Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CISA > Domain 3: Information Systems Acquisition and Development > Flashcards

Domain 3: Information Systems Acquisition and Development Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three project management structures?

A

Functional, Project and Matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is responsible for approving and prioritising projects?

A

The IT steering committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of the IT strategy committee?

A

To guide and recommend the BoD on IT initatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are three types of code size evaluation?

A

SLOC, FPA and COCOMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is CPM?

A

Critical path methodology. It is a project evaluation method which uses a critical path that is made up of the tasks that are longest to complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is PERT?

A

Program Evaluatoin Review Technique. Another project evaluation method which considers three differe scenarios. Optimistic (best), pessimistic (worst) and normal (most likely).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are two proccess that should take place prior to the beginning of a project?

A

Business Case and Feasibility analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are all the elements in feasibility study report?

A

Scope, current process, requirements, approach, evaluation and review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is scope creep?

A

Scope creep refers to an uncontrolled project scope due to continuous changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens in the Feasibility Study phase? (SDLC Phases)

A

It is the first phase. The expected benefits are outlined against the cost of the implementation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens in the requirements phase? (SDLC Phases)

A

The second phase. Requirements of the new systems are detailed and documented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens in the Software Selection and Acquisition phase? (SDLC Phases)

A

The third phase. This should contain the architectural and technical specifications of the new system. Security requirements need to be considered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens in the development phase? (SDLC Phases)

A

The fourth phase. Development of the application takes place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens in the testing and implementation phase? (SDLC Phases)

A

The fifth phase. Unit testing, system testing and UAT are conducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens in the post-implementation phase? (SDLC Phases)

A

The sixth phase. Reviews are conducted and ROI is assessed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the objective of Agile development approach?

A

To produce releasable software in short iterations without putting too much time into paper-based deliverables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a characteristic of agile?

A

Systematic review after completion of each iteration to identify areas of improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a characteristic of waterfall approach?

A

Suitable for when requirements are well defined and do not undergo frequent changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a characteristic of a prototype approach?

A

It saves a considerable amount of time and cost but there is a risk of inadequate controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What development technique uses a prototype that can be frequently updated to address business requirements?

A

Rapid Application Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a benefit of object oriented development?

A

Object modules can be reused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What makes the OOSD method enable greated security?

A

It uses encapsulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a benefit of component-based development?

A

Ability to support multiple development envrionments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is, check digits?

A

A check digit is an extra digit, used for error detection. It helps to ensure that original data is not tampered or altered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are parity bits?

A

They are used to verify complete and accurate data transmission. Used as the simplest form of error-detecting code when data is transfered from one machine to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are checksums?

A

Similar to parity bits but have the capability to recognise multi-bit errors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is forward error control?

A

Can detect errors but can also help to correct the errors on the receiving computer

28
Q

What are the four data intergirty principles?

A

Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation and Durability

29
Q

What is meant by atomicity?

A

Atomicity ensures that a process is completely fully or not processed at all. If there is an error during transfer, then it should be rolled back.

30
Q

What is meant by consistency?

A

This ensures that all integrity conditions are appliced to each transaction in a database

31
Q

What is meant by isolation?

A

This ensures that each transaction is kept seperated from other transactions

32
Q

What is meant by durability?

A

This ensures that databases are resilient to survive any system failures

33
Q

What are limit checks?

A

This is for input control. To ensure that only data within a predefinded limit can be entered to the system

34
Q

What is automated systems balancing?

A

Helps to reconcile the total input with the total output. Helps to highlight if any transactions are lost during processing.

35
Q

What is DSS?

A

The decision support system is an interactive decision-making framework. It supports semi-structured or less structured decisions. It also enables flexibility.

36
Q

What is decision trees?

A

A questionnaire based process that helps lead a user through a series of choices.

37
Q

What is unit testing?

A

Where individual units are tested. For example, Module A is tested seperately to Module B

38
Q

What is intergrated testing?

A

This is where the connections between units is tested.

39
Q

What are all the testing phases?

A

Unit testing > intergration testing > system testing and final acceptance training

40
Q

What is the testing approach for unit testing?

A

Whitebox testing

41
Q

What is the testing approach when testing the network between two or more systems?

A

Interface testing

42
Q

When conducting regression tests, what datasets should be used?

A

The same dataset as previous

43
Q

What is a benefit to bottom-up testing approach?

A

Erorrs can be found early in critical modules

44
Q

What information source is best for detecting unauthorised input from a terminal?

A

The transaction journal because it records all transaction activity which can then be compared to authorised source documents

45
Q

What is the greatest benefit in implementing an expert system?

A

Capturing the knowledge and experience of individuals in an organisation

46
Q

What is the primary benefit to intergrating a total quality management into a softdev project?

A

End-user satisfaction because this is ultimately the measure of quality for staff.

47
Q

When discovering that a IS department does not use any formal documented methodology or standards, what is the best cause of action?

A

To document the informal standards and test for compliance.

48
Q

Which stage of the SDLC represents the last phase for software baselining to occur?

A

Design phase, any changes after this should go through a formal process

49
Q

What can a control total check be used for?

A

This can be used when a system has been converted and you need to check that all the data has been converted

50
Q

What does cohesion refter to?

A

Cohesion refers to the performance of a single, dedicated function

51
Q

What does coupling refer to?

A

Coupling refers to the independce of comparable units.

52
Q

What is the most effective way to control application maintenance?

A

By obtaining user approval for program changes

53
Q

What is one of the tasks during the research stage of the benchmarking process?

A

Benchmarking partners are identified

54
Q

What control is useful in detecting the duplication of a message?

A

Digital signature’s will ensure nonrepudication and avoid dummy/duplicate messages

55
Q

What is the greatest risk within an Electronic Data Interchange environment?

A

Unauthroised transactions

56
Q

What are Run-to-run totals?

A

Run-to-run totals provide the ability to verify data values through the stages of application processing. Run-to-run total verification ensures that data read into the computer were accepted and then applied to the updating process.

57
Q

What are the benefits of an EDI system?

A

EDI enables real-time visibility into transaction status. This in turn enables faster decision-making and improved responsivenessw.

58
Q

Why would an IS auditor be most concerned with the level of experience/skills contained in the knowledge base for an expert system?

A

Decision errors based on a lack of knowledge could have a severe impact on the organisation.

59
Q

At what point is best to implement controls to prevent data loss?

A

During data preperation

60
Q

What control is best to ensure batch data is completely and accurately transferred between systems?

A

Control total

61
Q

In an AI system, why should access to the knowledge base be restricted?

A

The knowledge base contains information related certain subjects so restricting access and protecting integrity is key

62
Q

What is a trace utility used for?

A

To get a picutre of the internal memory’s content at different stages during program execution

63
Q

What is most cruical for a data warehouse?

A

Accuracy of the source data, it is a preqequisite

64
Q

For a project, requirement specifications is the ultimate responsibility of who?

A

Project sponsor

65
Q

Who assumes overall responsibility for system development projects?

A

Project steering committee

CISA (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions