Domande Slovene 2021 Flashcards by Francesco Grosso

What happens after the critical shortening of telomeres?
a. Chromosomes stabilize, the cell can divide uncontrollably
b. DNA replication stops and the cell dies
c. Cell division is temporarily suspended
d. Cell duplication increases uncontrollably

b. DNA replication stops and the cell dies

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A change in the adrenal gland of size < 3 cm and a value of Houndsfield units < 10 is defined as an
adenoma using:
a. PET CT with Choline
b. US examination
c. MRI examinations
d. CT examinations

d. CT examinations

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Cough with extensive pleural effusion is:
a. Productive
b. Dry, irritating
c. Barking
d. There is none, except when leaning forward

b. Dry, irritating

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A paraneoplastic syndrome can occur with squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus, which
manifests itself as:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. B-symptoms
c. Syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion
d. Thrombocytopenia

a. Hypercalcemia
c. Syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion

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Medullary thyroid cancer and parathyroid hyperplasia/adenoma are features of the syndrome:
a. Lynch
b. MEN2A
c. Gorlin
d. LiFraumeni

b. MEN2A

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Complementary radiation for breast cancer - circle the correct statement:

a. Patients receive it simultaneously with preoperative chemotherapy

b. They receive patients after non-radical breast cancer surgery

c. We use it in all stages of breast cancer

d. They receive patients after radical breast cancer surgery

b. They receive patients after non-radical breast cancer surgery

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Immunotherapy with checkpoint inhibitors is effective in lung cancer

a. About a third of those treated, but for a long time

b. Only exceptionally

c. In most treated, but short-term

d. In all treated

a. About a third of those treated, but for a long time

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For the treatment of early stage I and II breast cancer:

a. Early breast cancer can only be observed

b. Most early breast cancers are first treated with surgery

c. Early breast cancer is operated on after preoperative radiation

d. Systemic treatment is used only exceptionally

b. Most early breast cancers are first treated with surgery

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Which of the following is a possible toxic effect of breast cancer treatment with hormone therapy?

a. Febrile neutropenia

b. Onycholysis

c. physical event

d. Peripheral neuropathy

c. physical event

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At what age do we recommend that children be tested if one of their parents has suffered from hereditary cancer?

a. At least 10 years before the oldest member of the family became ill

b. At least 5 years before the youngest member of the family became ill

c. Depending on the hereditary syndrome, we usually do not test before coming of age (observing the right “not to know”), except when the disease can already appear in childhood and we have options for early detection and prevention even in children (parents give consent)

d. Between 15 and 25 years of age

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Through which mechanisms do epigenetic factors work?

a. Through methylation of DNA on cytosines and through post-translational modifications of histones (e.g. histone acetylation), they change the expression of certain genes

b. They work through post-translational modifications of histones (e.g. Acetylation
histones), but they are not involved in cytosine methylation and do not affect the expression of certain genes

c. They methylate DNA at cytosines, but do not affect post-translational modifications of histones

d. They directly change the genetic record in DNA

a. Through methylation of DNA on cytosines and through post-translational modifications of histones (e.g. histone acetylation), they change the expression of certain genes

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In patients with aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas, the decision to choose treatment is influenced by:

a. CHADS2 index

b. International Prognostic Index (IPI)

c. Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI)

d. Child Pugh index

b. International Prognostic Index (IPI)

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In strongly emetogenic cytostatics:

a. We combine metoclopramide with a corticosteroid
b. We combine 5-HT3 antagonists with glucocorticoid and antagonists NK1 receptors
c. We combine a corticosteroid with an NK1 receptor antagonist
d. We only use a corticosteroid

b. We combine 5-HT3 antagonists with glucocorticoid and antagonists NK1 receptors

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The concept of therapeutic index: it is beneficial when:

a. Se curve of damage to normal tissues and curve of tumor growth control overlap

b. The normal tissue damage curve and the tumor growth control curve are close
together

c. They are the normal tissue damage curve and the tumor growth control curve distant from each other

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The following applies to the surgical treatment of patients with uterine cancer:

a. We remove the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries, depending on the stage and histological findings as well as regional lymph nodes

b. It is the method of choice regardless of the stage of the disease

c. It is the method of choice only for stage I patients

d. We remove the uterus, parametria and fallopian tubes

a. We remove the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries, depending on the stage and histological findings as well as regional lymph nodes

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Neuroendocrine tumors do NOT include:

a. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

b. Neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas

c. Carcinoid

d. Merkel cell carcinoma of the skin

e. small cell carcinoma of the larynx

a. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

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How does mortality from cancer change over time in Slovenia and why?

a. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is increasing because of always
more aggressive forms of cancer and the older age of the patients

b. Age-standardized cancer mortality is decreasing due to less cancer incidence and better awareness of the population

c. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is increasing due to increase in some risk factors, later detection and poorer treatment

d. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is decreasing due to the reduction of some risk factors, earlier detection and improved treatment

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Treatment with cytostatics can cause temporary or even permanent sterility.
The probability of reduced fertility depends on:

a. From the functioning of the thyroid gland and the age of the patient

b. From the use of corticosteroids and their dosage

c. From the age of the patient, the type of cytostatic, the dose of the cytostatic, the duration of the treatment, and any previous disorders in the functioning of the gonads before the cytostatic treatment

d. From mediastinal irradiation and radiation dose

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The most common sites of systemic metastasis in head and neck cancers are:

a. Systemic metastases are rare in this type of cancer; when they occur, they usually affect the lymph nodes in the neck

b. In nasopharyngeal cancer, metastases are less common than in other ENT cancers and typically involve bone most often

c. Lungs, liver, bones

d. In cancer of the major salivary glands, cysts are more common than in other ENT cancers and typically most frequently affect gastric structures

c. Lungs, liver, bones

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Squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck most often arises:

a. In the throat

b. In the oral part of the pharynx

c. In the salivary glands

d. In the oral cavity

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Vacuum needle puncture of the breast: which of the statements is not correct?
a. The examination is used for preoperative evaluation of the lymph nodes
b. Several tissue samples are taken with one puncture
c. The examination is performed under local anesthesia
d. The examination is mainly carried out for the diagnosis of microcalcifications

d. The examination is mainly carried out for the diagnosis of microcalcifications

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The treatment of regionally advanced colon cancer is:

a. Preoperative radiochemotherapy, then surgery, then postoperative chemotherapy
b. First surgery, then postoperative radiochemotherapy
c. Radical surgery is enough
d. Surgery, then postoperative chemotherapy

d. Surgery, then postoperative chemotherapy

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Ten percent of patients with differentiated thyroid cancer develop distant metastases

during follow-up in:

a. Lymph nodes, lungs

b. Bones, liver

c. Lungs, bones

d. Lungs, liver

c. Lungs, bones

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Damage to the lung parenchyma after cancer treatment:

a. It is only a result of ionizing radiation in the lung area

b. It is the result of ionizing radiation in the lung area, treatment with certain cytostatics and/or lung surgery

c. It is only the result of an operation on the lungs

d. It is only a consequence of treatment with certain cytostatics

b. It is the result of ionizing radiation in the lung area, treatment with certain cytostatics and/or lung surgery

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Which therapeutic option is not suitable for the treatment of menopause breast cancer patients? a. LHRH analog b. Trastuzumab c. Tamoxifen d. Docetaxel

a. LHRH analog

The aim of "en bloc" resection is: a. Removal of the tumor, lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels between the tumor and the lymph nodes in one piece b. Removal of all tumors in multicentric breast cancer c. Removal of the tumor along with a layer of healthy tissue d. Removal of both breasts in a patient with bilateral breast cancer

a. Removal of the tumor, lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels between the tumor and the lymph nodes in one piece

Excision of the puncture site along with the entire puncture channel is necessary at surgery: a. Merkel cell carcinoma b. Breast cancer c. Lymphoma d. Melanoma e. Sarcoma

e. Sarcoma

The syndrome of inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone occurs due to: a. Insufficient reabsorption of water in the kidneys and excessive excretion b. Insufficient reabsorption of water in the kidneys and insufficient excretion c. Excessive reabsorption of water in the kidneys and excessive excretion d. Excessive reabsorption of water in the kidneys and insufficient excretion

d. Excessive reabsorption of water in the kidneys and insufficient excretion

Which statement about pain is false? a. Visceral pain results from the activation of visceral nociceptors and is always well localized and spasmodic b. Neuropathic pain is the result of damage or pathology in the nervous system c. Nociceptive pain is the result of irritation of peripheral nociceptors due to a pathological process d. Somatic pain occurs upon activation of primary somatic afferent pathways and is usually well localized

a. Visceral pain results from the activation of visceral nociceptors and is always well localized and spasmodic

