hemoglobin avg weight of hemoglobin
33
what is MCH elevation a sign of
liver dx hyperthyroid cancer alcohol excessive estrogen medications infectious complications
34
what is a decreased MCH typically associated with
anemias
35
What is MCHC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration concentration of hemoglobin per erythrocyte
36
when would platelets be elevated
splenecotmy chronic leukemias iron deficiency anemia malignancy
37
when are platelet levels decreased
Drug indcued (heparin) ETOH abuse aplastic anemia leukemia
38
what is a BMP
basic metabolic panel used to rule in/out many metabolic concerns *looks at electrolytes and renal function*
39
What is normal BUN what is the BUN
8-18 mg/dL level of renal function as well as liver function -elevated in acute and chronic renal failure
40
what is the normal creatinine and what does it measure
0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL (1)* indicator of Kidney function - increases with poor renal function both acutely and crhonically
41
when will creatinine levels increase
GI bleeding High protein diets strenuous exercise dehydration *REnal failure* urinary stasis shock surgery diabetic neuropathy
42
when will creatinine decrease
pregnancy starvation wasting disease corticosteroids low protein intake dialysis
43
What is the normal GFR
> 90 mL / min/1.73m2
44
what is the normal BUN:creatinine ratio | what are abnormal ratios
10:1 20:1 suggests pre-renal azotemia ATN ratio usually 10-15:1
45
what does the BUN:creatinin ratio help determine
cause of renal failure *cannot be used to difinitively distinguish between the two*
46
What is the normal sodium level
135-145 mEq/L *important in function of nerves and muscles*
47
What is normal Potassium levels
3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L
48
what are low potassium levels due to
losses, starvation, urine loss and medications if significantly low, needs emergent IV replacement
49
when are high potassiums usually seen
usually d/t medications if significantly high - need chelation
50
What is the normla Chloride level
97 - 107 mEq/L *essential in oxygen exchange*
51
what occurs when chloride levels change
alter repsitatory function also indicator of hydration status
52
What are normal CO2 levels
23- 29 mEq/L *essential indicator of oxygen exhange in the body* *useful in determining blood pH*
53
What is normal albumin levels
3.5 g / dL main protein in blood allows for oncotoci pressures
54
when would albumin be high and low
high: dehydration Low: liver disease, malabsoprtion, malnutrition, nephrotic syndrome, pregnnacy
55
when is total bilirubin elevated
common bile duct obstruction hemolysis
56
what is another name for LFTs
transaminases AST and ALT
57
when are LFTs elevated
cirrhosis hepatitis liver cancer
58
what portion of the LFTs are more speific to the liver
ALT | AST found in numeous parts of the body
59
when would ALK be elevated
biliary obstruction cirrhosis hepatitis destructive bone disease recent MI (kids)
60
when would ALk be lower
anemia hypothyroidism
61
what evaluates coagulation factors in extrinsic and common fathways
PT/INR
62
what are common reasons for LD/LDH elevation
exercise infection heart attack/failure liver disease anemia
63
what does the anion gap determine
the magnitude of electrolyte imbalance paricularly useful in poisioning
64
are lipid labs fasting or non-fasting
fasting must be at least 8 hours prior but 12 hours better
65
What is Hs-CRP
used to adjunct to lipids to evaluate CV risk status
66
what is BNP used for
to detect, support and evaluate HF levels decrease if pt are taking ACEi, BB, and/or diuretics