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DL Test Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the three grades of strains/sprains?

A

Grade 1: Ligament stretch without rupture
Grade 2: Partial ligament Rupture/tear
Grade 3: Complete Rupture/tear

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2
Q

What is the common diagnosis for anterior knee pain?

A

Patellofemoral Syndrome - Pain on the anterior side of the knee/under patella. Discomfort caused by prolonged sitting, crackling sounds, joint blockage, instable feeling

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3
Q

Describe Candida Equina Syndrome

A

Low back pain, unilateral/bilateral sciatica, parenthesis, loss/decreased sensitivity of bladder and bowels, lower extremity weakness

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4
Q

Define Compartment Syndrome

A

Increased pressure in the fascia, decreases circulation, caused by lesion in a compartment of muscle

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5
Q

What are the five Ps of Compartment Syndrome?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Pallor
  3. Paresthesia
  4. Paralysis
  5. Pulselessness
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6
Q

Describe Migraine pathophysiology

A

Migraine headaches are caused by a spreading wave of depolarization in the brain. This wave is associated with increased blood flow and then gives way to decreased blood flow

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7
Q

List Migraine symptoms

A
  • Photo/Phonophobia
  • Preceding aura in 20%
  • Tender scalp
  • Severe pain
  • Unilateral*
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8
Q

True or false, Tension headaches have an unclear mechanism?

A

True

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9
Q

List Tension Headache symptoms

A
  • Non-pulsatile*
  • Bilateral*
  • Does not worsen with activity*
  • NO associated N/V or Photo/phonophobia*
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10
Q

What are the management strategies for Tension headaches?

A

Tx: ASA 500-1000mg (analgesics) and strategies to reduce stress

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11
Q

Describe Cluster headache pathophysiology

A

Abnormalities with blood supply to the trigeminal nerve

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12
Q

List the symptoms of Cluster headache

A
  • Excruciating unilateral headache with autonomic
    signs*
  • Lacrimation
  • Miosis
  • Ptosis
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13
Q

Describe Sub Arachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Stroke with bleeding into the Sub-arachnoid space. Untreated leads to brain damage/death

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14
Q

List symptoms of Sub Arachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Thunderclap Headache

Look for SUM:
- Sudden
- Unlike previous
- Maximal at onset

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15
Q

Define Deep Vein Thrombosis

A

DVT is a clotting of blood in a deep vein (usually the calf or thigh) #1 cause of Pulmonary Embolism

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16
Q

What criteria should be used for DVT?

A

Wells Criteria

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17
Q

Define Pulmonary Embolism

A

PE is the blockage of 1 or more pulmonary arteries by Thrombi or Emboli which commonly originate from the lower limb

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18
Q

Describe PE presentation

A

Rapid onset dyspnea (SOB),
+/- chest pain (pleuritic),
+/- elevated RR/HR,
+/- anxiety

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19
Q

Define Stable Angina

A

Pattern of transient ExRx/Stress Related angina that is relieved with rest or nitro - no permanent Myocardial damage

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20
Q

Define Angina

A

Chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia (inadequate 02 to heart), imbalance in heart 02 supply/demand

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21
Q

Define Acute Coronary Syndrome

A

Syndrome caused by inadequate oxygenation of the heart muscle

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22
Q

List the three syndromes of ACS

A
  • Unstable Angina
  • Non-ST elevated MI
  • ST elevated MI
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23
Q

List of things that interfere with perfusion of heart muscle

A
  • Blockage or vasospasm, decreased 02 delivery (hypotension, anemia)
  • Increased 02 demand (exercise, sepsis) - death of myocardium*
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24
Q

What is the incubation period for the common cold?

A

Incubation period: 1-3 days

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25
Define Bronchitis
Acute inflammation of the lower airway (bronchi)
26
What is the primary cause of nausea/vomiting
GI illness
27
What is the secondary cause of nausea/vomiting
Pain/systemic issue
28
Define Hemorrhoids
Swollen collection of Blood Vessels that may prolapse outside of rectum or remain internal
29
Define dyspepsia (GERD)
Dyspepsia is discomfort or pain in the epigastrum (Typically described as burning).
30
What are red flags for GERD?
Difficult / Painful swallowing, fever, chest pain, SOB, weight loss, night sweats, hoarseness
31
Define Hepatitis
Inflammation of the liver at the cellular level
32
Define the Surgical (Acute) Abdomen
Any serious acute intro-abdominal condition (e.g appendicitis) for which emergency surgery must be considered
33
Define impaction
Excessive buildup of earwax
34
Define Barotrauma
Discomfort and possible damage in the ear due to differences in pressure between the inside and outside of the eardrum
35
Define Acute Otitis EXTERNA (Swimmer's Ear)
Inflammation of external auditory canal (usually Bacterial)
36
Define Acute Otitis MEDIA (Swimmer's Ear)
Inflammation/infection of the middle ear, usually secondary to URTI
37
Define Hordeolums
Localized swellings of the eyelid (generally caused by bacterial infection of hair follicle and adjacent sebaceous gland
38
List Rhinosinusitis PODS
- Pain, Pressure/Fullness* - Obstruction of the Nose - Discoloured (purulent) Discharge - Sense of Smell decreased - Increased pressure when leaning forward, tenderness upon Palpation of the sinuses, ear pain/pressure*
39
90% of Epistaxis is _
Anterior
40
What should be assessed/monitored during epistaxis
Hemodynamics (BP/HR/Skin)*
41
Bacterial Pharyngitis etiology
Caused by Streptococcus bacteria (Group A)
42
What are the six steps in the Chain of Infection?
- Infectious agent - Reservoir - Portal of exit - Mode of transmission - Portal entry - Host
43
What are the six steps in the Chain of Infection?
1. Infectious agent 2. Reservoir 3. Portal of exit 4. Mode of transmission 5. Portal entry 6. Host
44
List the five types of infectious Agents
1. Viral 2. Bacterial 3. Helminths 4. Fungi 5. Protozoa
45
List the four stages of infection
1. Incubation period (pathogen enters body) 2. Prodromal (S&S start) 3. Illness (Symptomatic) 4. Convalescence
46
Describe a food-borne illness
Two or more people in the household develop GI symptoms at the same time
47
True or False, parasitic worms reproduce in humans?
False, they cannot
48
Varicella Zoster Virus (Chickenpox) is contagious for how long?
Contagious until all scabs crust over (Infection = ~2weeks)
49
How long after infection do symptoms start for Mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr Virus)?
4-6 weeks after infection
50
List the duration of stages for Lyme Disease
1st Stage - 3 to 30 days 2nd Stage - 6 months 3rd Stage - Years after infection*
51
What is Dermatophytes(Tinea), and how is it managed?
Fungal Infection - Managed with antifungal powders and patient education
52
List the exam findings of Tinea Cruris (Jock Itch)
- Usually bilateral* - Well demarcated erythematous plaques* - Large, scaling, central clearing* - Vesicles may be present at margins - Pruritis is common (Often what causes patients to seek care) - Location: Often begins on the proximal medial thigh then spreads to groin and pubic regions, penis and scrotum usually clear (Unlike yeast infections), occasionally the gluteal cleft is affected too
53
What is Tinea Pedis?
Athlete's foot, most common fungal infection in the CAF
54
List the exam findings for Tinea Pedis (Athletes foot)
- Erythema* - scaling* - maceration* - burning* - possible bulla formation* - frequently asymptomatic* - pruritis*
55
What is the common name for Tinea Corporis?
Ring Worm
56
List the exam findings for Tinea Corporis (Ring Worm)
- Small well circumscribed plaques with or without scaling, pustules or vesicles - Peripheral enlargement and central clearing - Annular configuration with concentric rings - Light to bright red, sharply marinated and occur alone or in groups of 3-4 - Occasionally hyperpigmented - Can be mildly pruitic to intense itching - Locations: Exposed areas, trunk, limbs, face, neck (Excluding the feet, hands and groin)
57
Define Tinea Capitis
Fungal infection of the head
58
What are the common management strategies for scabies?
Wash bedding at high temp and use antihistamines/ steroid creams
59
Describe the exam findings for urticaria/hives
defined, pruitic, erythematous plaques with/without angioedema
60
What are Warts (Verrucae) caused by?
HPV

QL4 (11 decks)

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