Which enzyme is a non-specific marker of cellular damage? a. Lipase b. GGT c. ALT d. LDH

d. LDH

We define the stage of lymphoma: a. With the Ann Arbor classification b. There is no need to define stages, because we treat all patients in the same way c. With TNM classification d. With FIGO classification

a. With the Ann Arbor classification

In patients with anaplastic oligodendroglioma and rearrangement chromosomes 1p/19q: a. It is an effective targeted therapy with bevacizumab and irinotecan b. It is an effective chemotherapy according to the PCV scheme c. Survival is shorter d. It is an effective targeted therapy with bevacizumab

b. It is an effective chemotherapy according to the PCV scheme

34. A significant advance in the treatment of distant metastases of cutaneous melanoma is represented by treatment with: a. IFN-alpha b. BRAF inhibitors c. Decarbazine (DTIC) d. Cisplatin or carboplatin

b. BRAF inhibitors

Decreased kidney function after cancer treatment is caused by: a. Only surgery on the kidneys b. Ionizing radiation in the area of the kidneys, treatment with certain cytostatics (e.g. platinum derivatives) and/or surgery on the kidneys c. Only treatments with certain cytostatics, e.g. Platinum derivatives d. Only ionizing radiation in the kidney area

b. Ionizing radiation in the area of the kidneys, treatment with certain cytostatics (e.g. platinum derivatives) and/or surgery on the kidneys

Radical radiation for cervical cancer: a. It is also the treatment of choice for patients with the disease in the initial stage b. It is the treatment of choice only for stages IIIB-IVA (here it would be correct if it were written IIB-IVA) c. It is always performed in combination with calf and brachytherapy d. It is only considered when the patient refuses surgical treatment

c. It is always performed in combination with calf and brachytherapy

Oncological genetic testing is usually provided as part of preventive health care to all individuals where there is a probability of the presence of a pathogenic variant: a.7% b.It is always indicated c.1% d. 10%

d. 10%

Serum tumor markers are NOT suitable: a. To monitor response to treatment b. To detect disease recurrence c. For screening and disease detection

c. For screening and disease detection

Fine needle aspiration biopsy of an enlarged lymph node: a. It is very painful and must be performed under general anesthesia b. It is not sufficient to definitively define the histological type of lymphoma c. It has no diagnostic value in lymphomas d. Allows examination of a larger tissue sample

b. It is not sufficient to definitively define the histological type of lymphoma

The definition of febrile neutropenia is: a. A temperature of 38 degrees C was measured once and a reduced number of neutrophils below 0.5x109/L b. Once measured temperature above 38.5 degrees C or at least twice in 2 hours above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 1x109/L c. Once measured temperature above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 1x109/L d. Once measured temperature above 38.5 degrees C or at least twice in 2 hours above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 0.5x109/L

d. Once measured temperature above 38.5 degrees C or at least twice in 2 hours above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 0.5x109/L

The most suitable method for defining an enlarged lymph node in the neck in a patient with (or suspected of) cancer in the head and neck area is: a. Colon biopsy b. Extirpation c. Fine needle aspiration biopsy

c. Fine needle aspiration biopsy

Incidence of highly malignant gliomas: a. It peaks at the age of 30 b. It reaches its peak at the age of 70 c. It is greater in women d. Does not change with age

b. It reaches its peak at the age of 70

Paraneoplastic symptoms are most common in which type of lung cancer? a. In a typical carcinoid b. In small cell lung cancer c. In non-small cell lung cancer d. They are equally represented in all forms of lung cancer

b. In small cell lung cancer

Cytopathological examination of the breast is used to define: a. Atypical changes in the breast that are visible with ultrasound or mammography b. Hereditary breast cancer risks c. Tactile changes in the breast d. Microcalcination

c. Tactile changes in the breast

What we usually do not notice in the last hours of life in a dying cancer patient a. High blood pressure b. Noises c. Absences of radial pulses d. Increased body temperature

a. High blood pressure

Which of the following is not among the etiological factors in the development of head and neck cancer: a. Frequent angina b. Human papillomavirus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Wood dust e. Smoking and alcohol f. Gastroesophageal reflux

a. Frequent angina

Which statement is correct? a. Germ cell tumors are common cancers b. A distinction is made between seminoma and non-seminoma germinal tumors c. Metastatic seminoma has a poor prognosis d. Germ cell tumors are the most common cancer in men over 60 age

b. A distinction is made between seminoma and non-seminoma germinal tumors

Ependymomas most often arise: a. In the spinal cord b. In the cortex area c. In the posterior cranial fossa d. In the deep white matter of the brain

c. In the posterior cranial fossa

Which groups of dangerous factors do we know according to International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC)? a. Group I – sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to humans; group II – the causal relationship has not yet been proven, but it is probable, group III – factors that cannot be classified in group I, II or IV; group IV – substances/factors that are probably not carcinogenic to humans b. Group I – non-carcinogenic substances, group II – carcinogenic substances c. Group I - sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to humans, Group II - sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to animals and cell cultures, Group III - not a carcinogenic substance/agent

a. Group I – sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to humans; group II – the causal relationship has not yet been proven, but it is probable, group III – factors that cannot be classified in group I, II or IV; group IV – substances/factors that are probably not carcinogenic to humans

Primary prevention: a. It is the task of primary healthcare only b. It mainly deals with individuals at risk from their families c. It gives guidelines for a lifestyle that can be used to prevent the formation cancer d. It means a series of systematic reviews

c. It gives guidelines for a lifestyle that can be used to prevent the formation cancer

Glove resection of the upper lung lobe is performed due to: a. A centrally located tumor b. A tumor that outgrows the interlobar fissure c. A centrally located tumor that outgrows the upper lobar bronchus and partially grows into the main bronchus d. A tumor that grows into an artery

c. A centrally located tumor that outgrows the upper lobar bronchus and partially grows into the main bronchus

As a rule, we start treating children who fall ill with sarcoma: a. With preoperative chemotherapy? b. With preoperative radiation c. With surgery d. With immunotherapy

a. With preoperative chemotherapy?

The basic rule in sarcoma surgery is: a. The surgeon must not directly see the surface of the tumor during the operation, yet but less is allowed to open it b. The margin of safety should be as thin as possible, since any remaining malignant cells can be destroyed by radiation c. If the sarcoma occurs in a limb, the first indication is limb amputation d. If the first operation is not radical, we can correct it with the second one

d. If the first operation is not radical, we can correct it with the second one commento nel file indica A

Important factors that can affect the outcome of the disease are: a. The state of general performance and accompanying diseases b. General performance status, comorbidities and prevalence diseases c. Disease prevalence d. The state of general performance and prevalence of disease

b. General performance status, comorbidities and prevalence diseases

Tracking late effects after childhood cancer treatment: a. It takes up to 20 years after treatment b. It takes up to 5 years after treatment c. Is not necessary d. It must be experiential

d. It must be experiential

The most common type of bone sarcoma in children is: a. Hordom b. Gigantocellular tumor c. Chondrosarcoma d. Osteogenic sarcoma

d. Osteogenic sarcoma

Because we do not have an effective screening test for anal cancer, it is most cancers are widespread at diagnosis a. The first statement is false, the second is correct b. Both statements are correct and causally related c. Both statements are incorrect d. The first statement is correct, the second is false e. Both statements are correct and not causally related

c. Both statements are incorrect "First correct , 2 false "

The most common histological type of ureteral cancer is: a. Carcinosarcoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Transitional cell carcinoma

Mark the incorrect statement about bone grafts: a. Hypercalcemia can be a complication of bone grafts b. The most important and effective treatment for bone grafts is specific oncological treatment c. Most often, bone grafts appear in the long bones of the limbs d. Bone grafts can be osteolytic, osteoblastic or mixed

c. Most often, bone grafts appear in the long bones of the limbs

Pheochromocytoma applies to: a. Genetic counseling and testing is not necessary b. It is found in 10% of patients with hypertension c. It develops from the C cells of the adrenal gland d. It occurs as part of the MEN2 syndrome

d. It occurs as part of the MEN2 syndrome

Timom (mark the wrong answer): a. Five-year survival is below 50% b. A thymoma is a well-differentiated tumor usually confined to the thymus and often associated with paraneoplastic syndromes such as myasthenia gravis c. Thymomas are the most common tumors of the anterior mediastinum d. The optimal treatment of thymomas is thymectomy with radical surgical removal of the tumor

a. Five-year survival is below 50%

Standard treatment for patients with glioblastoma is: a. Surgery with radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and bevacizumab and additional therapy with temozolomide and bevacizumab b. Surgery with radiotherapy and additional chemotherapy according to the PCV scheme c. Surgery with radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and additional therapy with temozolomide d. Radiotherapy with temozolomide and adjunctive therapy with temozolomide

c. Surgery with radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and additional therapy with temozolomide

