DMT Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
In medical terminology, bilateral refers to?
a) Neither side
b) One side
c) Both sides
d) Back side
A
c) Both sides
2
Q
The wrist is ……. to the elbow
a) Proximal
b) Medial
c) Superior
d) Distal
A
d) Distal
3
Q
In the abdomen, the liver is located in the:
a) Right upper quadrant
b) Right lower quadrant
c) Left upper quadrant
d) Left lower quadrant
A
a) Right upper quadrant
4
Q
The breathing reflex is triggered by …… in the blood, detected by the brain.
a) High pO2
b) Low pCo2
c) High pCo2
d) Low pCo2
A
c) High pCo2
5
Q
Inadequate oxygenation of the cells is know as:
a) Hypoxia
b) Hypocapnia
c) Anoxia
d) Apnea
A
a) Hypoxia
6
Q
The top 7 vertibrae in the spin are known as the ……. spin
a) Thoracic
b) Lumbar
c) Coccyx
d) Cervical
A
d) Cervical
7
Q
Bone marrow manufactures which essential constituent?
a) Joint lubricating fluid
b) Red blood cells
c) Nerve cells
d) Reproductive cells
A
b) red blood cells
8
Q
The pleural membranes are found in:
a) The heart
b) The lungs
c) The brain
d The legs
A
b) The lungs
9
Q
The fragile air sacs in the lungs, where gaseous exchange takes place are called:
a) Bronchioles
b) Trachea
c) Lobes
d) Alveoli
A
d) Aveloi
10
Q
Which chamber of the heart is ultimately responsible for pumping the blood around the body via the aorta?
a) Right atrium
b) Left ventricle
c) Right ventricle
d) Left ventricle
A
d) Left ventricle
11
Q
Heart muscle is called:
a) Pericardium
b) Myocardium
c) Septum
d) Endocardium
A
b) Myocardium
12
Q
The clear, water fluid that protects the brain and spinal column is called:
a) Synovial fluid
b) Surfactant
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Plasma
A
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
13
Q
The structure responsible for helping to equalise pressure between the middle ear and the pharynx (ambient pressure) is called the:
a) Cochlea
b) Vestibule
c) Semicircular canal
d) Eustachian tube
A
d) Eustachian tube
14
Q
What is the approximate percentage of o2 in expired air?
a) 21%
b) 8%
c) 16%
d) 3%
A
c) 16%
15
Q
When conducting CPR, you should compress at a rate of ……. compressions per minute.
a) 60 to 80
b) 80 to 120
c) 100 to 120
d) 120 to 140
A
c) 100 to 120
16
Q
The ratio of 2 person CPR is ……. compressions to ….. ventilations:
a) 30:2
b) 15:2
c) 5:1
d) as many as possible
A
a) 30:2
17
Q
When preforming chest compressions, the chest should be compressed:
a) 5 to 6 cm
b) 5 inches
c) 1/2 the body length
d) 4 to 5 cm
A
a) 5 to 6 cm
18
Q
You are alone and have established that a casualty (not a child or drowning emergency) is not breathing normally and is unresponsive. You should now:
a) Dive rescue breaths for as long as it takes
b) Check for a pulse where you can
c) Check that the emergency medical services have been contacted
d) Begin CPR immediately
A
c) Check that the emergency medical services have been contacted.
