Disorders of consciousness and PTA Flashcards

1
Q

What are the MOI for disorders of consciousness?

A

Traumatic brain injury
Non-traumatic/neuronal injury
–> acute hypoxic-ischemic neuronal injury (cardiac arrest, stroke, meningoencephalitis)

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2
Q

What is the annual incidence of vegetative state Dx in the US?

A

4200

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3
Q

What is the incidence rate of minimal conscious state?

A

Unknown due to there being no diagnostic code in the international classification of diseases

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4
Q

Post-traumatic cases resulting in vegetative state has a (better/worse) prognosis than non-traumatic cases resulting in vegetative state.

A

better prognosis

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5
Q

It is believed that ___% of cases have misdiagnosis when the patient was actually minimally conscious.

A

40%

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6
Q

What signals are lost with coma?

A

functioning of cortex and reticular systems

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7
Q

How long does a coma normally last?

A

2 weeks… rarely 2-4 weeks.

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8
Q

(true/false) There is evidence of sleep/wake cycles on EEG when a patient is in a coma

A

FALSE (there is not)

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9
Q

(true/false) Behavioral responses with a coma consist of reflex activity

A

true

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10
Q

(true/false) The autonomic system is preserved in vegetative state.

A

true

–> variable preservation of CN and spinal reflexes

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11
Q

“wakeful unawareness”

A

vegetative state

–> no evidence of sustained, reproducible, purposeful, or voluntary behavioral responses to visual, auditory, tactile, or noxious stimuli

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12
Q

(true/false) A patient in vegetative state has periodic episodes of eye opening

A

true

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13
Q

(true/false) A patient in vegetative state does not experience B/B incontinence

A

false

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14
Q

definition: “A condition of severely altered consciousness in which minimal, but definite behavioral evidence of self or environmental awareness is demonstrated”

A

minimally conscious state

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15
Q

How does MCS differ from a coma and vegetative state?

A

has a presence of specific behavioral manifestations of consciousness; behaviors occur inconsistently but can be differentiated between reflex and random behavior.

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16
Q

What marks a person of being out of a minimally conscious state?

A

Recovery of the capacity to communicate or interact consistently with the environment (functional object use of 2 common articles)

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17
Q

What are the neuropathologies of a coma?

A

Hemispheric: bilateral diffuse cortical or subcortical white matter lesions

Brainstem injury: focal lesions of the midbrain or rostral pons

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18
Q

What is the neuropathology of vegetative state?

A

moderate to severe ischemic damage involving the thalamus and arterial watershed areas

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19
Q

What diagnostic imaging can demonstrate preserved ability to process meaningful information where behavioral evidence is not present for a patient in a vegetative state?

A

PET

–> used to determine the presence and extent of residual cortical activity in patients diagnosed with VS
Radiation burden

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20
Q

___% of those in a vegetative state have a diffuse axonal injury

A

71%

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21
Q

What grades of diffuse axonal injuries tend to be present with those in a vegetative state?

A

Grades 2 and 3 in addition to thalamic damage

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22
Q

(true/false) Thalamic lesions are less prevalent in MCS than vegetative state

A

True (50% MCS… 80% VS)

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23
Q

What level of consciousness appears to be characterized by greater sparing of cortico-cortical and cortico-thalamic connections?