Classification of tumors (eg TNM classification system) is important because: a. With it, we find out how long the disease lasts b. It is used to determine the extent of the tumor or The extent of the disease and has predictive value c. With it, we find out how much the treatment will cost d. We are interested in heredity

b. It is used to determine the extent of the tumor or The extent of the disease and has predictive value

Which statement is true about nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)? a. About 50% of children say hello b. Treatment usually begins with surgery c. It is the most common abdominal tumor in children d. It occurs most often at the age of 10-15 years

c. It is the most common abdominal tumor in children

An elevated value of calcitonin in the blood is characteristic of: a. Anaplastic thyroid cancer b. Hurtle's carcinoma c. Medullary thyroid cancer d. Follicular thyroid cancer

c. Medullary thyroid cancer

In addition to surgery, which method is used in the treatment of osteosarcomas? a. Immunotherapy b. Target therapy c. Chemotherapy d. Irradiation

c. Chemotherapy

Complementary systemic treatment after ovarian cancer surgery applies to: a. It is only given at the same time as radiation b. It is only necessary for patients with macroscopic residual disease after operation c. We most often use a combination of platinum preparations and taxanes? d. The use of targeted drugs is never indicated

c. We most often use a combination of platinum preparations and taxanes?

The purpose of preventive use of growth factors for granulocytes is: a. Provide treatment with palliative chemotherapy b. Provide timely radical surgery c. Shorten the duration of neutropenia and thereby reduce the risk of febrile neutropenia and infection, and in patients with potentially curable cancer, ensure treatment with full doses of cytostatics at regular intervals d. Provide treatment with neoadjuvant chemotherapy

c. Shorten the duration of neutropenia and thereby reduce the risk of febrile neutropenia and infection, and in patients with potentially curable cancer, ensure treatment with full doses of cytostatics at regular intervals

Lymphadenectomy of regional cutaneous melanoma tumors is followed by radiotherapy: a. With extranodal spread of the tumor b. Never c. Always d. Only in the case of parasites in the salivary glands

a. With extranodal spread of the tumor

The following are the following in order of frequency of illness: a. Cancers of the esophagus, liver, stomach b. Cancers of the stomach, liver, esophagus c. Cancers of the liver, esophagus, stomach d. Cancers of the liver, stomach, esophagus e. Cancers of the stomach, esophagus, liver

b. Cancers of the stomach, liver, esophagus

Tick the correct statement regarding venous thromboembolism (VTE): a. Patients with advanced pancreatic, lung and stomach cancer very rarely suffer from VTE b. Patients with idiopathic thrombosis have a higher risk of occult cancer c. Independently mobile ambulatory cancer patients have a higher risk of occurrence of VTE as hospitalized cancer patients d. The risk of VTE in cancer patients is reduced by chemotherapy treatment decreases compared to non-oncology patients

b. Patients with idiopathic thrombosis have a higher risk of occult cancer

Linear Energy Transfer (LET) is: a. Amount of ionization – the amount of emitted radiation energy per unit volume substances b. Ionization density – amount of emitted radiation energy per unit path v substances c. Ionization rate - the amount of radiation energy emitted per unit of time v substances

b. Ionization density – amount of emitted radiation energy per unit path v

Catecholamines and their metabolites can be a tumor marker in: a. Ewing's sarcoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Retinoblastoma

b. Neuroblastoma

In case of severe and life-threatening complications of systemic treatment a. We immediately proceed with systemic treatment b. Systemic treatment is postponed until the condition improves, when treatment is reintroduced, drug doses are adjusted according to the level of the unwanted effect, exceptionally, in the case of very serious complications, specific systemic treatment is definitively discontinued c. We refer the patient to another institution for treatment d. We start radiation treatment

b. Systemic treatment is postponed until the condition improves, when treatment is reintroduced, drug doses are adjusted according to the level of the unwanted effect, exceptionally, in the case of very serious complications, specific systemic treatment is definitively discontinued

