DOH Programs Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

What is Republic Act 10152

A

Mandatory Infants
and Children Health Immunization Act

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2
Q

Mandatory Infants
and Children Health Immunization Act is what presidential decree?

A

P. D. 996

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3
Q

the process of introducing vaccine into the body before infection sets in providing ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY

A

immunization

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4
Q

“To reduce morbidity and mortality rates among infants and children from childhood immunizable diseases” is the objective of what program?

A

EPI

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5
Q

What does EPI stands for

A

Expanded Program in Immunization

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6
Q

What is the EPI percentage target of fully immunized child?

A

95%

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7
Q
A
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7
Q
A
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7
Q
A
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8
Q
A
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9
Q

what are the vaccine preventable diseases?

A
  1. tuberculosis
  2. diphtheria
  3. pertussis
  4. measles
  5. poliomyelitis
  6. tetanus
  7. hepatitis b
  8. diarrhea caused by rotavirus
  9. meningitis
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10
Q

what is the vaccine for tuberculosis

A

BCG

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10
Q

what does BCG stands for

A

bacillus calmette-guerin

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11
Q

what is the vaccine for diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus

A

DPT/ Pentavalent

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12
Q

it is the only vaccine given through oral

A

OPV or IPV

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13
Q

OPV or IPV vaccine is for what disease?

A

poliomyelitis

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14
Q

what is the vaccine for meningitis?

A

PentaHIB

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15
Q

when is the first dose of BCG and Hepa B given?

A

at birth

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16
Q

when is the first dose of DPT and OPV given?

A

6 weeks

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17
Q

when to give the measles vaccine?

A

9 months

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18
Q

what diseases can the Pentavalent HIB vaccine prevent?

A

Diphtheria
Pertussis
Tetanus
Hepatitis B
Hemophilus Influenza type B

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19
Q

OPV is contraindicated if the child is

A

vomiting or has diarrhea

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20
Q

Never inject DPT at the buttocks,
might hit sciatic nerve that can
cause _

A

sciatic nerve paralysis

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21
Q

The ONLY contraindication
applicable to all vaccines is a Hx of

A

severe allergic reaction

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22
A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of TT. Subsequently her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?
at least 6 months after birth
23
How many doses should a person take to reach the lifetime protection from tetanus?
5 doses
24
TT dose 2 should be given __
4 week safter first dose
25
TT 3 should be given when
6 months later
26
TT 4 should be given when
1 year later
27
what is the duration of protection for TT2?
3 years
28
what's the duration of protection for TT3?
5 years
29
what is the duration of protection for TT4?
10 years
30
is a system of storing, transporting and distributing of vaccines in the correct temperature and way from the factory to the vaccinated child.
cold chain
31
is a corner stone of the EPI, because the vaccine loses the efficacy if incorrectly kept
cold chain
32
who is the cold chain manager?
public health nurse
33
storage time frame of vaccines in regional level?
6 months
34
storage time frame of vaccines in provincial/district level?
3 months
35
storage time frame of vaccines in main health centers
1 month
36
Opened BCG and measles vaccines should be discarded after
4-6 hours
37
Opened DPT, OPV, Hepa B, and TT vaccines should be discarded after
8 hours
38
These vaccines are most heat sensitive and should be stored in the freezer with -15 to -25 degrees Celsius
OPV and measles
39
These are two vaccines that are least sensitive to heat
BCG and TT
40
DPT2 or DPT3 is not given to a child who has had convulsions or shock w/in 3 days the previous dose but you can give ___
DT
41
No food ___ minutes after giving OPV
30
42
Assess the child for allergy to __ before giving measles vaccine
egg
43
Measles vaccine should be given as soon as the child is ___ old regardless of whether othervaccines will be given on that day.
9 months
44
True or False Do not repeat BCG vaccination if the child does not develop a scar after the first injection.
True
45
is a major strategy for child survival, healthy growth and development and is based on the combined delivery of essential interventions at community, health facility and health systems levels.
IMCI
46
what does IMCI stands for
Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses
46
In improving case management skills of health workers, how many days does it take for basic course for RHMs, PHNs and MOHs
11 days
47
How many days training is for facilitators course?
5 days
48
Majority of these deaths are caused by 5 preventable and treatable conditions namely
pneumonia, diarrhea, malaria, measles and malnutrition
49
Who are the children covered by the IMCI protocol?
Sick children birth up to 2 months (Sick Young Infant) Sick children 2 months up to 5 years old (Sick child)
50
All sick children aged 2 months up to 5 years are examined for
general danger signs
51
all Sick Young Infants Birth up to 2 months are examined for
very severe disease
52
what is the level of management for mild diseases
home care
53
what's the level of management for moderate diseases
at RHU
54
level of management for severe diseases
urgent referral in the hospital
55
what are the danger signs?
Convulsions Abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken Unable to drink/breastfeed Vomits everything
56
what are the usual main symptoms?
Cough/ difficulty in breathing Diarrhea Fever Ear problems
57
what to assess in the OPD?
- NUTRITION - IMMUNIZATION AND VITAMIN A SUPPLEMENTATION STATUS - POTENTIAL FEEDING PROBLEMS
58
is a series of time-bound and evidence-based interventions for newborn babies and their mothers that ensure the best care for them.
EEINC
59
what does EEINC stands for?
Early Essential Intrapartal and Newborn Care
60
what is the ideal room temperature at the DR?
25-28 degrees Celsius
61
what is the purpose of maintaining the ideal temperature in the delivery room?
to prevent cold stressed and hypothermia in the baby
62
what can be used as an eye prophylaxis?
erythromycin and tetracycline ointment
63
FOUR CORE STEPS OF IMMEDIATE NEWBORN CARE OF THE EINC PROTOCOL
Immediate drying SKin-to-skin contact Proper cord clamping and cutting Non-separation of baby from mother and breastfeeding initiation
64
The ___ transfuses blood to the newborn after delivery, providing oxygen, nutrients and additional blood volume through the pulsating cord.
placenta
65
Keeping the newborn and mother together facilitates the newborn’s early initiation to the breastfeeding in the transfer of ___.
colostrum
66
Breast milk also provides many anti-infective substances like ___ that may stimulate and enhance the baby’s immune system.
immunoglobulins and lymphocytes
67
Studies have shown that breastfeeding reduces death due mainly to __ and lowers ___.
diarrhea respiratory tract infections
68
when is the immediate newborn care
first 90 mins
69
when is the essential newborn care?
from 90 mins to 6 hours
70
RA 9288 is known as the
Newborn screening act
71
The Act of Promulgating a Comprehensive Policy and National System for Ensuring Newborn Screening is RA no.?
RA 9288
72
the date when RA 9288 or newborn screening act has been enacted into law
April 7, 2004
73
The Newborn Screening Act was signed by whom? and when?
DOH Sec. Manuel Dayrit October 5, 2004
74
Is a public health program for the EARLY IDENTIFICATION of disorders that can lead to mental retardation and death
Newborn Screening
75
What disorders are tested in newborn screening?
Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH) Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) Phenylketonuria (PKU) G6PD Galactosemia Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)
76
Sick and premature babies must be screened by the __ day of life regardless of weight and age of gestation
7th
77
when will the result of NBS available?
7-14 working days
78
Most common inborn metabolic disorder; lack or absence of thyroid hormone which is essential to growth of the brain and the body
Congenital Hypothyroidism
79
A rare but dangerous inborn metabolic disorder which causes severe salt loss, dehydration and abnormally high levels of male hormones in both girls and boys
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
80
In cases of CAH, newborns that have that disease may die within how many days?
within 9 – 13 days
81
body lacks the enzyme called Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
G6PD Deficiency
82
unable to process certain part of the milk called galactose.
galactosemia
83
A rare condition in which the newborn cannot properly use one of the building blocks of protein called phenylalanine
Phenylketonuria
84
Excessive accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood causes ___
brain damage
85
have trouble breaking down certain amino acids, the building blocks of proteins. patients are at risk for brain damage, coma, or death
Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)
86
preferred method for collecting NBS Samples
Heel prick method
87
NBS Summary Report showing N means
Normal
88
NBS Summary Report INS means
Insufficient samples
89
NBS Summary Report NF means
No feeding
90
NBS Summary Report E means
Elevated for certain test
91
NBS Summary Report EC means
sample is less than 24 hours
92
NBS Summary Report P means
confirmed for G6PD deficiency
93
It is the increased screening panel of disorders from six (6) to more than twenty-eight.
Expanded Newborn Screening (ENBS)
94
It is defined as a set of life-saving interventions, that treat the major obstetric and newborn causes of morbidity and mortality.
EmONC
95
EmONC means?
Emergency obstetric and newborn care
96
Presidential Decree 491 of 1974 is known as the
Nutrition Act of the Philippines
97
they supervise, coordinate and evaluate the implementation of the national nutrition program
National Nutrition Council
98
RA 11148 is known as the
An Act Scaling Up the National and Local Health and Nutrition Programs Through A Strengthened Integrated Strategy for Maternal, Neonatal, Child Health and Nutrition in the First One Thousand (1000) Days of Life.
99
what are the 3 most common deficiencies
iron vitamin a iodine
100
is one of the interventions to address the health and nutritional needs of infants and children and improve their growth and survival.
micronutrient supplementation
101
addresses health and nutritional needs of 6-71 months old
Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy (ASAP), Garantisadong Pambata
102
- to improve the nutritional status of the populace including children. - legal basis: RA 8976
food fortification
103
4 Food Staples that require Mandatory Fortification
1. Rice with Iron 2. Sugar with Vitamin A 3. Oil with Vitamin A 4. Flour with Iron and Vitamin A
104
- it involves complementary feeding for wasted/stunted children and pregnant women with delivering low birth weight.
food assistance
105
provision of credit and livelihood opportunities to poor households especially those with malnourished children through linkage with lending and financial institutions
livelihood assistance
106
children whose height for age is below the standard
stunting
107
children who are thinner than normal
wasted
108
children who are both thinner and shorter than normal
wasted and stunted
109
Republic Act 11036 is known as
Mental Health Act
110
September 10 is what day
World Suicide Prevention Day
111
October 10 is what day
World Mental Health Day
112
2nd Week of October is the ___
National Mental Week