19
Q
The preferred method to gain an airway, if no c-spine injury is suspected is:
a) Head tilt, chin lift
b) Jaw thrust
c) Hyperextension
d) None of the above
A
a) Head tilt, chin lift
20
Q
To carry out a basic secondary survey on a casualty you need:
a) BP cuff and stethoscope
b) Neurological kit
c) Advanced medical equipment
d) You own eyes, ears and hands
A
d) Your own eyes, ears and hands
21
Q
The main purpose of the secondary survey is to identify:
a) The need for specialist rescue and first aid equipment
b) Hazards to the rescuer and others in the vicinity
c) Injuries or illness that might become life-threatening
d) Opportunities to practice rescuer skills
A
c) Injuries or illness that might become life threatening
22
Q
When assessing the airway of an injured patient, you should check for:
a) Any obvious obstructions
b) Unusual colour of the lips
c) Increased breathing rate
d) Pupil response
A
a) Any obvious obstructions
23
Q
When checking for breathing during primary assessment, you should:
a) Listen for longer than 10 seconds
b) Fell for the radial pulse for longer than 10 seconds
c) Listen for breathing and feel for chest movement for up to 10 seconds
d) Insert a capnograph to confirm Co2 presence
A
c) Listen for breathing and feel for chest movement for up to 10 seconds
24
Q
Where a casualty is found to be unresponsive but is breathing normally, which of the following problems would be your next prime consideration:
a) Checking for spinal injury
b) Checking for capillary refill
c) Begin the secondary survey
d) Checking core temperature
A
c) Begin the secondary survey
25
A scale for describing the level of consciousness of an injured patient is:
a) AMPLE
b) RICE
c) AVPU
d) DRCABC
c) AVPU
26
The primary and secondary survey of an injured patient should be:
a) Repeated at regular intervals
b) Recorded on paper
c) Conducted by the same person
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
27
The functions of the skin include:
a) Protecting the body from environmental pathogens
b) Providing a barrier against infection
c) Distinguishing temperature, pain and pressure
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
28
A bruise is also known as a:
a) Laceration
b) Concussion
c) Avulsion
d) Contusion
d) Contusion
29
In a serous wound, if several layers of dressings become blood-soaked and the wound is still leaking, you should:
a) Remove all wet material, inspect the wound, reassess and stop bleeding
b) Leave all dressings in place and apply more bandages with direct pressure
c) Remove all except the lowest layer and apply more dressings
d) Leave it all in place, apply a tourniquet and rinse thoroughly with saline
a) Remove all wet material, inspect the wound, reassess and stop bleeding
30
Impaled objects penetrating any part of the body should:
a) Never be removed at the scene
b) Only be removed if firmly embedded
c) Be removed only if clear of vital organs
d) Always be removed to arrest internal bleeding
a) Never be removed at the scene
31
In a healthy adult, the blood clotting mechanism usually activates within about:
a) 2 minutes
b) 5 to 10 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 60 minutes
a) 2 minutes
32
The components of the blood responsible for carrying oxygen are:
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Albumins
a) Red blood cells
33
Which of the following components supply chemical factors needed to for a blood clot?
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Fibrocytes
c) Platelets
34
Bright red blood pumping from a wound indicates:
a) Arterial bleeding
b) Venous bleeding
c) Capillary bleeding
d) Lymphatic bleeding
a) Arterial bleeding
35
Dark red blood flowing steadily from a wound indicates:
a) Arterial bleeding
b) Venous bleeding
c) Capillary bleeding
d) Lymphatic bleeding
b) venous bleeding
36
The most acceptable method and order for controlling bleeding in a limb is:
a) Indirect pressure point, bandage, elevation
b) Tourniquet, indirect pressure, elevation
c) Bandage, direct pressure, elevation
d) Direct pressure, dressing, bandage
d) Direct pressure, dressing, bandage
37
Bleeding from an open head wound may be controlled by what method?
a) Haemostatic agent
b) Tourniquet
c) Direct pressure
d) Indirect pressure
c) Direct pressure
38
Proper care for an amputated part includes placing the part:
a) Wrapped in a dressing to prevent freezing and contained in a bag of ice
b) Immersed in warm, sterile, 0.9% saline at around body core temperature
c) Kept dry and cold in a plastic bag, surrounded by ice
d) Directly into cold, clean running tap-water
a) Wrapped in a dressing to prevent freezing and contained in a bag of ice
39
A collection of blood in a body cavity is
a) Ischemia
b) Hyperaemia
c) Haematoma
d) Contusion
c) Haematoma
40
If an unconscious patient responds to pain stimuli by opening their eyes, they earn .... on the AVPU scale
a) V
b) A
c) P
d) U
c) P
41
Shock is defined as 'inadequate capillary perfusion' This can be a factor of:
a) A heart condition and reduced cardiac output
b) Compromised vascular system / blood pressure
c) Poor lung / breathing efficiency
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
42
Anaphylactic shock is caused by:
a) Allergic reactions
b) Severe blood loss
c) Trauma
d) Sever infection
a) Allergic reactions
43
Which of the following type of shock are caused by blood or plasma loss?
a) Anaphylactic
b) Respiratory
c) Hypovolaemic
d) Cardiogenic
c) Hypovolaemic
44
When caring for a casualty, your first action after checking scene safety and response should be:
a) Re-establish circulation ASAP
b) Establish and maintain an open airway
c) Control catastrophic bleeding
d) Control minor bleeding
c) Control catastrophic bleeding
45
Blood pressure is directly influenced by all of the following except:
a) Blood volume
b) Fluid electrolyte balance
c) Breathing rate
d) Cardiac output
c) Breathing rate
46
If an unconscious patient loses their radial pulse but has a carotid pulse, and shows signs of hopovolaemic shock, you would expect their systolic blood pressure to be:
a) Less than 60 mmHg
b) Less than 90 mmHg
c) Less than 120 mmHg, but above 90 mmHg
d) all of the above
b) Less than 90 mmHg
47
How could you best improve the patient mentioned in last question?
a) Monitor closely
b) Give o2 and 2 litres of oral fluid
c) Give o2, insert large-bore cannular and administer 250ml of IV fluid and monitor
d) Give o2 and insert large-bore cannular and give 2 liters of fluid and monitor
c) Give o2, insert large-bore cannular and administer 250ml of IV fluid and monitor
48
The non-rebreather reservoir mask flow-rate should not fall below ..... liters per minute
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 15
d) 15
49
To achieve effective ventillatory support, you should deliver .... ml of oxygen at a rate of ..... breaths per minute
a) 300ml, 16 to 20 L / m
b) 500ml, 12 to 20 L / m
c) 800ml, 20 to 30 L / m
d) 1000ml, 16 to 24 L / m
b) 500ml, 12 to 20 L / m
50
The bag valve mask device with o2 reservoir can deliver up to ..... % of oxygen with flow rates at 10 - 15 L/m
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 95%
d) 95%
51
A saturation diver suffered a crush hand injury 3 days ago. The wound is not healing well and the surrounding area has become increasingly red and swollen. He has a raised temperature, a mottled and pale appearance, which is cool and clammy and he has reduced blood pressure. What is your diagnosis?
a) Hypovolaemic shock
b) Anaphylatic shock
c) Septic shock
d) Neurogenic shock
c) Septic shock
52
A normal pulse rate for an adult at rest is between:
a) 40 to 70 beats
b) 60 to 90 beats
c) 100 to 120 beats
d) 130 t0 150 beats
b) 60 to 90 beats
53
The pressure in the arteries when the hearts lower left chamber contracts is called:
a) Systolic
b) Diastolic
c) Auscultation
d) Pulse
b) Diastolic
54
A systolic blood pressure reading the indicates a serious problem in an adult is below ..... mmHg
a) 90 mmHg
b) 100 mmHg
c) 110 mmHg
d) 120 mmHg
a) 90 mmHg
55
Blood pressure can be measured with a stethoscope and a:
a) Hydrometer
b) Photometer
c) Pressoreceptor
d) Sphygmomanometer
d) Sphygmomanometer
56
A normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest is between:
a) 4 and 12 per minute
b) 12 and 20 per minute
c) 20 and 28 per minute
d) 28 and 36 per minute
b) 12 and 20 per minute
57
Cool, clammy and pale skin could indicate:
a) Heat stroke or high fever
b) Chemical burns
c) Mild fever
d) Hypovolaemic shock
d) Hypovolaemic shock
58
The best indication of a potential internal injury is:
a) The patients complaint
b) The type of injury
c) The mechanism of injury
d) The position of the patient
c) The mechanism of injury
59
The main purpose of a secondary survey is to:
a) Make a status decision
b) Check for an open airway
c) Discover problems that could pose a threat if they remain untreated
d) Evacuate patient & arrange transport to a secondary site
c) Discover problems that could pose a threat if they remain untreated.
60
The most common cause of snoring is upper airway obstruction from:
a) Foreign bodies
b) Stomach contents
c) The tongue
d) A swollen epiglottis
c) The tongue
61
A harsh high pitched whistle sound, caused by an obstruction of the upper airway is called:
a) Wheezes
b) Snoring
c) Rales
d) Stridor
d) Stridor
62
The tidal volume of a healthy adult at rest is approx ..... ml of air / breath
a) 500
b) 150
c) 800
d) 350
a) 500
63
Your patient presents unconscious, without a gag reflex, and moving less than 3 litres / min of air. You should do all of the following except:
a) Call for medical assistance
b) Perform bag-valve- mask ventilations
c) Administer 100% o2
d) Begin secondary survey
d) Begin the secondary survey
64
A high pitched, vibrating resonance heard when percussing the chest indicates:
a) Air trapped in the pleural space
b) Blood filling the plural space
c) Normal pleural fluid
d) Water filling the lungs
a) Air trapped in the pleural space
65
Which of the following is not a reason why you would be extremely careful before considering straightening a dislocation?
a) Risk of infection
b) Never and blood vessel damage
c) Risk of fractures
d) The onset of shock
a) Risk of infection
66
When performing a log-roll on a patient with a suspected spinal injury you need an optimum number of ...... people to perform the log roll.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
c) 4
67
In which of the following is there usually swelling but no deformity present?
a) Sprain
b) Closed fracture
c) Dislocation
d) Angulated fracture
a) Sprain
68
Commonly fractured bones in adult falls are wrist and the ..... ?
a) Scapula
b) Humerous
c) Femur
d) Clavicle
d) Clavicle
69
When treating a fractured clavicle you should use:
a) An inflatable splint
b) A traction splint
c) A sling and swathe
d) A rigid splint
c) A sling and swathe
70
When bandaging an injured hand, the hand should:
a) Be covered on the sides only by the splint
b) Be maintained in the position of function and immobilised
c) Not be totally immobilised
Be splinted to the eblbow of the opposite arm
b) Be maintained in the position of function and immobilised.
71
Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of musculoskeletal injuries?
a) Always splint the joints above and below the fracture site
b) Always splint the bones above and below the dislocation site
c) Always perform distal neurovascular tests before and after splinting
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
72
The extent of a burn injury depends upon which of the following factors:
a) Temperature causing the injury
b) Concentration of heat energy
c) Length of contact time
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
73
Which of the following is a complication of a serous burn?