A

MCS

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24
Q

definition: widespread axonal damage with NO focal abnormalities

A

DAI grade I

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25
definition: widespread axonal damage with presence of focal abnormalities in the corpus callosum
DAI grade II
26
definition: widespread axonal damage, focal abnormalities in corpus callosum, and injury to the rostral brain stem w/ tissue tears
DAI grade III
27
What is an Increasingly utilized noninvasive technique for localizing brain activity?
fMRI
28
Overall life expectancy is (shortened/lengthened) in those who are in a vegetative state
shortened
29
If a person has a higher DRS score, they have a (bad/good) prognosis
bad
30
(true/false) Children who experience traumatic vegetative state can have posttraumatic hyperthermia at any time.
true
31
(true/false) Any reproducible evidence of volitional responding, however slight, establishes diagnosis of MCS
true BUT responses are infrequent and unpredictable and require a large number of observations to establish if there is a pattern/response to stimuli
32
What assessment tools should be used in the acute recovery period from DOC?
GCS Glasgow-Liege Coma Scale Swedish Reaction Level Scale
33
What assessment tools are used in the rehabilitation period after a DOC?
rancho levels DRS CLOCS CNC CRS-R SSAM SMART WHIM WNSSP DOCS
34
What assessment is a useful adjunct or alternative to standardized measures?
individualized quantitative behavioral assessment (IQBA) --> measurements are developed around specific behaviors or questions of interest in individual patients intended to complement comprehensive neurobehavioral assessment --> useful when behavioral responses are infrequent
35
(true/false) Consciousness can be directly observed.
FALSE
36
What are the 5 most common complications of DOC? Other complications?
spasticity (8.3%) UTI (6.4%) aggression (6.4%) sleep disturbance (6.2%) hyperkinesia (4.7%) ------- pneumonia post-traumatic epilepsy post-traumatic hydrocephalus heterotopic ossification dysautonomia
37
What complication of DOC is the most common reason for acute-care transfers?
pneumonia
38
What are s/s to look for when suspecting heterotopic ossification?
pain/grimacing warmness swelling
39
(true/false) it is common for DOC patient to form polyneuropathy
true
40
What test should you use when testing sensation?
flexor withdrawal
41
What is the purpose of the JFK coma recovery scale?
assist with: - differential Dx - prognostic assessment - treatment planning
42
What is the scoring range meanings for the CRS-R? How is the scoring determined?
Lowest item on each subscale represents reflexive activity while the highest items represent cognitively-mediated behaviors --> Scoring is standardized and is based on the presence or absence of operationally-defined behavioral responses to specific sensory stimuli
43
What is a pro for CRS-R?
Captures emergence from a coma and the progression through disorders of consciousness
44
When was the DOC scale (DOCS) developed?
2011
45
GCS has a (low/moderate/high) correlation with mortality.
moderate (not reliable at predicting functional capabilities of survivors)
46
What type of potentials tell if pathways are intact?
Evoked potentials --> earliest response/cranial and brainstem neurons
47
What type of potentials are higher level and include the subcortical-cortical circuits?
event-related potentials (ERPs)
48
What type of evoked potential reveals structural integrity of pathways?
short latency evoked potentials
49
What event-related potentials are indicative of higher cortical function?
long latency ERPs oddball design: detect an infrequent stimulus within a string of frequent stimuli
50
Studies suggest ___-___% errors in classifying patients as Vegetative vs. Minimally Conscious
15-43%
51
What medication accelerates the pace of recovery and is given in the acute phase of recovery?
amantadine
52
(true/false) a patient can stay agitated for weeks to months after a TBI
true --> episodes can have a spontaneous and rapid onset
53
(true/false) Majority of expert psychiatrists do not utilize formal assessment of agitation within the clinical setting they practice in.
true
54
What is the Rancho level for a patient being confused and agitated?
IV
55
What are descriptors of agitation?
- delirium - akathisia - post-traumatic amnesia - aggression
56
definition: Syndrome characterized by unpleasant sensations of “inner” restlessness that manifests itself with an inability to sit still or remain motionless
akathisia
57
What medications can potentially contribute to akathisia?
SSRIs
58
definition: A subtype of delirium unique to survivors of a TBI in which the survivor is in the state of post-traumatic amnesia and there are excesses of behaviors that include some combination of aggression, akathisia, disinhibition, and/or emotional lability
interdisciplinary
59
Arousal, attention, memory, and limbic behavioral functions are commonly affected when there is injury to what regions of the CNS?
fronto-temporal systems Subcortical region brainstem
60
What systems cause cognitive effects with post-traumatic agitation?
dopaminergic system (arousal and attention) noradrenergic system (arousal and attention) cholinergic system (memory)
61
What systems cause behavioral effects with post-traumatic agitation?
serotonergic (aggression) dopaminergic (akathisia)
62
What are risk factors for post traumatic agitation?
Fronto-temporal lesions Disorientation co-morbidity complications anticonvulsants
63
(true/false) Despite the prevalence of aggressive behaviors during the initial recovery phase of TBI, it is rarely measured.
true
64
What is the ABS scale used to measure?
used to measure agitation in the brain injury population
65
Why was the ABS scale developed?
Developed to allow objective, sequential assessment of aggressive behaviors to determine if interventions to reduce these behaviors are effective.
66
What is the grading scale of the ABS?
1 = absent 2= present to slight degree 3= present to moderate degree 4= present to an extreme degree
67
What does it mean if a person has an ABS score < 21?
WNL
68
What does it mean if a person has an ABS score of 22-28?
mild agitation
69
What does it mean if a person has an ABS score 29-35?
moderate agitation
70
What does it mean if a person has an ABS score > 35?
severe agitation
71
definition: Learning to associate a response with a consequence- the individual has associated that a specific consequence will follow if they do the appropriate response i.e. “if you finish therapy, you can go have a smoke”
response-consequence learning
72
definition: Consequence follows response
operant conditioning
73
definition: Consistent schedule and activities
structured milieu
74
What is ABC of behavior management short for? What is it used for?
Antecedent : what is causing the behavior Behavior Consequence --> used for behavior modification
75
What medications can be used to treat PTA?
Carbamazepine Antidepressants B-adrenergic receptor antagonists Antipsychotics benzodiazepines sympathomimetics buspirone amantadine lithium valproic acid
76
Traditionally _________, such as Ritalin, are found to increase agitation.
psychostimulants