Doug Flashcards
(247 cards)
1
Q
What is the runway slope
A
+/- 2%
2
Q
What is the T/O and landing tailwind component
A
15 kts/10 kts
3
Q
What are the max gear and flap speeds?
A
Observe placards
4
Q
What is the max operating altitude?
A
41,000
5
Q
What is the max T/O and landing alt?
A
8,400/ high alt landing system: 12,000
6
Q
When must the overwing exit handle covers be in place?
A
Prior to departure, when pax are carried
7
Q
When must the slide retention bar be installed?
A
On revenue flights, during taxi, t/o, and landing
8
Q
What is the max demonstrated t/o and landing crosswind limit?
A
33 kts/36kts - w/w/o winglets
9
Q
Must the standby altimeters meet the RVSM accuracy accuracy requirements?
A
No
10
Q
What is the max inflight difference between between the Capt and FO altitude displays for RVSM operations?
A
200’
11
Q
What is the max on ground difference between the Capt and FO altitude displays for RVSM operations
A
SL - 5000’ : 50’, 5001-10,000: 60’
12
Q
What is the max on the ground difference between the Capt or the FO altitude display and the field elevation?
A
75’
13
Q
What is the typical -800 max taxi weight?
A
156,000 lbs
14
Q
What is the typical -800 max takeoff weight?
A
155,500 lbs
15
Q
What is the typical -800 max landing weight?
A
144,000
16
Q
What is the typical -800 max zero fuel weight?
A
136,000 lbs
17
Q
What is the max cabin differential (relief valves)?
A
9.1 psi
18
Q
What PACK position cannot be utilised during takeoff, approach, or landing if the engines are the PACKS bleed air source?
A
High
19
Q
What takes precedence with regard to PACK operation; limitations or QRH procedures?
A
QRH procedures
20
Q
What is the speed limit without stiffened elevator tabs after ground deicing/anti-icing until applicable maintenance procedures have been accomplished?
A
270KIAS
21
Q
Which trim
system
use is prohibited when
the autopilot is
engaged?
A
Aileron
22
Q
Above what altitude can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
A
400’ AGL
23
Q
What is the minimum altitude for single channel autopilot usage during approach?
A
50’ AGL (100’ radio altitude when Field Elevation is >8400’).
24
Q
What color
are Max and Min limit display markings?
A
Red
25
What color are Caution limit display markings?
Amber
26
When must engine ignition be ON?
Takeoff,
landing, in heavy rain, and during anti-ice usage.
27
When is intentional selection of reverse thrust prohibited?
In flight
28
What are the APU bleed and electrical usage altitude limitations?
0-10,000'/Bleed
and Electric: >10,000'-17, 000/ Bleed or Electric: >17,000'/Electric only.
29
When must the APU Bleed Valve be closed?
-Ground air connected and isolation valve open
-Engine #1 bleed valve is open
-Engine #2 bleed valve and the isolation vale are open.
30
What is the thrust limitation with a DUAL BLEED Light illuminated?
Not above idle thrust.
31
What is the max altitude for flap extension?
20,000'
32
What is the limitation on flap
usage during holding?
Prohibited in icing conditions.
33
What is
the minimum altitude
for speed brake
usage?
1000‘
34
How long after operating the ALTERNATE FLAP position switch can it be reengaged?
15 seconds
35
How much cooling time must be allowed after an alternate flap extension/retraction cycle: i.e., 0 to 15 and back
to 0?
5 minutes
36
Above what latitude must ADRIU alignment not be attempted?
78 degrees,
15 minutes
37
When is weather radar usage prohibited?
In
a hangar, within 50' of any personnel, within 50' of fueling operations or a fuel spill.
38
Does the hangar restriction apply when the weather radar is in the TEST mode?
No
39
What is the maximum fuel tank temperature?
49°C
40
What is the minimum tank fuel temperature prior to takeoff and inflight?
The higher of 3°C above the freezing point of the fuel used or -43°C.
41
What must the lateral imbalance between the main tanks be scheduled to?
Zero
42
What is the allowable random fuel imbalance between the main tanks?