Complications after radical prostate cancer treatment: a. They are no longer relevant nowadays b. Urinary incontinence is more common after radiation therapy than after operation c. They are possible after surgical treatment and radiation treatment d. Erectile function is always preserved after surgery

c. They are possible after surgical treatment and radiation treatment

What are the primary sources of cancer registry data? a. Information on causes of death b. Cancer application forms, registration is not mandatory c. The cancer registry collects data from hospital systems d. Application forms, reports on causes of death; reporting cancer is legal mandatory

d. Application forms, reports on causes of death; reporting cancer is legal mandatory

What is not the basic tool of the pathologist in the diagnostic process of cancer of unknown origin: a. Immunohistochemical staining b. Determination of cytokeratins c. A light microscope d. Electron microscopy

d. Electron microscopy

In hybrid nuclear medicine imaging techniques: a. Image fusion does not affect the sensitivity and specificity of the examination b. Structural changes are usually detected before metabolic changes c. We regularly apply an iodine contrast agent (intravenous and per os) d. We use computed tomography (CT) for attenuation correction gamma rays in the body and obtaining additional information about the anatomy of the investigated area

d. We use computed tomography (CT) for attenuation correction gamma rays in the body and obtaining additional information about the anatomy of the investigated area

What are the stages in the course of malignant cell transformation - carcinogenesis and how do they follow each other? a. Initiation, progression, promotion b. Initiation, carcinogenesis, progression c. Promotion, initiation, progression d. Initiation, promotion, progression

d. Initiation, promotion, progression

Cancer with distant tumors or With IV. Stadia is rarely curable, except in patients who have: a. If we treat patients aggressively b. Malignant melanoma, kidney cancer c. Lymphoma; testicular cancer, an oligometastatic form of the disease d. Breast cancer, colorectal cancer

c. Lymphoma; testicular cancer, an oligometastatic form of the disease

Heart failure caused by anthracyclines usually presents as: a. Ischemic heart disease due to coronary artery stenosis b. Congestive cardiomyopathy due to myocyte and myofibril damage c. Aortic stenosis d. Chronic pericarditis

b. Congestive cardiomyopathy due to myocyte and myofibril damage

The most commonly used radiopharmaceutical for PET/CT examination is: a. 68-Ga-PSMA b. 68-Ga-DOTATATE c. 18-F-FDG (fluoro-deoxy-glucose) d. F-choline

c. 18-F-FDG (fluoro-deoxy-glucose)

What is not considered an oncological surgeon? a. He usually conducts the diagnosis of the patient before starting the treatment b. He mostly uses conventional surgical techniques c. It deals with the question of how to operate, not so much when and why to operate, as other professions deal with this d. It requires in-depth knowledge of oncology

c. It deals with the question of how to operate, not so much when and why to operate, as other professions deal with this

The correct sequence of treatment for differentiated thyroid cancer is: a. Surgical treatment, radiotherapy, hormone therapy b. Hormonal therapy, surgical treatment, radioactive iodine therapy c. Radioactive iodine therapy, surgical treatment, hormone therapy d. Surgical treatment, radioactive iodine therapy, hormonal therapy therapy

d. Surgical treatment, radioactive iodine therapy, hormonal therapy therapy

High-risk patients with febrile neutropenia are: a. Patients who are treated on an outpatient basis b. Patients with elevated temperature above 40 C c. Patients with solid tumors, inflammation of the mucous membranes, diarrhea d. Patients with hematological malignancies, inflammation of mucous membranes, diarrhea

c. Patients with solid tumors, inflammation of the mucous membranes, diarrhea

What is the most common symptom of GIST? a. Losing weight b. Abdominal pain c. Digestive problems (diarrhea, constipation) d. Bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract

d. Bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract

Which immune cells are involved in antitumor immunity? a. Only effectors of acquired immunity (T and B lymphocytes) b. Only effectors of innate immunity (macrophages, dendritic cells, natural killer cells, natural killer T cells, T lymphocytes, granulocytes) c. Effectors of non-specific (innate) immunity (macrophages, dendritic cells, natural killer cells, natural killer T cells, T lymphocytes, granulocytes) and effectors of specific (acquired) immunity (T and B lymphocytes) d. Macrophage subsets TAM and MAM, and platelets

c. Effectors of non-specific (innate) immunity (macrophages, dendritic cells, natural killer cells, natural killer T cells, T lymphocytes, granulocytes) and effectors of specific (acquired) immunity (T and B lymphocytes)

Soft tissue sarcomas most commonly occur in: a. Head and neck b. Lower limbs c. Upper limbs d. To the carcass

b. Lower limbs

Which tissues are classified in the group with a high degree of sensitivity to ionizing agents a. Gonads, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue b. Gut, muscle, brain c. Skin, brain, spinal cord d. Gonads, spinal cord, skin

a. Gonads, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue

Kidney cancer most often manifests itself as: a. The classic triad of symptoms – hematuria, lumbar pain and a typical tumor b. Paraneoplastic syndrome c. Randomly discovered disease, asymptomatic d. Disturbance in passing urine

c. Randomly discovered disease, asymptomatic

Iodine-125 emits a. Alpha rays b.Beta rays c. Gamma rays d. Protons e.Neutrons

c. Gamma rays

It is determined by the number of reticulocytes a. The level of erythropoiesis b. Blood iron c. The degree of anemia in chronic diseases

a. The level of erythropoiesis

On an x-ray image of a bone, less rays are absorbed through a part of the bone, how does this tumor mass appear on the image? a. Darker b. Brighter c. We cannot see this on an x-ray d. The rays are absorbed in the same way as in normal bone

a. Darker

What is malignant cell conversion? a. decreased level of methylation of proto-oncogenes b. increased level of methylation of proto-oncogenes c. formation of cells with a malignant phenotypeè d. expression of acquired characteristics of a malignant phenotype all of the above

c. formation of cells with a malignant phenotypeè

2. What is a negative feature of the presence of a blood vessel? (for the tumor) a. better supply with nutrients b. and oxygen faster removal of metabolites c. increased no. Immune cells at the site of the tumor

c. increased no. Immune cells at the site of the tumor

Which is not a characteristic of cancer a. cells self-sufficiency for own proliferation b. unresponsiveness to division signals c. unresponsiveness to apoptosis-inducing signals d. own production of nutrients

d. own production of nutrients

4. Which virus has no carcinogenic factor? HBV a.HBV b.EBV c.HTLV-1 d.HSV-1 e.HIV

d.HSV-1

If they are hypermethylated, a. tumor suppressor genes are silenced b. oncogenes are activated c. genes responsible for repairing DNA errors are activated d. tumor suppressor genes are activated

a. tumor suppressor genes are silenced

Which cells are capable of metastasis? all tumor cells tumor cells with the most stem cell mutations tumor stem cells tumor cells with special receptors

tumor stem cells

What is true about oncogenes? are expressed recessively are expressed dominantly are expressed codominantly are not expressed

are expressed dominantly

p53 (two correct answers): is a gene that regulates apoptosis is a proto-oncogene is a tumor suppressor gene located in the nucleus located in the cytoplasm

is a tumor suppressor gene located in the nucleus

Apoptosis inhibitors a. stimulate the secretion of cytochrome c from mitochondria b. block the secretion of cytochrome c from mitochondria c. are transcription factors d. are proteases

b. block the secretion of cytochrome c from mitochondria

Marks incorrect statement A. telomeres are repeating sequences of 6 nucleotides at the end of linear chromosomes and care for correct DNA transcription B. telomerase is an enzyme responsible for the renewal of telomeres, C. telomerase is active in stem and most somatic differentiated cells, D. reactivation of telomerase leads to the development of cellular immortality

C. telomerase is active in stem and most somatic differentiated cells,

In what percentage of primary malignant tumors does telomerase reactivation occur? 20-25% 1% 60-70% 85-90%

85-90%

What is characteristic of the 1st phase of the antitumor immune system? A. establishing a balance between active removal of tumor cells and growth the number of cells in the tumor b. avoidance of tumor cells by the immune system, c. development of immunity against tumor cells and their elimination

c. development of immunity against tumor cells and their elimination

What are tumor specific antigens? A. antigens expressed only in one type of tumor B. antigens present in the tissue of different tumors but not in normal adult tissues C. antigens present in the tumor and normal tissue from which the tumor originates