a) Hypothermia
b) Hypovolaemia
c) Eshar (destroyed skin cells)
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
74
Standard management of unknown chemical burns includes:
a) Rinsing the area with saline water
b) Using a neutralising agent to flush for 10 mins
c) Leaving any corrosive materials on the skin
d) Vigorous irrigation with cool water for at least 20 mins
d) Vigorous irrigation with cool water for at lest 20 mins
75
A patient who has been just rescued from a fire should be suspected of having:
a) A pulmonary embolism
b) Pulmonary oedema
c) Carbon monoxide poisoning
d) Hyperactivity
c) Carbon monoxide poisoning
76
A burn involving the epidermis and dermis, producing blisters and pain is classified as:
a) Superficial
b) Partial thickness
c) Full thickness
d) Major burn
Partial thickness
77
And adult with burns to both arms, chest, abdomen and back has ..... % burns:
a) 36%
b) 45%
c) 54%
d) 63%
c) 54%
78
1 Bar is equal to:
a) 750 mmhg
b) 14.5 psi
c) 1000 mb
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
79
4000 ppm is equal to:
a) 40%
b) 4%
c) 04%
d) 0.04%
d) 0.04%
80
Henry's law relates to:
a) Pressure-volume relationship
b) Partial pressures
c) Solubility of gasses
d) Pressure-volume-temperature relationship
c) Solubility of gasses
81
The most significant draw back to using helium in breathing mixes is:
a) Increased narcosis
b) Increased heat transfer
c) Decreased solubility
d) Vocal change
b) Increased heat transfer
82
The recommended partial pressure for treatment in a recompression chamber is:
a) 1.4 bar absolute
b) 1.8 bar absolute
c) 2.4 bar absolute
d) 2.8 bar absolute
d) 2.8 bar absolute
83
Signs and symtoms of hypercapnia include:
a) Increased breathing rate, nausea, headache
b) Cool-clammy skin, low respirations, red lips
c) Paleness, irritable cough, tinnitus
d) Cyanosis, low pulse, chest pain
a) Increased breathing rate, nausea, headache
84
A pneumothorax is the collection of ........ between the pleural linings:
a) Blood
b) Air
c) Water
d) Surfactant
b) Air
85
What is the name of the tube that connects the throat with the middle ear?
a) Pinna
b) Cochlean
c) Tympanic
d) Eustacian
d) Eustacian
86
The intra-pleural pressure difference required to induce pulmonary barotrauma is approximately equivalent to:
a) 760 mmHG
b) 10 msw
c) 100 to 123 mb
d) All of the above
c) 100 to 123 mb
87
During a rapid ascent, expanding gas ruptures the diver's pleural linings; he will suffer from:
a) AGE
b) Pneumothorax
c) Aural barotrauma
d) Emphysema
b) Pneumothorax
88
The correct place for emergency needle decompression in a tension pneumothorax is:
a) 2nd intercostal space, mid cavicular line
b) 6th intercostal space, below arm pit
c) Anywhere in the upper chest quadrant
d) It should never be attempted
a) 2nd intercostal space, mid cavicular line
89
The most common form of barotrauma reporeted by divers is:
a) Pulmonary
b) Aural
c) Tooth
d) Gastric
b) Aural
90
The respiratory and cardiac centers are located in:
a) Spinal cord
b) Brain stem
c) Cerebrum
d) Cerebellum
b) Brain stem
91
Equalisation of the middle ear is through the:
a) Sinus
b) Eustachian tube
c) Tympanic membrane
d) External canal
b) Eustachian tube
92
The air that passes into and out of the lungs during normal breathing is:
a) Expiratory reserve volume
b) The vital capacity
c) Residual volume
d) Tidal volume
d) Tidal volume
93
A diver diving with a cold or chest infection is also liable to suffer from:
a) Baraotrauma
b) DCI
c) Carbon dioxide poisoning
d) Carbon monoxide poisoning
a) Baraotrauma
94
The inability to clear ears will result in:
a) Vestibular decompression sickness
b) Aural barotrauma
c) Cerebal DCI
d) Emphysema
b) Aural barotrauma
95
How long after resuscitation would you expect a secondary drowning to occur?
a) 0 to 6 hours
b) 6 to 12 hours
c) 12 to 24 hours
d) Every near drowning victim may develop lung problems up to 72 hours after the event.
d) Every near drowning victim may develop lung problems up to 72 hours after the event.
96
Shortly after a dive, a diver complains of pins and needles in his toes and pain around his waist. The pain is getting worse. What his your diagnosis?
a) Static neurological DCI with girdle pain
b) Acute cutaneous DCI
c) Progressive neurological DCI with girdle pain
d) Relapsing lymphatic DCI
c) Progressive neurological DCI with girdle pain
97
After an uncontrolled ascent to the surface, a diver using nitrox rapidly becomes confused and semi-conscious. What is probably wrong with him?
a) Acute static limb pain
b) Spontaneously improving neurological DCI
c) Arterial gas embolism
d) Progressive cutaneous DCI
c) Arterial gas embolism
98
During a closed bell dive, the bellman complains of a headache and sweating, and is breathing rapidly. What is probably wrong with him?
a) Hyperoxia
b) Hypercapnia
c) Hypothermia
d) Heat stroke
b) Hypercapnia
99
The maximum allowable concentration of Co2 for a long exposure time in a recompression chamber is:
a) 0.16 ATA
b) 5mb
c) 0.2 BA
d) 120 mb
b) 5 mb
100
Gas formation just below the skin around the nexck after a dive could be:
a) Medistinal emphysema
b) Subcutaneous emphysema
c) Pneumothorax
d) Interstitial emphysema
b) Subcutaneous emphysema
101
Bubbles forming in the tissues affect the body by:
a) Blocking the arteries and small vessels
b) Tearing tissue
c) Clotting the blood
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
102
The term for difficulty in breathing is:
a) Tachypena
b) Apnea
c) Hyponea
d) Dyspnea
d) Dyspnea
103
The best method of opening an airway in a suspected c-spine injury patient is:
a) Head tilt
b) Head tilt, chin lift
c) Head tilt, neck lift
d) Jaw thrust
d) Jaw thrust
104
What is the preferred order for dealing with an airway problem?
a) Head-tilt, chin lift: oropharyngeal: i Gel airway
b) Crichothyrotomy: Endo-tracheal intubation: Nasopharyngeal tube
c)Head tilt, chin lift, laryngeal mask, oropharyngeal tube
d) Laryngeal mask,Endo-tracheal intubation, jaw thrust
a) Head-tilt, chin lift: oropharyngeal: i Gel airway
105
In a recompression chamber, a cuff on a LMA or ET tube should be filled with?
a) Air
b) Petroleum jelly
c) Saline
d) Water based lubricant
c) Saline
106
Advantages of the LMA or supraglottic airway (iGel) over ET tube include:
a) Easier to insert
b) Reducce risk of trauma
c) Less equipment required
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
107
When inserting an artificial airway you should take no longer than ....... seconds between ventilations
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
a) 20
108
When using a suction device it is important to:
a) Suction everywhere even if you can't see the tip
b) Suction as you insert the suction tip
c) Suction only where you can see the tip of feel where it rests
d) Start the suction device on a high setting
c) Suction only where you can see the tip of feel where it rests
109
The correct length for an oropharyngeal airway (Guedel) is:
a) The distance from the incisors to the angle of the jaw
b) The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
c) Use size 6 for females and size 7 for males
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
b) The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
110
Unconscious patients could possibly reject an OP airway
True or False
True
111
Indications for the use of the nasopharyngeal airway include:
a) Base of skull fracture
b) Oral trauma
c) Nasal trauma
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
112
The correct method of inserting a laryngeal mask airway is:
a) Inflation, lubrication, insertion
b) Lubrication, deflation, insertion
c) Deflation, insertion, lubrication
d) Inflation, deflation, lubrication, insertion
d) Inflation, deflation, lubrication, insertion
113
Regarding size, it is safer to go for a larger LMA or iGel if you are in doubt
True or False
True
114
Correct placement of an iGel or LMA can be checked by
a) Ventilation it using using a Bag Valve Mask whilst listenting to the chest.
b) Listing for leaks while ventilating
c) Observing bilateral chest movement
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
115
Except in a few cases, if a patient is not breathing normally, the most important action to do next is:
a) Early onset of CPR
b) Notifying the emergency services
c) Checking for a pulse
d) Begin secondary survey
b) Notifying the emergency services
