Diseases Flashcards
(167 cards)
1
Q
What disease is zoonotic in the GI tract?
A
Leptospirosis
2
Q
Painful straining at defecation is termed
A
tenesmus
3
Q
what is there not a vaccination for? (GI)
A
salmonella
4
Q
what is most common chronic enteropathy?
A
IBD
5
Q
What is the passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, or esophagus?
A
regurgitation
6
Q
the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is defined as
A
ascities
7
Q
a vascular abnormality in which the hepatic portal vein empties directly into the caudal vena cava is
A
portosystemic shunt
8
Q
what is not a typical sign of inflammatory bowel disease in cats?
A
weight gain
9
Q
the pancreas produces all of the following substances except?
A
albumin
10
Q
an animal presents with anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea. Your DVM states that he felt a “sausage like mass” in the cranial abdomen during his physical exam. This animal is most likely suffering from?
A
intussusception
11
Q
A dog presents to your clinic with a suspected intestinal foreign body. During the laparotomy the DVM removes the object and notes that a section of the intestines is necrotic. What is the name of the procedure to remove the necrotic area and rejoin the healthy intestines?
A
resection and anastomosis
12
Q
which of the following drugs is associated with liver disease caused by long-term use?
A
all options
13
Q
what arrhythmia is commonly associated with GDV?
A
ventricular premature contractoins
14
Q
what is the most common intestinal neoplasm of the cat?
A
lymphoma
15
Q
an overweight cat presents to your clinic with a one week history of anorexia. They state the cat stopped eating after they went out of town. The cat is icteric, and biopsy of the liver reveled vacuolated hepatocytes. What is the cat most likely siffering from?
A
hepatic lipidosis
16
Q
a semiperminent feeding tube may be placed in all the following wasy except
A
orogastric tube
17
Q
acute diarrhea is often the result of which of the following
A
all
18
Q
jaundice may develop as diseases progress in which of the following organs?
A
liver
19
Q
what is the most common disease of the salivary glands in the canine?
A
mucocele
20
Q
what is the most common intestinal neoplasm of the dog?
A
adenocarcinoma
21
Q
what is the most common oral malignant neoplasm of the cat?
A
squamous cell carcninoma
22
Q
what is the most common oral malignant neoplasm of the dog?
A
malignant melanoma
23
Q
patients with myasthenia gravis may also suffer from megaesophagus. These patients are at an increases risk for which of the following?
A
aspiration
24
Q
if the patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed
A
hematemesis
25
feline obstipation occurs with which of the following diseases?
megacolon
26
clinical signs that a patient may present with that would indicate small intestine diarrhea include
increased stool volume
27
what does high-frequency diarrhea with straining and mucus indicate?
involvement of the large intestine
28
patients with pancreatitis should avoid food that are
high in fat
29
what disease commonly involves german shepard dogs and requires sprinkling a pancreatic enzyme supplement on their food?
EPA
30
for which of the following problems would you see plication on rads?
linear foreign body
31
canine adenovirus 1 causes ____
infectious hepatitis
32
an exam of a patient with diarrhea should always include
fecal exam
33
acute diarrhea is usually caused by
acute food change
34
the blood supply from the gastrointestinal tract passes through this organ
liver
35
which of the following is a common side effect of NSAID administration in dogs and cats?
gastric ulceration
36
periotonitis refers to
inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity
37
which of the following statements about leptospirosis is true
it is known to cause liver and kidney failure
38
which part of the GI system is associated with melena?
involvement with the jejunum or ileum
39
which of the following statements about megacolon is false?
it is a common disease of middle to old-aged dogs
40
if a client calls to report that her dog has started vomiting while taking the NSAID carprofen, what is the best course of action?
tell client to stop using the carprofen and have a vet see the pet
41
patients with heart disease may experience syncope. What is another description for syncope?
fainting
42
which of the following dog breeds should not receive ivermectin as a heartoworm preventative?
bearded collie
43
which of the following is the msot concerning toxin seen with reperfusion injury?
potassium
44
PRAA can cause entrapment of the
esophagus
45
which tachyarrhythmias would we expect to see in patients with DCM?
premature ventricular contractions
46
a common clinical sign of a saddle thrombus in the cat is
acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis
47
the heart is an organ that is commonly affected by age. Chronic valvular disease results from thickening of the heart valves, and this disease mainly affects
older, small breed dogs
48
animals with septal defects will not show signs of disease until 12 months of age
false
49
which of the following is the intermediate host and vector of heartworms?
mosquito
50
A puppy having a “machinery-like” murmur that is best heard on the left side of the thorax would be suggestive of what cardiovascular defect?
patent ductus arteriosus
51
what is the prepatent period for heartworms?