1000 lbs
43
The main tanks must be full when the center tank contains, how much fuel?
1000 lbs
44
Is an assumed temperature reduced thrust takeoff allowed with anti-skid inoperative?
No
45
When can the brakes
be applied?
After touchdown
46
When is the Flight Data Recorder activated during normal operations?
Whenever the flight recorder is powered
47
How long is the Voice Recorder recording?
120 minutes
48
What is operable on the #1 ACP in the degraded mode?
VHF-1
only
49
What are the components of the Automatic Flight System?
The Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) and the Auto-Throttle system
50
What are the components of the AFDS?
Two individual Flight Control Computers (FCC) and a single
mode control panel (MCP).
51
What indicates a mode on the MCP can be deselected?
A light in the mode select switch.
52
What do the FMA indications mean
reading
left
to right?
Autothrottle, Roll, Pitch (PFD/ND)
53
If engaged, what thrust do the A/T's set when TO/GA is selected for a GA?
Thrust advances toward the reduced go around N1 to produce 1000 to 2000 p m rate of climb. (a subsequent TO/GA selection after reduced go around N1 has been set will set the full go around N1 limit).
54
How is normal alignment of the IRS's initiated?
By rotating the mode selector from OFF to NAV.
55
What is the normal indication when the IRS selector is rotated from OFF to NAV?
The IRS performs a short power test, during which
the amber ON
DC light illuminates.
56
What is the indication on the IRS panel when VERIFY POSITION or ENTER IRS POSITION messages appear in the CDU?
Flashing white align lights.
57
What are the IRS comparison tests?
The first test is comparison between present position with last known position; the second test compares
entered latitude with system
generated latitude.
58
What is the indication if the second IRS comparison test fails after the present position is entered 2 consecutive times?
The
FAULT
light will illuminate.
59
What are the indications on the IRS displays fi the 2 Transfer Busses are unpowered?
The R-IRS amber ON CD light si illuminated for the first
five minutes, and
then it extinguishes as the R-IRS is powered down. The L-IRS display is normal.
60
Besides the illumination of the IRS ON DC lights when AC power is removed, what else happens if the airplane is on the ground?
The ground-call horn in the nose wheel well sounds.
61
How are the
overwing exit doors held in
place?
They are held in place by mechanical locks and cabin pressure.
62
When do the overwing emergency exits flight locks engage?
Three of the four Entry/Service doors are closed and
Either engine is running, and
The airplane air/ground mode logic indicates that the airplane is in the air or both
thrust levers are advanced.
63
What is the indication if the flight lock does not engage when commanded
The
associated overwing exit DOOR amber light and the MASTER CAUTION lights will illuminate.
64
When do the overwing emergency exits unlock?
When
any one of the required elements for locking the exit is missing, or with loss of DC power.
65
If the emergency exit lights are turned ON at the aft F/A panel, can they be turned OFF by using the switch in the
Cockpit?
No
66
When do the emergency exit lights illuminate automatically?
When the switch is in the armed position, when power to DC bus #1 fails, or if AC power is turned Off
67
What provides emergency exit lighting for the flight deck?
A separate bulb located in the aft DOME light.
68
What supplies oxygen to the flight deck?
A single oxygen cylinder
69
What level of oxygen is the mask regulator capable of providing?
An air/oxygen mixture, 100% oxygen, and 100% oxygen under pressure.
70
What supplies the cabin oxygen system?
Chemical
oxygen generators
71
What activates the cabin oxygen system?
Either
by switch activation on the flight deck overhead panel, or automatically by a pressure switch at a cabin
altitude of
14,000
72
How long do the chemical oxygen generators supply 100% oxygen?
12 minutes
73
What is
the purpose of the
PBE's?
Crew use when combating fires or entering areas of smoke/fumes
74
Water extinguishers should not
be used on what type of fires?
Electrical or grease type fires
75
How can the ELT be activated?
Manually by turning on the switch, or automatically when the preset G-Load limit is reached
76
How are the primary flight controls moved?
