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Navy Diver 1st Class Exam 2024 > Dive Med and Chamber Ops > Flashcards

Dive Med and Chamber Ops Flashcards

(86 cards)

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1
Q

what is the model of the comms system used in the TRCS?

A

Amcom 1 model 2810-05

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2
Q

what must the CO2 concetration never exceed?

A

1.5 SEV

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3
Q

what is the coolant mixture used in the ECS?

A

50/50 propylene glycol/ water blend

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4
Q

The average human body has approximately ____ liters of blood.

A

5 liters

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5
Q

Hemoglobin takes up ____% of the ______ it can carry when exposed to normal partial pressure in the lungs.

A

98% / oxygen

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6
Q

Oxygen rich blood is _______ in color.

A

Bright red

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7
Q

The normal respiration rate for an adult

A

12 - 16 breaths per minute.

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8
Q

The total lung capacity for a normal adult

A

4 - 5 liters

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9
Q

The tidal volume of a normal adult

A

1 liter at rest and 3 liters at work

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10
Q

The complete round of circulation in the body normally takes ___

A

::20

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11
Q

Define hypoxia

A

Abnormal deficiency of oxygen

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12
Q

A drop in ppO2 below ___ ATA causes the onset of hypoxic symptoms.

A

0.16 ATA

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13
Q

A diver may become helpless or die if the ppO2 falls below _____ ATA.

A

0.11 ATA

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14
Q

Describe a pulmonary edema

A

Accumulation of fluid in the lungs

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15
Q

Why does excess carbon dioxide speed the onset of CNS O2 toxicity.

A

CO2 dilates the arteries, increasing blood flow.

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16
Q

Describe asphyxia

A

Breathing stops. Both hypoxia & hypercapnia occur simultaneously.

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17
Q

T/F. Carbon monoxide poisoning is felt on ascent due to the ppO2 reducing during this time.

A

True

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18
Q

The 3 bone of the inner ear

A

Malleus, incus, stapes

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19
Q

What must happen for any POIS to occur?

A

Rupture of the alveolar lining

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20
Q

4 types of POIS’s

A

AGE; Pneumothorax; Mediastinal & Subcutaneous emphysema

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21
Q

Most common cause of AGE

A

Exhaustion of gas supply & emergency ascent

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22
Q

Symptoms of AGE/DCS Type II

A

Unconsciousness, paralysis, numbness, weakness, fatigue, paresthesias, vertigo, convulsions, dizziness, tremors, nausea/vomiting, “blow to the chest”

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23
Q

T/F. Divers may suffer from subcutaneous emphysema without suffering from mediastinal emphysema.

A

False. Mediastinal is a prerequisite for subcutaneous emphysema.

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24
Q

Treatment for mild mediastinal emphysema

A

100% oxygen on surface

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25
Is recompression for mediastinal authorized? ...if so, when?
Yes, for severe cases with recommendation from DMO who ruled out occurrence of pneumothorax.
26
A sudden, sharp chest pain followed by shortness of breath, labored breathing, rapid heart rate, weak pulse, &/or anxiety are symptoms of...
Pneumothorax
27
Treatment of pneumothorax
100% oxygen. Mild to severe cases might require a chest tube or other advance treatment
28
T/F. A tension pneumothorax may be treated with shallow recompression in order to vent the thoracic cavity.
True
29
Nitrogen narcosis happens at partial pressures higher than ___ ATA
4 ATA
30
Pulmonary oxygen toxicity can occur anytime the ppO2 exceeds _____ ATA.
0.5 ata
31
A ___ exposure at 1 ATA will produce mild symptoms & measurable decrease in lung function.
12 hours
32
A ___ exposure at 2 ATA will produce mild symptoms & measurable decrease in lung function.
4 hours
33
The first sign of pulmonary oxygen toxicity may be ....
Burning sensation on inspiration
34
CNS oxygen toxicity can occur whenever the ppO2 exceeds ____ ATA in a wet diver and ___ ATA in a dry diver.
Wet: 1.3 ata / Dry: 2.4 ata
35
Intermittent exposure of _____ to low ppO2 will reduce the risk of CNS O2 toxicity.
5 - 15 mins
36
3 phases of a convulsion
Tonic, Colonic, Postictal
37
How long after coming off of oxygen can signs/ symptoms of CNS oxygen toxicity occur?
2 - 3 minutes
38
High pressure nervous syndrome occurs during what types of dives?
Deep helium/ oxygen dives, 400-500 FSW on normal descent and slower descents may be as deep as 1000 FSW without symptoms
39
Treatment for immersion pulmonary edema.
100% surface oxygen and immediate transport to medical treatment facility.
40
Describe middle ear oxygen absorption syndrome and when it might occur.
Negative pressure that may develop in the middle ear after an oxygen dive.
41
The maximum shock pressure a diver should be exposed to is ___ PSI.
50 psi
42
The 6 steps to a neurological exam
Mental Status, Coordination, Motor Control, Cranial Nerves, Sensory, Deep Tendon Reflexes
43
The most important part of the neurological exam
Mental Status
44
The 6 steps to the coordination portion of a neurological exam
Walk, heel-to-toe, Romberg, finger-to-nose, heel shin slide, rapid movement
45
Portion of the neurological exam is characterized by the patients alertness, orientation, & though process
Mental Status
46
Most of the coordination tests concentrate on what?
Brain & inner ear function
47
T/F. Speed & accuracy are important during the finger-tonose test.
False. Accuracy is, speed is not.
48
How many cranial nerves are there?
12
49
Pairs of nerves that run out of the cranial cavity through various openings in the skull are known as
Cranial Nerves
50
What is the 1st cranial nerve?
Cranial Nerves
51
What is the 1st cranial nerve?
Olfactory
52
Which cranial nerve governs our sense of smell?
I. Olfactory
53
What is the 2nd cranial nerve?
Optic
54
Which cranial nerve governs vision?
II. Optic
55
Having a patient read or testing their peripheral vision test which craning nerve?
II. Optic
56
What is the 3rd cranial nerve?
Oculomotor
57
What is the 4th cranial nerve?
Trochlear
58
What is the 5th cranial nerve?
Trigeminal
59
What cranial nerve(s) control eye movement?
Oculomotor, abducens, trochlear
60
Observing pupil dilation or eye movement would be testing for which cranial nerve(s)?
Oculomotor, abducens, trochlear
61
What is the 6th cranial nerve?
abducents
62
Which cranial nerve governs the sensation of the forehead & face?
Trigeminal
63
Gental stroking of the forehead, face, & jaw tests which cranial nerve?
Trigeminal
64
What is the 7th cranial nerve?
Facial
65
Which cranial nerve governs facial muscles?
Facial nerve
66
Having a patient make various facial expressions (smile, wrinkle forehead, ect.) tests which cranial nerve(s)?
Facial nerve
67
What is the 8th cranial nerve?
Acoustic
68
Which cranial nerve governs balance & hearing?
Acoustic
69
Having a patient listen for a sound, such as a tuning fork, tests which cranial nerve?
Acoustic
70
What is the 9th cranial nerve?
Glossopharyngeal
71
Observation of the palate rise as a patient says "AAH" tests which cranial nerve?
Vagus
72
Which cranial nerve(s) are not normally tested?
Olfactory & Glossopharyngeal
73
What is the 10th cranial nerve?
Vagus
74
Which cranial nerve governs the gag reflex?
Glossopharyngeal
75
What is the 11th cranial nerve?
Spinal Accessory
76
The turning of the head or shrugging against resistance tests which cranial nerve(s)?
Spinal Accessory
77
What is the 12th cranial nerve?
Hypoglossal
78
Having the patient stick out their tongue & observing how it falls tests which of the cranial nerve(s)?
Hypoglossal
79
The scale for muscular strength
0 - 5; 0: paralysis, 1: Profound weakness, 2: Severe weakness, 3: Moderate weakness, 4: Mild weakness, 5: Normal
80
Running a pinwheel vertically from the top of the shoulder down to the groin is a test for which portion of the neurological exam?
Sensory
81
T/F. The arms and legs are tested in three locations: one on the upper and two on the lower.
True
82
There are ____ location(s) tested in the deep tendon reflexes
4
83
Name the location(s) of the deep tendon reflexes.
Biceps, triceps, knees, ankles
84
Nonexistent deep tendon reflexes are referred to as:
hypo-active
85
Excessive deep tendon reflexes are referred to as:
hyper-active
86
When testing deep tendon reflexes, what are you observing?
Type of reaction & if it is bilaterally equal.

Navy Diver 1st Class Exam 2024 (8 decks)

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