6 months
52
CHF is an abbreviation for
congestive heart failure
53
where do microfilaria go to mature into adults?
pulmonary artery
54
what is the connection between the right and left atria in the fetus that closes after birth?
foramen ovale
55
which of the following diseases is treated medically by routine phlebotomy?
tetralogy of fallot
56
You have a Maltese puppy that frequently regurgitates his food, weight loss despite having a healthy appetite, and has had aspiration pneumonia several times - what is the cardiovascular diseases he could have?
persistent right aortic arch
57
this congenital heart defect can cause CHF by the time the animal is 8 weeks of age
atrial and septal defects
58
which of the following is not a diagnose done to evaluate the cardio system
palpation
59
which of the following conditions is NOT considered to be a congenital defect?
dilated cardiomyopathy
60
right sides heart failure leads to pulmonary edema
false
61
what dietary changes may a DVM suggest ot an owner whose pet has cardiav disease?
low salt
62
the term for accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is
ascites
63
a thromboembolism may be seen on a cardiac ultrasound in which of the following locations on a patient with HCM?
left atrium
64
most congenital cardiovascular diseases are found on the animal first trip to the vet
true
65
which of the following acutely secribes the term polycythemia
increased numbers of RBC
66
what diagnostic tool is used to evaluate overlal function of the heart as well as diagnosing valvular disease?
echocardiogram
67
which of the following is the most commonly seen cardiovascular disease of the dog?
dilated cardiomyopathy
68
which of the following is the appropriate treatment when a patient experiences sever heartworm infestation and caval syndrome?
surgical removal
69
a atypical heart sound associated with a cuntional or structural valve abnormality is known as
murmur
70
atrial fibrillation is most commonly treated with ____, while ventricular fibrillation is treated with _____
drugs; defibrillation
71
heartworm diseae may be dianosed in all of the following except
CBC
72
heartworm antigen test kits are testing for the antigen found on which of the following?
adult female heartworm
73
the name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is
foramen ovale
74
when is the foramen ovale suppose to close?
within the first 12-24hours
75
using anatomy of the animal's chest to evaluate the actual size of the heart is called what
vertebral heart score
76
which of the following treatments is a microfilaricide used to treat a heartworm positive dogs after adulticide treatment?
ivermectin
77
which of the following species can have atrial fibrillation without other heart problems
equine
78
which of the following cardiovascular diseases can result in a "valentines" appearance on a DV film?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
79
if a cat is diagnosed with DCM, it is most likely due to a deficiency
taurine
80
which of the following is the antibiotic used to kill Wolbachia
doxycycline
81
what is the test that can be done to help determine a right-to-left heart shunt?
bubble study
82
which of the following statements is not true
an adult HW is also known as microfilaria
83
a holter monitor can be used to evaluate an EKG on patient for 24 hours or more
true
84
a patient with left isded congesetive heart failure would most likely develop
pulmonary edema
85
in HCM the heart muscle becomes _____ over time. In DCM the heart becomes ____ over time. Both can lead to heart failure
thicker; thinner
86
aldosterone
is a mineralcorticoid that causes sodium ions to be reabsorbed by the kidney back into the bloodstream in exchange for potassium and hydrogen ions
87
most endocrine issues are controlled with
medcial management
88
ketonuria is most commonly associated with which of the following disease
diabetes mellitus
89
the test used in dogs and cats that provides an indication of the average glucose concentrations over the previous 1-2 weeks is
serum fructose/fructosamine
90
which of the following endocrine disease results in WT gain, bradycardia, exercise intolerance, and lethargy in teh dog?
hyperadrenocorticism
91
which of the following diets can be useful in treating hyperthyroidism?
y/d
92
A middle-aged female Labrador Retriever presents with clinical signs of: weight gain with no change in diet, bilaterally symmetrical alopecia, “rat tail,” and cold intolerance. What is she most likely suffering from?
hypothyroidism
93
in what endocrine disorder is PU/PD not commonly seen?
hyperadrenocorticism
94
which of the following is a sign of insulin overdose in treated diabetic patients?
seizures
95
what test is commonly performed to diagnose cushing's disease?
low-dose desamethasone suppresiona
96
all the following are symptoms of hyperthryoidism except
weight gain
97
which type of diabetes does not require insulin therapy
type 2
98
IV dextrose administraiton is contraindicated in patients with
insulinoma
99
almost 100% of dogs with diabetes have type 1 diabetes, also known as
insulin-dependent
100
which of the following diseases involves the adrenal glands?
addisons
101
which of the following statements is false?
signs of DM include weakness, incoordination, seizures, and potentially a coma
102
all of the following are ketoacids except
acetic acid
103
a patients blood work suffering from an insulinoma would most likely show
hypoglycemia
104
insulinomas are tumors of teh ____ cells of the pancreas and commonly affect ____
beta; ferrets
105
which of the following endocrine diseases results in WT gain, muscle weakness, polyuria, polydipsia, skin and hair coat abnormalities, and a pot-bellied appearance in a dog?
hyperadrenocorticism
106
what endocrine disease involves radioactive I-131 treatment as the treatment of choice?
hyperthyroidism
107
A 12-year-old cat presents to your clinic with a history of increased appetite with concurrent weight loss and “bumping” into things while walking around the house. Physical exam reveals tachycardia, hypertension, and a small mass palpated over the trachea that slips easily between your fingers. Based on these findings, the cat is most likely suffering from:
hyperthyroidism
108
a Keeshond presents to your clinic with signs og PU/PD. Bloodwork reveals hypercalcemia and mild azotemia. This patient most likely has
hyperparathyroidism
109
beta cells of the pancreas produce ____ and alpha cells produce ____
insulin; glucagon
110
which of the following endocrine diseases results in hyponatremia and hyperkalemia in a dog?
hypoadrenocorticism
111
most insulin is given via what route?