B. antigens present in the tissue of different tumors but not in normal adult tissues

When does the immune remodeling process begin? A. few months after the formation of tumor cells in the organism B. immediately after the formation of tumor cells in the organism C. after the elimination of tumor cells

B. immediately after the formation of tumor cells in the organism

What is not true of the phase of balance between the functioning of the immune system and the proliferation of tumor cells? A. balance is created between the destruction of tumor cells and an increase in their number, B. the result of this process is the selection of less immunogenic tumor cells, C. changes in immunological genes are important, D. the elimination of tumor cells is no longer intensive

D. the elimination of tumor cells is no longer intensive

What is the result of tolerance to tumor cells? A. better functioning of the immune system against tumor cells B. uninterrupted tumor growth and metastasis C. reduced harmfulness of tumor cells D. better prognosis

B. uninterrupted tumor growth and metastasis

In what way do tumor cells NOT evade the immune system? A. active interference with the functioning of the immune system by the formation of immunosuppressive factors B. reduced recognition of tumor antigens C. secretion of toxins D. insensitivity to apoptotic and/or necrotic signals mediated by effector cells

C. secretion of toxins

Which two cytokines are the most common immunosuppressive cytokines secreted by tumors IL6 TNF-b Interferon ÿ IL10 TNF-a

TNF-b IL10

The frequency of disease among non-Hodgkin's lymphomas is increasing. More than 400 patients with newly discovered malignant lymphomas are treated annually in Slovenia. a. both statements are correct and causally related. b. the first statement is correct, the second is incorrect. c. both statements are correct and not causally related. d. both statements are incorrect.

c. both statements are correct and not causally related.

2. The most characteristic clinical sign of malignant lymphomas: a. peripheral edema, b. enlarged lymph nodes, c. swelling of the joints, d. sudden TT above 40C

B. enlarged lymph nodes,

Which stage corresponds to the definition: Affected 1 lymph node area and limitedly affected 1 non-lymphatic organ or tissue? Isn't this stage ll? It is yes a. stage I b. stage II c. stage III d. stage IV

a. stage I

The most common early complications of the treatment of malignant lymphomas are: (combination of answers): anemia arthritis reduced thyroid function due to previous radiation hair loss peripheral nerve damage inflammation of the mucous membranes appearance of a second malignancy

anemia hair loss peripheral nerve damage inflammation of the mucous membranes

1. Late side effects of chemotherapy are: a.alopecia b.secondary malignancies c.Diabetes d.skin hyperpigmentation e.heart failure

a.alopecia b.secondary malignancies d.skin hyperpigmentation e.heart failure

2. Cisplatin causes the following late effects: visual a. impairment b. speech impairment c. hearing impairment d. kidney failure

c. hearing impairment d. kidney failure

3. Which cytostatic is most likely to be cardiotoxic? a. busulfan b.anthracyclines c.ifosfamide d.cisplatin

anthracyclines

Cytostatics mainly cause the formation of: a. leukemia b.solid tumors, c.hypothyroidism d.Chron's disease

a. leukemia

Ionizing radiation mainly causes the formation of a.solid tumors (breast cancer, thyroid cancer) b.Hodgkin's lymphoma c.Hashimoto's thyroiditis

a.solid tumors (breast cancer, thyroid cancer)

Defects of the gastrointestinal tract after radiation include: a.adhesions b.ulcers c.Whipple's disease d.obstruction e.Chron's disease

a.adhesions d.obstruction

What psychological disorders occur after cancer treatment (especially in young people)? a. depression, b. emotional disorders, c. mental decline, d. psycho-organic changes

b. emotional disorders, c. mental decline, d. psycho-organic changes

8. Which endocrine glands are most often damaged after treatment for childhood cancer? a.pituitary gland b.hypothalamus c.adrenal gland d.gonads

a.pituitary gland c. adrenal gland d. gonads

Which secondary malignant neoplasms in patients who have survived cancer appear after completed treatment first (have the shortest latent period)? a. thyroid cancer b. breast c. cancer leukemia or lymphoma brain tumor

c. cancer leukemia or lymphoma brain tumor

Domande Slovene 2021 Flashcards

(124 cards)