Conventional controls, (wheel, column, rudder pedals) mechanically linked to
hydraulic power control units (PCU)
77
What hydraulic systems) are the power source for
the PCU's?
Either the Aor B
78
Which primary flight controls can
be operated manually?
Ailerons and Elevators
79
What are the secondary flight controls?
The high lift devices:
- TE Flaps
- LE Flaps and Slats (LE devices)
80
When does the rudder become aerodynamically effective during takeoff?
Between 40kts and 60kts
81
When airborne what happens to the roll rate when the speed brakes are
deployed?
It is greatly increased.
82
What is the Capt.'s control wheel connected to? How?
To the ailerons by cables to the aileron PCU's through the aileron feel and centering unit.
83
What is the FO's control wheel connected to? How?
To the spoiler PCU's by cable through the spoiler mixer.
84
How is the identification of a jam of the ailerons or spoilers accomplished?
If the spoilers are jammed, the transfer mechanism allows movement of the ailerons when the Capt.'s wheel is moved. If the ailerons are jammed, it allows movement of the spoilers when the FO's wheel is
moved.
85
What are the pilot's control columns connected to? How?
They
are connected to the elevator PCU's by cables.
86
Are the two elevators connected? How?
Yes, by a torque tube.
87
What causes the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
The elevator feel computer senses excessive (25%) differential pressure caused by the failure of either hydraulic system or a failure of the elevator pitot system
88
What happens when a Flt Control Switch is moved to the
"Stby Rud"
position?
Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
Shuts of the related hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder by closing the flight control shutoff valve
Opens the standby rudder
shutoff valve
Deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light when the standby rudder shutoff
valve opens
Allows the standby system
to power the rudder and thrust reversers
Illuminates the STBY RUD ON Master caution, and flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights.
89
When is the STBY Hydraulic
pump turned on automatically?
During loss of system Aor Bwith Aor BFLT Control switch ON with the flaps extended and airborne, or wheel spin up>60kts. or
-
When the Main Rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
90
What is the indication of an FFM trip?
STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) Lights illuminated (with no other abnormal
hydraulic indications).
91
What is the indication of Trailing Edge Flap Uncommanded Motion?
The flap position indicator disagrees with the flap lever position and there is no flap split indication.
92
What happens when the up/down switch is momentarily positioned down?
Leading
edge devices extend to the full extend position
93
Once extended by the Alternate Flaps can the LEDs be retracted by the standby hydraulic system?
No
94
How are the trailing flaps alternately extended?
Electrically while holding the up/ down switch in
the down position.
95
When do the leading edge slats go to the full extend position normally?
Beyond trailing edge flap position 5.
96
When do the autoslats operate?
When
the TE Flaps are in position 1-5 and stall angle is approached the slats move to the full extend position
97
When do the autoslats return to the extend position?
When the pitch
angle is sufficiently reduced below
the stall critical attitude.
98
What are the inputs to the Elevator Feel Computer?
Stabilizer position, airspeed from the vertical stabilizer pitot tubes, and hydraulic systems A and B
pressures.
99
What positions the horizontal stabilizer?
A single electric motor, or manually by rotating the stabiliser trim wheel.
100
How many speed modes do the main electric and autopilot trim systems control.
Two
each: high speed with flaps extended and low speed with flaps retracted.
101
If engaged, what happens to the autopilot when main electric trim is activated?
It disengages
102
When are control
column cutout switches activated?
When control
column
movement is opposite trim
movement.
103
What does the Speed Trim System (STS) accomplish?
It improves flight characteristics during low gross weight, aft CG, and high thrust setting operations when the autopilot is not engaged.
104
What systems enhance stall identification and control? How?
1. Yaw damper, 2. Elevator Feel Shift (EFS) module, and 3. Speed Trim
System enhance stall identification and control.
During high AOA operations the SMYD reduces yaw damper commanded rudder movement,
The EFS increases system A hydraulic pressure to the elevator feel and centering unit which produces four times normal feel pressure,
The STS trims the stabilizer nose down as the airspeed decreases toward the stall speed and enables trim above stick shaker AOA.
105
Can any of the three hydraulic systems that can operate the rudder overcome
a jammed rudder?
Yes
106
When is the Hyd Pressure operating the rudder reduced?
During normal operations above 135kts
107
When above 135kts, how much is hydraulic system A pressure reduced?
50%
108
Which hydraulic system operates the yaw damper?
System B
109
Where is the fuel temperature sensed?
In the No.1 Tank
110
How many AC fuel pumps are used for each tank?
2
111
With all pumps operating, fuel is being pumped from which tank? Why?
Center tank due t o higher pump output pressure.
112
Are the engines capable of suction fuelling?
Yes
113
Can the engines
suction feed from
the center
tank?
No
114
Wil the engines suction feed throughout the operating envelope
of the aircraft
Thrust deterioration or flameout may occur at high altitude.
115
What is the
crossfeed
valve's power source?
Battery bus
116
Where are the spar fuel shutoff valves located?
At the engine - mounting wing stations
117
What controls are used to operate the spar valve?
The engine fire switch and the engine
start lever.
118
What kind of pump is the fuel scavenge pump?
It is a jet pump
119
When does the fuel scavenge pump begin to operate?
When the #1 main tank quantity is about one-half and the #1 FWD switch is on.
120
How long does the scavenge process operate after it has been activated?
For the remainder of the flight
121
What does the fuel quantity indication system display?
It calculates usable fuel in each tank.
122
What system is used for fueling and defueling?
Asingle-point pressure fueling station in the right wing.
123
What are the two basic operating principles of the electrical system?
* There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power.
* The source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing
source.
124
AC Power can be supplied by what source?
- two engine driven integrated drive generators IDGs)
- An APU Generator - External Ground Power
125
What can cause IDG low oil pressure?
*IDG failure
*Engine shutdown
*IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
*IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch
126
What does an illuminated GEN OFF BUS blue light indicate?
IDG is not supply power to the
related transfer bus.
127
How can you tell the APU Generator is available for use?
The blue APU GEN OFF BUS Light is illuminated.
128
What does an illuminated blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE Light indicate?
Ground
power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards.
129
What is the normal power source for the AC STBY Bus? Alternate power source?
AC transfer bus 1 powered by generator 1
-
If the AC source powering either transfer bus fails or is disconnected, the transfer bus can be powered by any available AC source through the tie bus with the bus tie breakers (BBs).
-
Bat
or Bat
Charger through
the Inverter.
130
When does the Cross Bus Tie Relay open automatically?
At glideslope capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach.
-
Bus transfer switch positioned to OFF.
131
What is the order of load shedding if the APU is the only power source
airborne?
All galley and main busses are shed, then the IFE busses if needed.
132
When
is the Hot
Bat Bus powered?
When the hot battery bus is connected to the battery.
133
What are the power
sources for
DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2?
The respective TR's,
or shared if the cross bus tie
relay is closed.
134
What is the power source for the DC STBY Bus?
TR 1, or shared with TR 2 if the cross bus tie relay is closed
135
What is the backup power source for the AC Stby Bus?
The inverter powered by the battery or the battery charger if operating.
136
What are the components of the STBY Power System?
*static inverter*AC standby bus
*DC standby bus
*battery bus
*hot battery bus
*switched hot battery bus
*battery
137
What will cause the amber TR UNIT Light to illuminate?
On the ground a failure of any TR, or airborne a failure of TR 1, or TR 2 and TR 3.
138
What will cause the amber ELEC Light to illuminate?
On the ground, a fault in the DC power system or standby power system.
139
What wil cause the amber STANDBY PWR OFF Light to illuminate?
One or more of the following busses are unpowered:
AC standby bus.
DC standby bus. - battery bus.
140
What is the purpose of the AUTO position of the STANDY POWER switch?
To ensure the AC standby bus, DC standby bus and battery bus switch to their backup power sources when normal power is lost.
141
What temperature do the 1 and 2 window controllers maintain?
The temperature that ensures maximum strength in the event of a bird strike.
142
When do the window heat amber OVERHEAT
illuminate
*When an overheat exists 145 Degrees F / 63 degrees
*When electrical power
is interrupted
*During an overheat test
143
What is indicated when the green Window Heat ON light is illuminated?
Window heat is being applied to the selected window.
144
What is indicated when the green Window Heat ON light is extinguished?
The switch
is OFF
An overheat has
been detected
Asystem failure has occurred
The system is at the correct temperature
145
How is the power test accomplished (Option Green ON light)?
WINDOW HEAT switches - ON
- WINDOW HEAT TEST switch - PWR
-
WINDOW HEAT ON
lights - Illuminated
146
What is heated through the Probe and Sensor Heat?
Pitot Probes
Total Air Temperature Probe
Alpha
Vanes.
147
Are the Static Ports Heated?
No
148
What does engine TAl heat?
The Cowl lip.
149
Is it necessary for the engine bleed valve to be open for the operation of TAI?
No
150
How are the Cowl Valves controlled and operated?
They
are electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
151
What happens when an ENG ANTI-ICE switch is positioned ON?
I t allows engine bleed air to flow through the cowl anti-ice valve for cowl lip anti-icing
* It sets the stall warning logic for icing conditions
152
What does the wing anti-ice system protect?
The 3 inboard leading edge slats.
153
How tired is Margot?
Not tired at all and would actually like to make more flashcards
154
What indicates the A or
B reservoir needs servicing?
A white "RF" next to the quantity% indication when the quantity drops below 76%.
155
When is the RF at 76%
indication accurate?
On the ground with both engines shut down, or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.
156
What provides pressure for the ASystem?
The No.1 engine-driven mechanical pump (EDP) and
an AC electric motor-driven pump (MDP).
157
If a leak occurs in the standby system the System B reservoir fluid level will decrease and stabilize at approximately what level?
72% full
158
When would illumination of the LOW QUANTITY for
the standby system indicate?
The standby reservoir is approximately half empty.
159
The Standby System provides backup hydraulic pressure for what component?
Thrust Reversers
*
Rudder
*
Leading Edge Flaps and Slats (extend only)
*
Standby Yaw
DamPer
160
What are the indications of a leak in the Asystem EDP?
Reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately 20% full.
161
What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?
Supply additional fluid volume to operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when the system BEDP volume
is lost
162
How does the PTU operate?
It uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid
163
What is required to operate the MDP's on the ground?
1675
pounds (760 kg) of fuel in the related main tank.
164
What are the indications of a leak in the standby systeM?
System B quantity indication decreases to approximately 72%full
* Standby system LOW QUANTITY light Illuminates when the fluid level drops below 1/2 full
* Master caution lights Illuminate
* FLT CONT system annunciator light
illuminates
165
When does the hyd standby system pump
operate automatically?
*Loss of A or B system
* Flaps extended, and
* Airborne, or on the ground and wheel spin up is greater than
60kts
*FLT CONTROL switch Aor BHydraulic System ON OR
The
main PCU
Force Fight Monitor
(FFM) trips.
166
Will the Landing Gear Transfer Unit raise the landing gear with a loss of system A system fluid
No
167
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU)?
To supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when the following
conditions
exist:
Airborne
-
No. 1engine RPM drops below a limit value
The landing gear lever is positioned UP
-
Either main landing gear is not up and locked.
168
What supplies air for the bleed air system?
Engines,
APU, or an
external air cart/source
169
What systems rely on the bleed air system for operation?
Air conditioning/pressurization
*
Wing and engine thermal anti-icing (TAI)
Engine starting
Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
Water tank pressurization Aspirated TAT probe (option)
170
How does the bleed air valve operate?
It is DC activated and pressure operated
171
What causes a bleed trip?
Engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit.
172
If the isolation valve switch is in the AUTO position, is its position affected by the APU bleed switch or valve?
No
173
If the isolation valve switch is in the AUTO position, what would cause the valve to be in the closed position?
Both engine bleed air switches ON
- Both air conditioning pack switches On or HIGH.
174
If the isolation valve switch is in the AUTO position, what would cause the valve to be in the open position?
Either engine bleed air switch or either air conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF
175
What is the indication when a possible
back pressure of the APU exists?
The
DUAL BLEED, Master Caution and ARI COND system annunciator lights wil be illuminated.
176
What causes the illumination of
a WING-BODYOVERHEAT light?
A bleed air duct leak.
177
Where are the sensors located that will illuminate the Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light?
- Left engine strut
- Left inboard wing leading edge
- Left-hand air conditioning bay
- Keel beam
- Bleed
duct from
APU.
178
Which pack provides
conditioned
air to
the flight deck?
The left pack
179
What air is provided to
the mix manifold?
Excess left pack
air, right
pack air,
and air from the
recirculation system, or ground preconditioned
air
180
What is a single pack's capability while operating in HI flow?
It will maintain pressurization and acceptable temperatures up to mix certified altitude
181
What does the ram air
system provide?
It provides cooling air for the heat exchangers.
182
When will the ram door be full open?
- On the ground
- During slow flight with the flaps not fully retracted.
183
What is the approximate temperature selector temperature range?
65°F (18) - 85°F (30)
184
What happens if flight deck trim air is losT?
-The
left pack will provide air to the flight deck at the selected temperature
-The right pack will satisfy the demand of the passenger cabin requiring the most cooling.
185
What is, the purpose of the recirculation fan system?
It reduces the air conditioning system pack load and the engine bleed air demand.
186
What is the purpose of the equipment cooling system?
Cools electronic
equipment on
the flight deck and
the E&EBay.
187
How long should it take the equipment cooling OFF light to extinguish after switching to alternate?
5 sec
188
Is there a warning if an equipment cooling over temperature occurs on the ground?
The crew call horn in the nose wheel well will sound
189
What control
modes are
included in
the pressurization system?
Two
identical automatic modes (AUTO or ALTN), and pilot controlled manual (MAN) mode.
190
What valves control pressurization and ventilation?
The modulating outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve.
191
What is the limit for the pressure relief safety valves?
9.1 PSID
192
What is the max altitude the cabin is normally controlled to?
8,000’
193
What type of motors are used to operate the Outflow valve?
DC motors
194
Is same automatic controller used by the AUTO mode for each flight segment?
No, they are alternate
195
When does the outflow valve begin to close?
On
the ground at higher power settings.
196
What action does the auto controller take when the OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates?
It
programs the cabin for a landing at the takeoff field elevation.
197
What happens if the FLT ALT is changed prior to cruise mode activation?
The
automatic abort capability to the original takeoff field elevation is lost.
198
When does the auto controller drive the outflow valve full open?
During taxi in
199
What happens when the amber AUTO FAIL light illuminates?
The system activates the alternate mode and the green ALTN light illuminates.
200
During a Battery Start, when do all engine indications become available?
Above 15% N2 when the EEC become energized.
201
In the Soft Alternate mode, what inputs does the EEC use?
The last valid flight conditions.
202
In the Hard Alternate mode, what inputs does the EC use to operate?
The alternate mode thrust schedule.
203
What idle thrust settings will the EEC automatically set?
Ground Idle, Flight Idle, or Approach Idle.
204
What is the purpose of Approach Idle?
Improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around.
205
What are the power sources for
the L and R ignitors?
R: AC standby bus
L: the associated AC transfer bus
206
What kind of abnormal start protection (ground starts only) does the EC provide?
Protection against an impending hot start, compressor stall, EGT exceedance, wet start.
207
What part of engine air provides reverse thrust?
Fan air only
208
Which hydraulic systems provide normal reverse thrust? Alternate reverse thrust?
Normal: A system No. 1 engine: B system No.2 engine
Alternate: standby system alternate for both engines
209
What can be expected during standby operation of reverse thrust?
Slower operation
speed, some possible asymmetry.
210
Does the REVERSER light on the overhead ENGINE Panel illuminate during normal operations? When?
Yes. When the reverser is commanded to the STOW position.
211
Will MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate during normal operation when the overhead REVERSER Lights are illuminated? Why not?
No.
the REVERSER Light must be on for more than 12 seconds to activate the MASTER CAUTION and ENG
system annunciator lights.
212
What will cause the amber REVERSER Light to illuminate?
- Isolation
valve or reverser control valve not in commanded position
- Reverser
sleeve not in commanded position
- Auto-restow has been activated
- Failure
detected in the synchronization shaft lock circuitry.
213
Once activated, will auto-stow allow normal reverser deployment?
Yes
214
What are the bleed and electrical usage altitude limitations?
Max. 10,000: bleed and electrical load Max. 17, 000: bleed load only
Max: 41,000: electrical load only.
215
What electrical power is used to
start the APU?
AC power if available, or with no
AC power the starter generator wil use
battery power.
216
How long should
the APU be operating before using it as a bleed source?
One full minute
217
Why is the APU operated for 1 min before using it as a bleed source?
To extend the service life of the APU
218
What will cause an automatic APU shutdown?
- Overspeed
- Low oil pressure
- High
oil temperature
-APU fire
- Fuel control unit
failure
-EGT
exceedance
-Other system faults monitored by the ECU.
219
What are the power sources for the engine fire protection system?
- Engine overheat and fire detection are powered by the battery bus
- Engine fire extinguishing is powered by the hot battery bus.
220
How many fire/overheat detector loops are associated with each engine?
Two
221
If the system is normal, what is required to get a fire indication?
Normally, both detector loops must sense a fire.
222
How many fire bottles are associated with the Engine Fire Extinguishing System?
Two
223
What pressurizes the oil system?
Respective engine driven oil pump
224
How is oil returned to the oil tank?
By an engine driven scavenge pump.
225
When will the OIL FILTER BYPASS light illuminate and what does it mean?
It will illuminate prior to the oil bypassing the filter, and it indicates that the filter is saturated with
contaminants
226
What cools the oil?
Engine fuel
227
When do the OIL FILTER BYPAS and LOW OIL PRESURE lights blink?
During the first 10 seconds after they are activated.
228
When is this blinking inhibited?
During
takeoff from 80 knots to 400 feet RA or 30 secs after 80 knots whichever occurs first, or below 20
feet
RA until
30 seconds after landing
229
When is the low oil pressure amber band
not displayed?
When below 65% N2
230
When is an oil quantity of as low as zero normal?
If windmilling N2 RPM is below approximately 8%.
231
When is an oil pressure indication required
during
engine start?
After the engine is stable at idle.
232
Is there a backup system for landing gear operation? What?
Yes. The Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU).
233
Will the LGTU raise and lower the landing gear? Which?
No. It will only raise them.
234
Canthe
landing gear be raised
if the Manual Gear Extension is OPEN?
No
235
When are the RED Gear Lights illuminated?
- When either or both thrust levers
are at idle, the A/C is below 800 feet AGL, and landing gear
is not down and locked
- When the respective gear is in disagreement with the lever position (in transit or unsafe).
236
When is the GREEN Landing Gear Light extinguished?
When
the respective gear is not down and locked.
237
When is the PSEU Light inhibited?
- In flight
- For 30 seconds after landing
- When thrust levers are advanced for takeoff power.
238
Can the landing gear lever lock be overridden? How?
Yes. By using the override trigger.
239
What controls the movement of nose wheel steering?
Rudder
pedals and nose wheel steering wheel.
240
What is the range of nose wheel movement using the wheel? Rudder pedals?
- Nose wheel steering 78 degrees
- Rudder pedal steering 7 degrees.
241
Is any braking available with a loss
of both normal and alternate
braking? How?
Yes. Provided by an accumulator
242
What is accumulator
precharge
pressure? Normal
Pressure?
- 1000psi
- 3000psi
243
Which hydraulic system does the Auto Brake System use?
System B
244
When
is RTO
activated?
During takeoff roll when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE and wheel speed is 90kts or greater
245
What happens if a landing is made with the auto-brake selector in RTO?
No braking occurs and the disarm light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown.
246
How can the pilot disarm the autobrakes?
*Move the speed brake lever to the down detent
* Apply manual brakes
* Advance the thrust levers), except after the first 3 seconds after touchdown for
landing
247