SQ
112
addisons disease is also known as what?
hypoadrenocorticism
113
serum calcium levels of > 12mg/dL (hypercalcemia) indicate disease of the
parathyroid gland
114
puerperal tetany is also known as
eclampsia
115
an ACTH stimulation test is used to diagnose
hypoadrenocorticism
116
when does gestational eclampisa generally occur?
late pregnancy or post partum
117
which of the following dog breeds is more likely to get pancreatitis in its lifetime
schnauzer
118
which of the following ear cleaners is safe to use if the eardrum is not intact?
TrizEDTA
119
which of the following isn ot common cause for blepharitis
ectropian
120
what test can be done to isolate drematophyte infections?
DTM
121
when removing cuterebra larva from a patient
anaphylaxis can occur
122
all of the following are important in treating flea infestation except
yeast tablets given orally to the patient
123
feline acne is commonly found
on the rostral mandible
124
superficial dermatomycosis is commonly called
ringworm
125
diagnosis of entropion should be done while the patient is sedated
false
126
"red mange" is caused by demodex canis
true
127
myiasis is the condition caused by
maggots
128
which is not a common clinical feature in mycotic infections?
ulcerated, bleeding wounds
129
patients having mast cell tumors surgically removed are often premedicated with ____ to block histamine released by tumor manimpulation
diphenhydramine
130
the most common sing in dogs and cats with allergic dermatitis or disease is
pruritus
131
when staining an eye chekcing for an ulcer a positive result will glow ____ undre a cobalt-blue light
green
132
which of the following owuld be a normal IOP for a dog?
20
133
A 9 month old puppy is presented with 1cm round alopecia lesion on his left lateral muzzle. An FNA revealed round cells with few mitotic figures and few granules. This mass is most likely a:
histiocytoma
134
fleas are known to cause significant anemia up to and including causing death
true
135
fibrosarcomas are usually easily surgically removed since they are contained within a capsule
false
136
which of the following is a zoonotic diseas that is spread by fleas?
yersinia pestis
137
which is not included in the treatment of skin fold pyodermas?
angioplasty
138
demodex mange is usually found to be very pruritic
false
139
which of the following may contribute to ringowrm in companion animals
microsporum canis, microsporium gypseum, trichophyton mentagrophytes (all answers)
140
otodectes cyanotis feeds on
skin debris
141
the overproduction of tears is often caused by
ocular pain or irritation
142
treatment for ear mites should be no less than
30 days
143
myiasis commonly occurs
all
144
in regsards to a mast cell tumor on a dog, you should not peform a/an ____ unless you pre-treat with ____
FNA; diphenhydramine
145
what does TECA stand for?
total ear canal ablation
146
which of the following meciations should be avoided in patients with a corneal ulcer
neo/poly/dex
147
what is a cause for flea allergy dermatitis?
ctenocephalides infestation
148
the most common type of tick would fall into this category?
ixoidae
149
the best treatment for feline fibrosarcoma is
leg amputation
150
conjunctivitis is generally of infectious causes in cats
true
151
what is considered to be a disease of neglect?
lice
152
what is the initiated cause of flea bite dermatitis?
allergic reaction to flea saliva
153
increased IO pressure, caused by more aqueous fluid being produced than leaving the eye, might result in
glaucoma
154
what common disease can lead to cataract formation
diabetes
155
which of the following is a heartworm preventative that is also approved to kill ear mites?
revolution
156
what is the normal IOP for a dog?
20
157
glaucoma can present with which of the following symptoms?
painful eye, episcleral injection, dilated pupil, decreased PLR, history of uveitis or hemorrhage in the eye and increased IOP
158
external parasites are responsible for many skin problems seen in small animal medicine. All can be treated with shamppos and dips except
ear mites
159
IOP is measured using
tonometer
160
a cat has a large rapidy growing tumor on her left thigh. It has been diagnosed as a bribrosarcoma. What is the most likely cause?
feline leukemia vaccine administraiton
161
which of the following diseases can be the result of severe otitis externa, especially if the middle ear canal is affected?
vestibular disease
162
what test can be done to isolate dermatophyte infections?
DTM
163
what is a normal IOP for a cat?
25
164
opaque pupillary opening and pregressive vision loss may be seen in patients with
cataractsa
165
anterior uveitis can cause IOP to drop as low as 4-8 mmHg
true
166
flea shampoos have a short residula action of roughly 12 hours after product use
false
167
hair from the ear canal can safely be plucked from the patient
false
