Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

032 Performance > Distances, Gradients and Definitions > Flashcards

Distances, Gradients and Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the TORA?

A

Take-off run available, length of runway suitable for normal operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s the clearway? in what terms is it expressed?

A

Rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height

Expressed in terms of a clearway plane, minimum width 152m (500ft), extending to the end of the rwy with an upward slope not exceeding 1-25%, above which no object or terrain protrudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s the stopway?

A

Must take the weight of an aircraft in an emergency. Capable of bearing the mass of the aeroplane under the prevailing operating conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s a balanced field?

A

TODA = ASDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What’s LDA?

A

Landing distance available

It is the length of the runway which is declared available as suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s the TORR?

A

Take-off run required
Must be ≤ TORA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What’s the TODR?

A

Take-off distance required
Must be ≤ TODA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What’s the ASDR?

A

Accelerate stop distance required

If a rejected take-off distance is calculated:
ASDR must be ≤ ASDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the Class A aircraft Part-CAT?

A

Maximum TODA = 1.5 x TORA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two Class B TODA calculations?

A

When there is no stopway and clearway
TODA Must not be > TORA/1.25

When there is a stopway or clearway

TODA Must not be >

TORA

TORA/1.15

ASDA/1.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What’s the line-up distance in Class A and Class B aircraft?

A

Class A aircraft
Adjustments to the declared TORA, TODA and ASDA will be required for either a 90° txy entry to the rwy or a 180° turnaround on the rwy

Class B aircraft
Do not have to make allowance for line-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What’s airborne?

A

Means entirely supported by aerodynamic forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What’s the Load Factor?

A

Ratio of a specified load to the total weight of the aircraft. The specified load is expressed in terms of any of the following: aerodynamic forces, intertia forces, or ground or water reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What’s the Critical Engine?

A

It is the engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What’s Take-off Power?

A

Output shaft power identified in the performance data for use during take-off, discontinued approach and baulked landing and limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What’s baulked landing?

A

Rejected Landing, is a low energy go-around initiated from a very low height above the runway or, potentially, even after touchdown has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What’s Maximum Continuous Power?

A

Output shaft power identified in the performance data for use during periods of unrestricted duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What’s the Maximum Recommended Cruising Power Conditions?

A

The crankshaft rotaional speed, engine manifold pressure and any other parameters recommended in the engine manuals as appropriate for cruising operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What’s the Maxmum Best Economy Cruising Power Conditions?

A

The crankshat rotational speed, engine manifold pressure and any other parameters recommended in the engine manuals as appropriate for use with economical cruising mixture strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What’s the 2 and 1/2 minute OEI Power and/or Thrust (OEI: one engine inoperative)?

A

The power and/or thurst identified in the performance data for use when a power-unit has failed or been shut down during take-off, baulked landing or prior to a discontinued approach and limited in use for a continuous period of not more than 2 and 1/2 minutes additional to the 5 minute or 10 minute period at take-off power and/or thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What’s the Take-off Power and/or Thrust?

A

Means the power and&or thrust identified in the performance data for use during take-off, discontinued approach and baulked landing and

a) for aeroplanes and helicopters, limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 5 miutes
b) for aeroplanes only (when specifically requested), limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 10 minutes in the event of a power unit having failed or been shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What’s the Continuous OEI Power and/or Thrust?

A

Means the power and/or thrust identfied in the performance data for use after take-off when a power-unit has failed or been shut down, during periods of unrestricted duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s the Maximum Continuous Power and/or Thrust?

A

Means the power and/or thrust identified in the performance data for use during periods of unrestricted duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the indicated Airspeed (IAS)?

