Domain 5: Exercise Technique + Training Instruction Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?

A

Semi-dynamic balance

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2
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

A

Amortization

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3
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

A

Isometric

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4
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

A

Visual system

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5
Q

What are ground reaction forces?

A

Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

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6
Q

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?

A

Somatosensory system

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7
Q

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?

A

Erector spinae

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8
Q

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

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9
Q

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?

A

Progressive overload

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10
Q

Agility plus which of the following
concepts are separate but related
concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?

A

Change of direction

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11
Q

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

A

Depressed and slightly retracted

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12
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?

A

Contraindication

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13
Q

During what phase of the stretch-

shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?

A

Amortization

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14
Q

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?

A

Ground reaction force

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15
Q

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

A

Stage 2

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16
Q

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?

A

Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

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17
Q

Which muscle acts to increase intra-

abdominal pressure?

A

Transverse abdominis

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18
Q

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?

A

Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

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19
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?

A

Static balance

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20
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

A

Muscular Development

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21
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?

A

Semi-dynamic balance

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22
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

A

Plyometric training

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23
Q

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of
what key term?

A

Synergistic dominance

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24
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

A

Volume and progression

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25
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Reaction to a signal
26
What does the eccentric phase of a | plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
27
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic inhibition
28
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
Muscle hypertrophy
29
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Strength Endurance
30
What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
31
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
Rate of force production
32
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Type I fibers are “slow twitch."
33
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
34
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
Agility
35
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Infraspinatus and teres minor
36
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscular hypertrophy
37
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Dynamic balance
38
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
39
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
Somatosensory system
40
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
41
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
Somatosensory system
42
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Erector spinae
43
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Isometric
44
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscular hypertrophy
45
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
46
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Visual system
47
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
75 minutes per week
48
During what phase of the stretch- | shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
49
Which muscle acts to increase intra- | abdominal pressure?
Transverse abdominis
50
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?
Ground reaction force
51
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
52
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Type I fibers are “slow twitch."
53
``` Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? ```
Tensor fascia latae
54
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
55
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic inhibition
56
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
57
What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Reaction to a signal
58
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
59
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Strength Endurance
60
Which exercise primarily targets the | transverse abdominis?
Drawing-in maneuver
61
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
62
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Depressed and slightly retracted
63
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
64
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
Speed
65
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?
Agility
66
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and progression