A

The speed of an aircraft as shown on its pitot static indicator calibrated to reflect standard atmosphere adiabatic compressible flow at sea level uncorrected for airspeed system errors. The IAS in knots may be identified by the abbreviation KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What's the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?
Indicated airspeed of an aircraft, corrected for position/pressure and instrument error. Calibrated airspeed is equal to TAS in standard atmosphere at sea level. The calibrated airspeed in knots may be identified by the abbreviation KCAS
26
What's the True Airspeed (TAS)?
Means the airsped of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air. Obtained by correcting EAS for density. The true airspeed in knots may be identified by the abbreviation KTAS
27
What's the Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?
Means the calibrated airspeed of an aircraft corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for the partioculart altitude. Equivalent airspeed is equal to calibrated airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea level. The equivalent airspeed in knots may be identified by the abbreviation KEAS
28
What's the Mach Number (M)?
Means the ratio of true air speed to the local speed of sounds
29
What's the Critical Altitude (Piston Engines)?
Maximum altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible to maintain, at a specified rotational speed without ram, a specified power or a specified manifold pressure. Unless otherwise stated, the critical altitude is the maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain, without ram, at the maximum contonuous rotational speed, one of the following: a) the maximum continuous power, in the case of engines for which this power rating is the same at sea level and at the rated altitude b) the maximum continuous rated manifold pressure, in the case of engines the maximum continuous power of which, is governed by a constant manifold pressure
30
What's Restart altitude?
An altitude up to which it has been demosntrated safely and reliably that it is possible to restart an engine in flight
31
What's the declared temperature?
The appropriate average monthly temperature, plus half its deviation from ISA. Used by airlines for scheduling landings so as to take account of temperature in a sensible fashion. Use of declared temperatures requires agreement by the National Authority
32
What's the Total Air Temperature?
Also called the indicated air temperature. The static air temperature, plus adiabatic compression (ram) rise, as indicated on the total air temperature indicator.
33
What's Outside Air Temperature?
The ambient temperature without any ram effect. Also called static air temperature (SAT) and corrected outside air temperature (COAT)
34
What's the TOW or TOM?
The gross weight of the aeroplane at the start of the take-off run
35
What's the MTOW or MTOM?
The maximum weight at which take-off is permitted by conditions other than available performance
36
What's the MTWA or MTOMA?
The maximum total weight of the aeroplane and its contents, at which it may take-off anywhere in the world, in the most favourable circumstances, and in accordance with the Certificate of Airwothiness in force at the time. Otherwise known as the Certificate of Airworthiness Limited TOM
37
What's the Maximum Allowed Take-off Mass?
The mass taking into consideration all possible limitations for take-off including restrictions caused by Regulated Take-Off Mass and Regulated Landing Mass
38
What's the Maximum Allowed Landing Mass?
The mass taking into consideration all possible limitations for landing including restrictions caused by the Regulated Landing Mass
39
What's the Landing Weight (LW or LM)?
The weight of the aeroplane at the time of landing, taking into account the weights of fuel and oil expected to be used on the flight to the aerodrome at which the landing is to be effected.
40
What's the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW or MLM)?
The maximum weight at which landing is permitted (other than in an emergency) by considerations other than available performance.
41
What's the MZFW or MZFM?
The weight of the aeroplane, above which all weight must comprise fuel. The limitation is determined by structural airworthiness requirements.
42
What's the Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW or RTOM)?
The maximum permitted take-off weight of the aeroplane at the start of the take-off run, derived by complying with all the requirements of the weight and performance regulations appropriate to the flight.
43
What's the climb limit?
A take-off or landing mass limit determined by the aircraft’s ability to make certain minimum specified still air climb gradients. Weight, altitude and temperature are three of the major variables affecting climb gradient, hence certain older documents may refer to the Climb limit as the WAT limit.
44
What's V3?
All Engines Screen Speed (V3). The speed at which the aeroplane is assumed to pass through the screen height with all engines operating on take-off.
45
What's Vx?
Best Angle of Climb Speed (Vx). Also Vxse which is best angle of climb speed single engine.
46
What's Vy?
Best Rate of Climb Speed(Vy). Also best rate of rate of climb speed single engine Vyse- Vyse is the “blue line’ speed on a light twin.
47
What's Vmbe?
Brake Energy Speed (Vmbe)- The maximum speed on the ground from which a stop can be accomplished within the energy capabilities of the brakes. Rejecting a take-off from a speed greater than Vmbe would result in the brakes failing before you stop.
48
What's V1?
Decision Speed (V1). An engine failure being promptly recognised, it is the speed at which the continued take-off distance and take-off run will not exceed the TODA and TORA. respectively and at which the accelerate-stop distance will not exceed the ASDA. If an engine failure is recognised before Vi the take-off must be rejected, if an engine failure is recognised at or above Vi it should normally be continued. Also defined as: V1 means the maximum speed in the take-off at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g. apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance available, V1, also means the minimum speed in the take-off, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF. at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required height above the take-off surface within the take-off distance available.
49
What's the Engine Failure Speed? Vef
Engine Failure Speed (VEF). The CAS at which the critical engine is assumed to fail.
50
What's the Final Take-off Speed? Vfto
Final Take-Off Speed (Vpro). The final take-off speed applicable to Class A aeroplanes to be achieved at the beginning of Segment 4 of the take-off flight path.
51
What's Vfe?
Flap Extended Speed (VFE). The highest speed permissible with wing-flaps in a prescribed extended position.
52
What's the Vle?
Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE). The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely flown with the landing gear extended.
53
What's the Vlo?
Landing Gear Operating Speed (VL0). The maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted.
54
What's the Vlof?
Lift-off Speed (VLof). The speed at which the aeroplane first becomes airborne.
55
What's the Vmc?
Minimum Control Speed in the Air (Vmc)- The minimum speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in flight with a maximum five degrees of bank, when the critical engine becomes inoperative, with the remaining engines at takeoff thrust. Often called VMCAto distinguish it from Vmcg-
56
What's the Vmcg?
Minimum Control Speed on the Ground (Vmcg)- The minimum speed on or near the ground at which the take-off can be continued safely when the critical engine becomes inoperative, with the remaining engines at take-off thrust.
57
What's the Vmcl?
Minimum Control Speed on Landing (Vmcl)- In an approach or landing configuration, the minimum speed at which it is possible, with one engine inoperative, to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits, while applying variations of thrust or power.
58
What's the Vmu?
Minimum Unstick Speed (Vmu)- The minimum speed at which it is possible to leave the ground with all engines operating, and climb without due hazard. Obtained at the highest nose-up angle and limited either by the length of the fuselage and the risk of tailscrape or by elevator power.
59
What's the Power Failure Speed Ratio? V1/Vr
Power Failure Speed Ratio (V1/Vr). The ratio of the two defined speeds for a given aeroplane weight and aerodrome characteristics, introduced into performance assessment for convenience, and used to determine V1, decision speed.
60
What's Vref?
The speed of the aeroplane, in a specified landing configuration, at the point where it descends through the landing screen height in the determination of the landing distance for manual landings.
61
What's Vr?
Rotation Speed (VR). The speed at which the pilot starts to rotate the aeroplane for take-off. It is a function of aeroplane weight and flap setting but can also vary with pressure altitude and temperature.
62
What's the Screen Height?
Screen Height. An imaginary screen that is just cleared by the lowest part of the aircraft with undercarriage extended and in an unbanked attitude when taking off and landing.
63
What's the Steady Initial Climb Speed? V4
Steady Initial Climb Speed (V4). The ‘all engines operating' take-off climb speed, used to the point where acceleration to flap retraction speed is initiated it should be attained by 400 ft above aerodrome level.
64
What's the V2?
Take-Off Safety Speed (V2). The lowest speed at which the aeroplane complies with those handling criteria associated with the climb after take-off: following engine failure. Also, the target speed to be attained at the screen height and used to the point where acceleration to flap retraction speed is initiated.
65
What's the Vat (Target Threshold Speed)?
Target Threshold Speed (Vat). The speed at which the pilot should aim to cross the runway threshold to ensure that the scheduled landing field lengths are consistently achieved.
66
What's the Vat0?
Vato threshold speed all engines operating.
67
What's the Vat1?
Vat1 threshold speed with a critical engine inoperative
68
What's the Vatmax?
Vatmax maximum threshold speed. The speed at the threshold above which the risk of exceeding the scheduled landing field length is unacceptably high. Go-around action should normally be taken if it appears that this speed will be exceeded; usually Vat+ 15 KT.
69
What's the Vmc?
VMC means minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative.
70
What's the Vmcl?
VMCL means the minimum control speed, approach and landing.
71
What's the Vmo/mmo?
Vmo/mmo means maximum operating limit speed.
72
What's Vne?
VNE means never-exceed speed.
73
What's Vra?
Vra means rough airspeed.
74
What's Vs?
Vs means the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
75
What's Vso?
Vso means the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
76
What's Vs1?
VS1 means the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed with the aeroplane in a configuration appropriate to the case under consideration.
77
What's the Vs1g?
Vs1g means the one-g stall speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force (normal to the flight path) equal to its weight.
78
What's the Vsr?
VSR means reference stall speed.
79
What's the Vsr0?
Vsr0 means reference stall speed in the landing configuration
80
What's the Vsr1?
VSR1 means reference stall speed in a specific configuration
81
What's the Vsw?
Vsw means speed at which onset of natural or artificial stall warning occurs
82
What's the V2min?
V2MIN means minimum take-off safety speed.

032 Performance (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions