driver simple_csv Flashcards by Yaniel Del Rosario

qualities and skills needed by driver/operators? intro 1

safe driving techniques, types of pumping apparatus, positioning the apparatus to maximize efficiency and water supply, fire pump theory and operations, hydraulic calculations, water shuttle procedures, foam system operations, hydraulic calculations, and apparatus testing and maintenance.

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fire apparatus are classified according to?p13

the primary function for which they are designed

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main purpose of the fire department pumper is to?p13

provide adequate water pressure for effective water streams

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nfpa 1901 standard for automotive and fire apparatus requirements for pumper design?p14

minimum pump capacity of 750 gpm and a water tank with capacity of at least 300 gpm

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most municipal FD operating pumpers?p14

2000 gpm or less (250 gpm increments)

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pumpers must have?p14

fire pump, intake and discharge pump connections, pump control and gauges, variety of hoses types and sizes.

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nfpa 1901 specifies the portable equipment that must be carried on pumpers?p14

ground ladders, SCBA, forcible entry tools, salvage tools and equip., portable water tank, emergency medical equip.

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rescue pumper?p14

combines the functions of both a rescue vehicle and a fire department pumper

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what are the pumper foam capabilities?p15

discharge foam on class A(ordinary combustible) and class B(flammable and combustible liquid/gas) fires

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compressed air foam systems (CAFS)p15

high-energy foam-generation system consisting of a water pump, foam proportioning system, and an air compressor (or other air source) that injects air into foam solution before it enters hose line

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size foam tanks on municipal fire pumpers?p16

20-100 gallons

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types of elevating devices that apply fire streams on pumpers are?p16

articulating and telescoping 50-75 ft

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initial attack fire apparatusp16

primary purpose is to initiate a fire attack on structural, wildland, and support fd actions

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characteristics of initial attack fire apparatus? p16

scaled-down versions of full-size pumpers(smaller chassis, pump, and agent tank sizes) aka mini-pumper or midi-pumper.

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mini-pumperp16

small fire apparatus mounted on a pick-up truck size chassis, pump rated 500 fpm or less(speed and mobility)

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midi-pumperp16

sized between mini-pumper and full sized, gross vehicle weight 12000 lbs, pump rated 1000gpm or less

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system NIMS-ICS uses categorizes apparatus based on capabilities?p17

apparatus typing

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used to transport water to areas where a water system is nonexistent or inadequate?p17

water supply apparatus(water tenders or tankers)

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capacity of mobile water supply apparatus operating in a particular jurisdiction is based on?p17

terrain, bridge and weight limits, monetary constraints, interoperability

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mobile water supply apparatus tank capacity per nfpa 1901?p17

1000 gpm or greater(greater capacity accommodated by tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or tractor trailer)

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design and construction process of water supply apparatus should meet safety and efficiency requirements?p18

1 adequate/reasonable water capacity2 efficient fill/dump time3 suspension/steering matched to terrain4 properly sized chassis5 adequately sized engine for vehicle/terrain6 sufficient breaking ability (vehicle/terrain)7 proper tank mounting and baffling8 adequate tank venting system9 ability to dump water sides and rear

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mobile water supply has two basic function on the fire ground?p18

mobile shuttle operation or stationary reservoir(nurse tender)

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wildland fire apparatus design?p19

brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus-lightweight, highly maneuverable, all-terrain, one-ton or larger chassis, all-wheel drive, pump capacities and water tank of 500 fpm or less(up to 1000 gpm also available), pump and roll system

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pump and roll system?p19

allows the apparatus to be driven while discharging water(separate motor or power take off PTO to power fire pump)

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*riding on the outside of the apparatus may result in?p20

death or severe injury.

what is extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?p20

class a foam agents

used to provide immediate suppression of flammable liquid fires and vapors from fuel spills?p20

aircraft rescue and fire fighting (ARFF) apparatus

ARFF units will respond off airport to assist municipal FD with?p20

large scale flammable liquid incidents

requirements for ARFF apparatus are found in?p20

nfpa 14 standard for aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles

nfpa 14 classifies apparatus by?p20

type of suppression agent(s) carriedagent capacitynumber of drive wheels

local jurisdictions devide apparatus into three categories:p20

major fire fighting vehicles rapid intervention vehiclescombined agent vehicles

fireboatp21

vessel or watercraft designed for fighting fires in marine environment(capacities as high as 50000 gpm)

functions of fireboat?p21

protect hazards on and adjacent to waterwaysice/water rescueemergency medical servicesfire fighting/relay pumping to land based apparatus

aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps may? p21

function with the capabilities of an engine or ladder company

always consider the placement of an aerial because it is limited by its?p21

reach

quintp22

serves as an engine and ladder, equipped with fire pump, water tank, ground ladders, hose bed, and aerial device

nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus, the vehicle(quint) must be equipped with?p22

pump rated at 1000 fpm or greater and water tank of 300 gallons or greater

rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumpsp22

small fire pump/tank=small fires/protective hose line extrication;do not have fire fighting capability of rescue pumpers

trailer mounted fire pumpsp22

long term pumping operations-petroleum storage facilities

responsible for operation of specialized mounted equipment as well as the fire pump?p22

driver/operator

step-up transformer the converts a vehicles 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220- volt AC current?p23

inverter

characteristics of inverter?p23

fuel efficient nearly noiseless operationmoved only short distancesmall power supply capabilitiestypically used to power vehicle-mounted flood lights

most common power source used for emergency services?p23

generators

powered by small gas/diesel engines 110-220 volt capacity, used when power is needed remote from apparatus, various capacities 5000 watts is typically highestp23

portable generators

larger capacity than portable units; power floodlights/any portable electrically operated equipment; powered by gas/diesel, pro, hydraulic system; 110-220 volt; capacities up to 12000 wattsp23

vehicle mounted generator

capacity up 50000 watts or greater, noisyp23

fixed generator systems

types of lighting equipment carried on pumping apparatus?p23

portable or fixed 300-1000 watts

advantageous when illumination is needed some distance away or additional lights requiredp23-24

portable lights

provide general lighting around the apparatus and nearby scene; raised, lowered or turned; banks of lights mounted on booms powered by electrical, pneumatic, or hydraulic; 500-1500 watts per lightp24

fixed lights(mounted)

commonly used during incident operations; stored on coils, portable reels, or fixed automatic rewind reels; 12-guage 3-wire 600 volt insulation and twist lock receptaclesp24

extension cords

most common rescues tool found on apparatus?p24

extrication(spreaders/shears)combination spread /shearsextension rams

rescue tools are powered by ?p24

hydraulic pressure, compressed air, or apparatus power take-off system

requires that driver/operator be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks?p29

nfpa 1002

in many jurisdictions who is required to perform routine maintenance checks and functions?p29

driver/operators

keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness?p29

maintenance

to restore that which has become inoperable?p29

repair

provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus and fire department maintenance officers?p29

nfpa 1071 standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications

nfpa 1002 requires driver/operators to be able to perform routine tests, inspections, and servicing which systems?p30

batteries oilbreaking systems tires coolant system steering systemselectrical system beltsfuel system tools, apps, equiphydraulic fluids

repair work that involves complex tools, parts, or in-depth mechanical knowledge is left to a?p30

certified mechanic

inspection and maintenance check should be done ?p30

beginning of each tour of duty

more detailed inspection list may be completed on?p30

weekly or monthly basis

road salt during inclement weather?p32

corrosive effect on steel body components

most vulnerable areas to diesel fuel residue which leaves gummy residue?p32

engine compartments where linkages, fuel injectors, or other control may become inoperable

when washing the vehicle body and components care should be taken no to strip away?p33

necessary lubricants

new and unseasoned paint and protective coating should be washed frequently using cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting for how long?p33

first 6 months

clean automotive glass with?p34

warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaner

new apparatus have sensitive electronic equipment that can be damaged or destroyed by?p35

water or cleaning fluids

incoming driver/operator should consult the person being relieved for any pertinent information regarding?p35

incident activityequipment usageproblems

issued to individuals who demonstrate competence inspecting and driving vehicles with a gross vehicle rating of 26001 lbs or more?p36

commercial driver's licence CDL

inspection method in which the driver/inspector starts at one point going clock/counter inspecting the entire apparatus?p36

circle or walk-around method

inspecting apparatus/equipment to ensure all equipment is in place, and ready for service?p36

operational readiness inspection

visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition?p36

pre trip road worthiness inspection

inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly?p36

functional check

helps ensure that all required items are checked each time an inspection is completed?p36

systematic approach

whenever the apparatus is parked, be sure to?p37

chock the wheels

*do not run engines in ____ areas for any period of time , because diesel exhaust may contain up to ____ ?p37

unvented; 100 harmful chemicals and compunds

maximum amount of weight that an axle system can safely carry?p38

gross axle weight rating

*left and right orientation?p38

driver side/officer side; street side/curb side

is it acceptable to mix radial tires with bias-ply tires, or have different size and weight ratings?p38

always same type, size and weight

when examining tire condition check for?p39

proper tread depth and separationcuppingexcessive wear on sidewalls cutsdry rottingcracking tiresimpaled objects

nfpa 1911 requires all tires be replaced regardless of their condition every?p39

7 years

*inflate tires to there commended ____ tire pressure?p39

operating and not maximum

electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level? p40

load management system

operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated capacity?p40

overload

device in an electrical system that turns lights on at specified intervals, so that the start-up load for all the devices does not occur at the same time?p40

load sequencer

device that "watches" an electrical system for added loads that may threaten to overload the system?p40

load monitor

when the overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload?p40

load shedding

component of the power train that receives torque from the engine and converts it to rotation to the wheels?p41

manual shift transmission

amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission?p41

free play

component used to push on the internal clutch fingers connected to the clutch pedal and when activated, disengages the clutch from the engine?p41

throw-out bearing

in a steering system, the amount of travel between turning the wheel and when the steering system moves?p41

steering wheel play

steering wheel play should be no more than?p41

10 degrees either direction; 20 inch steering wheel=2 inches

maximum weight at which a vehicle can be safely operated on roadway in ideal conditions?p41

gross vehicle weight rating GVWR

braking system that uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheels cylinders when activated?p42

hydraulic braking system

electronic system that monitors wheel spin and when wheel is sensed to begin locking up, the brake on that wheel is temporarily released to prevent skidding?p42

antilock braking system ABS

braking system that uses compressed air to hold off a spring brake(parking brake) and applies air pressure to a service brake for vehicle stopping?p42

air-actuated braking system

per nfpa 1901 and 1911 a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed?p42

7.00%

in cab fire/rescue equipment should be?p42

in good working order and securely stowed

apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an _____ that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being used when pressure drops below ____?p43

air pressure protection device; 80 psi

apparatus brakes should be tested at least ____ using methods outlined in____?p43

annually; nfpa 1911

a series of tests used to ensure the serviceability of air braking system?p43

air break test

devices used in the air brake system that connect between the activation pads and the brake pads that compensate for brake pad wear?p43

slack adjusters

truck that uses a cab that lowers over the power train?p44

tilt cab

*before ____, be sure that there is adequate vertical clearance and secure all loose equipment in the cab?p44

lifting the cab

ifsta considers the air brake testing procedures outlined in the manual to be the ____________?p44

minimum acceptable daily air brake test

most fluid checks can be done be done before or after the engine has been run but not while the vehicle is running with the exception of ?p44

transmission fluid level

device designed to remove diesel particulate matter or soot from the exhaust gas of a diesel engine?p45

diesel particulate filter DPF

applying grease and other lubricants to specific parts of the chassis to reduce wear, noise, and binding?p45

chassis lubrication

cab should be tilted on a ____ basis for a thorough inspection of the engine compartment?p45

weekly

in addition to DPF system, engines produced after January 1, 2010, may be equipped with an exhaust after treatment system called?p45

selective catalyst reductant SCR

failure to use the proper engine oil per manufacturer's recommendation can lead to _____ and _____ damage?p46

costly engine and emission system

most modern truck batteries are ______, where older ones require the addition of ________ to replenish the cell's fluid as it evaporates over time?p46

maintenance free; distilled water

most automotive batteries contain ?p47

lead and sulfuric acid

*batteries give off explosive hydrogen gas which can injure/kill, driver/operator should?p47

ventilate area, wear safety goggles, and wear acid resistant gloves

before attempting to jump-start a vehicle:p47-48

vehicles have same voltage verify which battery to use in operations manualcables are connect in recommended manner

specific inspection to an area of the chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit i operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer's initial design?p48

port-maintenace/repair inspection

fire pumps are tested at?p48

regularly scheduled intervals

anytime a pump has been operated at draft from saltwater source, lake, pond, or areas served by older water mains:p48

pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed.

who is responsible for the safe transport of firefighters, apparatus, and equipment to and from the scene of an incident?p79

driver/operator

___ has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/operators?p79

nfpa 1002

driver/operators should possess the following abilities and skills:p80-82

reading,computer, writing, and mathematical skillsphysical fitness, victual acuity, and adequate hearing

*while driving, the driver/operator should no operate a _____, focus on driving only!p81

mobile computer

periodic medical evaluation should be administered to establish and maintain fitness for duty in accordance with?p82

nfpa 1500

provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye?p82

nfpa 1582

contains a list of frequencies that a driver must be able to hear/recommends rejecting those that don't?p82

nfpa 1582

who establishes the basic requirements for licensing a driver in the US? Canada?p82

department of transportation DOTtransport canada TC

you are subject to all traffic regulations when driving under?p83

nonemergency conditions

regulate driver/operator in their duties?p83

federal lawstate/provincial motor vehicle codescity ordinancesnfpa standardsdepartment policies

act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any consequences?p84

reckless regard

breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law or as expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances?p84

negligence

willful and wanton disregard?p84

gross negligence

drive with due regard for the safety of others?p84

due regard

when responding to an emergency lights and sirens may be exempt from:p84

speed limitdirection of traveldirection of turnsparking statues and ordinaces

drivers who do not obey driving regulations can be subject to ____ if involved in an accident?p84

civil or criminal prosecution

perception of one's surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events?p85

situational awareness

most common place for a collision to occur is at?p85

intersection

before allowing drivers to drive on public they should have?p85

completed training in a practice area/controlled environment

collision en route to an emergency will ?p85

end response of apparatus involved

fire apparatus collision are grouped into 7 basic causes which reflect the lack of due regard and situational awareness?p86

improper backingreckless driving excessive speedlack of skill/experienceoverloading and misusemechanical failurepersonal readiness

loss of braking function which occurs due to excessive use of the brakes?p87

brake fade

must not put yourself or members of the public in a position where there is no alternative to a ?p87

collision

lack of driving skills may result from:p88

overconfidenceinability to recognize a dangerous situationfalse sense of security-good driving recordmisunderstanding apparatus capabilitiesinsufficient training

in _____ of all collisions the driver was not aware of the problem until it was too late to correct?p88

42.00%

difference in weight empty/full of apparatus with a tank of 1000 gallons ?p88

8000lbs

apparatus with a properly baffled tank that is ____ may be more dangerous than ________ tank?p88

partially filled; empty/full

accidents occur because(apparatus)?p88

overloading, non engineered modification, and misuse

driver must be prepared to report to duty without any compromise of _____ or _____ ?p89

physical/mental ability

driver must always ensure the safety of_____ riding on the apparatus?p90

all personel

all riders on the apparatus must be ____ within the cab/body and wearing their _____ before apparatus is put in motion.p90

seated; seat belts

*driver is responsible for confirming all personnel have seat belts fastened, confirmation must be done ____?p90

verbally

nfpa 1500 provides the following direction on loading hose while driving:p91

train all member, fd must have SOPleast 1 safety observer, visual and voice comm with D/Eclose of are to trafficdrive forward only, 5 mph or lessno standing on apparatus while in motion

*fire fighters must ____ride on the outside of a moving apparatus for any reason.p92

never

____allows a detachable seat to be placed next to the tiller operator's position in which an instructor may sit. p93

nfpa 1500

drivers must be capable of ___, ___ and ___the apparatus in a safe and efficient manner.p93

starting, idling, shutting down

when preparing to start the apparatus whether for emergency or routine trip driver must first known the ?p94

destination and route of travel

allowing a diesel engine to idle unnecessarily will waste fuel and may lead to the buildup of ____ in the injectors, valves, and piston causing damage to internal engine components and emission system.p94

carbon

lights when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process.p94

high exhaust system temperature (HEST) indicator

lights up to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot.p94

PDF indicator

allows driver to manually initiate an active regeneration to burn off the DPF soot loadp94

manual(parked) regeneration switch

allows driver to keep the engine from initiating an active regeneration process. parked on dry grass or combustible material.p94

regeneration inhibit switch

force that tends to create a rotational or twisting motion.p95

torque

the exhaust may never get hot enough to burn out the soot and an active regeneration is required if ?p95

frequent short run or in very cold climates

allows the cleaning of the DPF in stationary truck operations and requires operator involvement to initiate?p95

parked regeneration

parked regeneration cannot be initiated during?p95

pumping operations

apparatus equipped with selective catalyst reductant (SCR) has an additional tanked and must be filled with?p95

diesel exhaust fluid DEF

failing to keep the DEF tank full may _____ the apparatus engine, or limit the vehicle speed.p95

derate(reduce its torque output)

never shut down an engine immediately after full load operation, idle for?p95

3-5 minutes

*never rev a diesel engine immediately before shutting it down because damage to _______ may occur?p96

internal components

never shut down engine while apparatus is in ?p96

motion

mirrors help minimize blind spots and should be adjusted ?p96

beginning of shift/new driver assigned

apparatus equipped with _____ transmissions becoming the norm for many fd.p97

automatic

because of large size of aerials there are several points of potential contact under, so be cautious of:p97

steep rampscurbsspeed bumpsetc

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.p97

angle of approach

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.p97

angle of departure

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the at the wheelbase midpoint.p97

breakover angle

weight transfer follows the law of inertia:p98

objects in motion stay in motion, objects at rest stay at rest unless acted upon by outside force

ensure axle loading is balanced within ___ percent side to side and with the ____ front to back.p98

7%; weight ratings

limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm to prevent ?p98

engine damage

unsafe and may be illegal to allow apparatus to coast out of gear or ____ while driving downhill.p98

freewheel

process of injecting or supplying the diesel engine with more fuel than can be burned?p99

over-throttling

when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is too high a gear for the demand on the engine?p99

engine lugging

what results in an excessive amount of carbon particles in the exhaust, oil dilution, and additional fuel consumption?p99

over-throttling

when determining travel route avoid ?p99

low overpasses and incompatible bridges

19824 locations in the US where there less than 100 feet following the railroad track and account for an average of?p99

122 accidents annually

it may take ______ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow/ice than it does on dry pavement?p99

15-Mar

civilian drivers when encounter emergency vehicles with lights and sirens must:p100

pull to rightstopclear intersectionsremain motionless until emergency vehicle passes

guidelines to help avoid potential collisions:p100

aim high in steeringget the big picturekeep your eyes movingleave yourself an "out"maintain distance from front vehiclemake sure others can hear and see you

use of warning devices should be limited to response to?p100

true emergencies

electronic or mechanical sirens as well as air horns are?p101

audible warning

what is the best way to get the attention of motorists?p101

short air horn blasts and constant up and down oscillation of siren

above what speeds may you outrun the affective range of audible warning devices?p101

above 50 mph

in some instances increasing speed by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by ?p101

250 feet or more

when multiple apparatus are responding together they should travel?p101

300-500 feet apart

*in-cab ___ ____ may make it more difficult to hear ambient noise or sirens of other emergency vehicles.p101

intercom headseats

driver should turn on headlights as part of the response because white lights are ?p101

readily visible even during daylight

the presence of traffic control devices(street light) does not relieve the driver from using?p102

defensive driving techniques

traffic signals in front of fire stations allow the apparatus to enter the roadway more _____?p102

safely

generates an optical signal that is received by the street light as apparatus approaches?p102

strobe lights (emitters)

activated by vehicles siren from several hundred feet to about half mile away, device will have 3 inch white and blue lights mounted?p103

traffic signal preemption device

data can be transmitted to a radio receiver on the traffic light using a gps device and radio transmitter?p103

gps based traffic signal preemption

many _____ as well as ____ require fire apparatus to come to a full stop and account for vehicles in all lanes before crossing the intersection.p104

jurisdictions; nfpa1500

when driver release pressure from the accelerator, the ____is activated?p105

engine break or retarder

distance vehicle travel from time the brakes are applied to until it comes to a complete stop?p105

braking distance

sum of the driver reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance?p105

total stopping distance

distance a vehicle travels while a driver transfers a foot from accelerator to break?p105

reaction distance

time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at current speed?p105

visual lead time

factor's affecting the driver's ability to stop the apparatus?p105

road conditionsspeed of apparatus weight of vehicletype/condition of tires/braking system

an uncontrolled slide across a surface in a wheeled vehicle?p107

skid

*using ordinary parking lots to conduct fire apparatus skid training may result in?p108

rollover accidents

*use extreme caution at minimal speeds for skid training using ?p108

tractor-drawn aerials

occurs when the gas pedal is applied too quickly?p108

acceleration skid

caused by braking too hard at a high rate of speed and locking the wheels?p108

locked wheel skid

should not apply the brakes, ease off the accelerator, and straighten out the front wheels?p108

acceleration skid

ease off the brake to unlock the drive wheels and then straighten the front wheels as the apparatus begins to respond to control?p108

locked wheel skid

losing control when descending grades most common causes involving driver error?p108

driving too fastfailing to anticipated obstaclesimproper use of auxiliary brakesimproper tire pressure/depth

____ system minimize the chance of the vehicle skidding when brakes are applied forcefully?p108

antilock braking system ABS

vehicles equipped with ABS driver should not pump the break pedal but rather ?p109

maintain steady pressure on the break pedal until stop

____ requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of _____ or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.p109

nfpa 1901; 36000 lbs

four types of auxiliary brakes?p109

exhaust brakeengine compression brake transmission output retarderelectromagnetic retarder

_____ and _____ provide the highest level of braking torque and are unaffected by transmission gear shift changes.p109

transmission output retarders and electromagnetic retarders

*drivers should remember to ____ and ____ in inclement weather.p109

turn off the auxiliary brake and reduce speed

any device that uses the engine and transmission to impede the forward motion by compression of the engine?p110

engine compression brake

uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine 's inherent braking ability.p110

exhaust brakes

least capable of the 4 auxiliary brake devices?p110

exhaust brakes

electronically-actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train; has no impact on engine temperature?p110

engine compression brake

mounted in the driveline, or supplied as an integral part of the rear axle; loss of effectiveness at high temperatures?p110

electromagnetic retarders

an electromagnetic field is created by supplying electrical power to a rise of coils in the retarder, inhibits the the rotation of rotor=braking torque rear wheels?p110

electromagnetic retarders

uses viscous property of the automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline?p110

transmission retarders

can provide high braking capacity but are limited in high ambient environments by the capacity of vehicle cooling system?p110

transmission retarders

traction device which may be ineffective in snow deeper than 3-6 inches?p110-111

automatic chains

automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin; found in vehicles with ABS?p111

automatic traction control (ATC)

improves traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions?p111

driver controlled differential lock

allows operator to lock out the interaxle differential action between the rear tandem driving axles, creating one solid drive line between rear axles?p111

interaxle defferential lock

designed to help prevent roll-overs and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction?p112

stability control systems

integrated into ABS system; beside ABS sensor there is also a lateral accelerometer that sense when the side force caused by concerning approach to the roll over threshold?p112

roll stability control (RSC)

applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel?p112

electronic stability control (ESC)

more capable than RSC: RSC merely slow down vehicle; has steering wheel sensor in addition to lateral accelerator?p112

electronic stability control (ESC)

*drivers must not rely solely on backup cameras to provide a full and accurate view of the scene, ___ are still required?p113

spotters

to safely back an apparatus drivers should use all means including scanning between ?p113

direct field of vision, video screens, and spotters

methods of communication between driver and spotter can be accomplished via?p114

radio and/or hand signals

*upon losing sight of the spotter, the driver must ____ ____ because the spotter could be killed or injured by the apparatus.p114

stop immediately

when backing spotter should be positioned in the vision of the driver:p114

preferably left mirror, 8-10 feet behind and slightly to the left of apparatus

how should hand signals be executed?p115

slow and exaggerated motion

permits tillering of the tractor-trailor apparatus in and out of traffic and around turns that would be difficult or impossible for other vehicles?p117

tiller axle

must be qualified to operate the aerial ladder and be familiar with the assigned to all truck company personnel?p117

tiller operator

tiller operator driving assignments:p117

straight line divingturning and backingproper placement of trailer at fires

provides specific directions on driver/op candidates's evaluation, should be followed to certify personnel to the standard?p118

nfpa 1002

all fire apparatus training and testing should follow?p118

nfpa 1451 standard for fire and emergency service vehicle operations training program

always close ___ or ___ ____ ____ to reduce the potential for personnel to be injured from accidentally walking into doors left open.p119

swing-up or swing-out compartment doors

*stepping on open compartment doors can cause serious injury or death because they do not?p119

support heavy weight

always have a second person present when ?p119

working on, around, or under apparatus

when working on top of the apparatus wear?p120

PPE including helmet

before placing apparatus in motion driver must ensure that any hose carried will not ?p120

come loose during travel

*loose hose my drag behind vehicle and?p120

injure or kill

take special care to lay the hose in a manner conductive to the ____ design and keep apparatus very slow during deployment.p120

chute or trough

guidelines for hose loading and deployment:p120

couplings=pulled straight out not flippingnever cross hose over itself5 mph or less5 mph=7 ft hose per second

specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to scene must be secured?p120

nfpa 1901

securing bracket or cabinet must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force up to ____ the equipments weight?p120

10 times

*secure equipment in the ___ ___ before placing vehicle in motion, unsecured equip can cause serious injury or death in a crash.p121

crew areas(cab)

hydraulic fluids can leak from hoses at high temps and pressures causing?p121

burns or other injuries(toxic to human tissue)

*release pressure before working on system because high pressure fluid leak will pierce skin with pressures as low as?p122

100 psi

never attempt to remove any inlet or discharge cap on an apparatus until making certain there is no?p122

trapped pressure

*always open drain/bleeder valve before removing inlet or discharge cap, it can blow off with ____?p123

explosive force=injury or death

drivers should position the apparatus for the safest most advantageous use of the ?p135

features of the apparatus

act of preparing to manage an incident at a particular location/type of incident before it occurs?p136

pre-incident planning

ongoing evaluation of influential factors at the scene of an incident?p136

size-up

person in charge of the ICS and responsible for the management of all incident operations during an emergency?p136

incident commander (IC)

fire pumper's primary function on the foreground is?p136

provide water directly for fire streams or to support other pumpers/earials

fire conditions upon arrival place apparatus:p136

safe positionbest tactical advantageexit route

pull past front of the building to view three sides?p136

no fire evident(investigation mode)

position apparatus to facilitate the most efficient deployment of ground ladders or aerial?p137

rescue situations

spot so that fire streams can be deployed to protect exposure avoiding high levels of radiant heat, falling embers, or other products of combustion.p137

exposures

area of limited access first arriving should consider laying their own supply line and laying out of the way of later arriving units.p137

water supply

considering wind direction, position apparatus ___ whenever possible.p138

upwind

regarding terrain always attempt to park ?p138

hard surfacesuphill(except wildland fires)

spot in location safe from incident hazards, protect personnel from traffic by blocking lanes where fire fighter operate plus 1 additional lane?p138

roadway response

spot either at corner of the building or 1 1/2 the height of the building away?p138

structural collapse or suspected

aids in identifying buildings with high potential for collapse?p139

pre-incident planning

old and poorly maintained, interior collapse, reinforcement rods identified by ornamental stars or bolts, bulging walls, traveling exterior cracks and falling brick indicate?p139

large scale structural collapse

apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within ____ of the base of a high-rise fire may need protection from falling debris.p139

200 feet

pumpers yield an optimum position close to a building for ?p140

aerials

aerials are of no use beyond their?p140

maximum reach

"inside/outside" method building less than 5 stories tall?p140

pumper/aerial

"inside/outside" method building greater than 5 stories tall?p140

aerial/pumper

point which FD can connect into sprinkler/standpipe to boost water pressure and flow in the system?p141

fire department connection (FDC)

connection consist of a clappered siamese with 2+ 2 1/2 inch intakes or 1 ldh (4 in+) intake?p141

fire department connection (FDC)

to shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus?p141

relay

acquiring water from a static source and transferring it into a pump that is above the source's level?p141

drafting

atmospheric pressure on the water surface forces the water into the pump where a partial vacuum was created during?p141

drafting

supply of water at rest that does not provide a pressure head for fire suppression but may be employed as a suction source for fire pumps?p141

static water supply

water in a reservoir, pond, or cistern are examples of?p141

static water supply

friction loss due to distance and elevation are major considerations when supporting?p141

elevated streams

to supply a FDC most efficiently, a pumper should position as closely as possible to the?p141

water source

hydrants are usually in close proximity to FDC, if distance is great other options are?p141

relay or water shuttle

drivers should not _____ a non potable(non drinkable) and a potable(drinkable) water source.p141

cross-contaminate

may supply apparatus at the fireground directly or may serve as source pumpers for relay or water shuttle ops?p141

drafting pumper

permanently installed pipe that has a pumper suction connections installed at the static water sources to speed drafting operations?p142

dry hydrant

*any personnel working near the edge of bodies of water are required to wear a?p142

personal flotation device (PFD)

most common source of water?p142

fire hydrant

not designed/intended to be used under positive pressure conditions(coupling failure or hose rupture)?p142

hard intake hose

*only hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand ___ ___ should be connected to a fire hydrant.p143

positive pressure

hose used to connect a fire department pumper/or a portable pump to a nearby water source; may be soft/hard?p143

intake hose 10-50ft, 100ft

operation where a strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers by connecting the pumpers intake-to-intake, 2nd pumper uses excess water.p144

dual pumping

short relay operation in which the pumper taking in water from the supply source pumps into the intake of the second which boosts pressure even higher?p144

tandem pumping

when opening hydrants stand _____ to prevent injury should a coupling disconnect/fail.p144

behind

2 pumpers are in close proximity and both are being used as attack pumpers?p144

dual pumping

form of relay pumping, pumpers close together rather than evenly spaced, when pressures higher than a single engine can supply?p144

tandem pumping

supplying high-rise sprinkler/standpipe; short distance from water source, but great from fire (up to 300ft)= ___ pumping?p145

tandem pumping

line, area, or zone where undeveloped wildland area meets a human development area?p146

wildland/urban interface

___ pumping is generally used to increase volume, while ___ pumping is most often undertaken to increase pressure.p146

relay; tandem

positioning apparatus for fighting wildland fires differs greatly from structural fire fighting considerations:p146

reposition often

point from which a fire line is begun; usually natural or man-made barrier that prevents fire spread and the possibility of the crew being "flanked" while constructing fire line?p147

anchor point

roads, lakes, ponds, or previously burned areas?p147

anchor points

ability of an apparatus to traverse a body of standing water?p148

fording

-the act of making a fire safe after it is controlled by extinguishing/removing burning material along/near the control line;overhaul of fire/hazmat scenep148

mop-up

driving the shoulders of railroad beds is dangerous tactic as coarse rock making up these beds may cause?p148

tire damage, sliding and rollovers

while wildland fire fighting a portion of the onboard water tank should be reserved for?p148

protection of vehicle and crew

resources responding to an incident are held in reserve at an away location while awaiting assignment?p150

staging

used on all multi company incidents, first arriving of each type proceed to scene while others stage 1-2 blocks away(closest intersection)?p150

level 1 staging

used on large scale incidents where a larger number of companies are responding; are sent to a specified remote location to await assignment?p150

level 2 staging

company officer of the first arriving company at staging takes command?p150

staging area manager

location where incident management logistics functions are coordinated and administered; only 1 per incident?p150

base

policies that allow for orderly placement of vehicles and enable the IC to maximize the potential of each apparatus?p150

staging policies

apparatus should not travel opposing the normal flow of traffic on highways or ramps unless ?p151

police have closed roadway to traffic

use sirens only to clear ____ moving traffic?p151

slow

fire apparatus are often placed to act as a shield between ?p151

oncoming traffic and firefighters working on roadway

side mounted pump panels should be positioned facing the ___ ___?p153

incident scene

consider when responding to any potential hazmat incident:p153

wind speed/directionapproach upwind/uphillidentify before approachdistance until identified

system of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scene, intended to limit exposures and facilitate mitigation?p153

hazard-control zones

with the changing dynamics of an incident control zone may be ?p153

expanded or contracted

hazardous area immediately surrounding the incident site; ppe/equipment, tech-level personnel?p154

hot zone (restricted, exclusion, red)

area between the hot and cold zones that usually contains the decontamination corridor; lesser ppe than hot zone?p154

warm zone(limited access, yellow)

safe area outside the warm zone where no contamination is expected; IC post/support functions?p154

cold zone(support, green)

never position apparatus on or too close to tracks; FD personnel must consider all railroad tracks to be?p154

"live"

for a fully loaded train to come to a complete stop it may require?p154

1-2 miles

*apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least ____ from railroad tracks to prevent contact with objects on railroad cars.p155

30 feet

when positioning apparatus at emergency medical incidents consider:p155

leave ambulance enough roomspot on stable surface that supports weightuse apparatus as shield between work area/traffic

H2O is a compound(molecule) formed by 2 hydrogen atoms combined with 1 oxygen atom?p167

water

below 32ä‹Š (0 ä‹€) the freezing point of water it converts to a solid state of matter?p167

ice

above 212ä‹Š(100ä‹€) the boiling point of water it converts to a gas?p167

water vapor or steam

for fire protection purposes ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh?p167

64.2 lb/ft3 or 8.3 lb/gal

it can cool/absorb heat from fires as well as smother(exclude oxygen) from fire?p168

ways water extinguishes fire

fire in a closed space where water converts to steam; combustible liquids whose specific gravity is higher that one(heavier than water) will be?p168

smothered by water

advantages of water:p169

heat-absorbing capacitylarge amount of heat required convert water to steamgreater area exposure to water=greater heat absorbedat 212ä‹Š water=steam 1700 x original volumeinexpensive and readily available

disadvantages of water:p169

high surface tensionreactive: fuels,metals, sodium metal, triethyl aluminumopacity/reflectivity-radiant heat passesfreezes in cold weather climate(<32ä‹Š)electrical conductorrelatively heave at 8.3 lbs/gal

force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in pound per square inch(psi) or kilopascals(kPa)?p170

pressure

simple measure of weight, usually expressed in pounds or kilograms?p170

force

speed at which a fluid travels through a hose/pipe is?p172

velocity

fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts?p172

1st principle of pressure

fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions?p172

2nd principle of pressure

pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions?p172

3rd principle of pressure

in a closed 100ft pipe at 100psi, top of the pipe is 100psi but the bottom is 143.4 psi?p172-173

weight of water

the pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is often proportional to its depth? taller=heavierp173

4th principle of pressure

the pressure of a liquid in an open vessels proportional to the density of the liquid? 1' mercury=13.55' water p173

5th principle of pressure

the pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel?p174

6th principle of pressure

the ___ pressure the surrounds the earth has depth and density, exerting pressure on everything.p174

atmospheric

atmospheric pressure is greatest at ____ altitudes and least at very____ altitudes.p174

low; high

atmospheric pressure at sea level is?p174

14.7 psi(100 kPa)

notation for an actual atmospheric pressure reading is?p174

pounds per square inch absolute (psia)

for purpose of this text psi means psig(pounds per square in gauge).p174-175

sea level 10 psi = 10 psig + 14.7psi (AP), gauge is calibrated to zero at ambient pressure.

a pressure that is somewhat less than atmospheric pressure; needed to facilitate drafting from static source?p175

vacuum

alternative term for pressure, especially pressure due to elevation?p175

head1 foot äåÊ¥Ÿ = 0.434 psiäåÊ¥Ÿ

absolute zero pressure is called?p175

perfect vacuum

gauge read 10 inches of Hg of vacuum on the compound gauge, it actually indicates less than?p175

atmospheric pressure

water supply is 100 feet above the hydrant opening then is?p175

100ft of head

to convert head/ft to head/pressure divide feet by 2.304(# of feet 1 psi will raise 1 square inch column of water).p175

100 of head/2.304 = 43.4 psi

stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, hose, and adapters?p175

static pressure

rest or without motion?p175

static

water pressure may be produced by?p175

elevated water supply, atmospheric pressure, or pump

the portion of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hoses, and adapters?p176

residual pressure

height of a point above sea level or other reference point?p176

elevation

geographic position of a location or object in relation to sea level, may be above, sea level, or below?p176

altitude

gain or loss of pressure in a hose line due to a change in elevation(aka elevation loss)?p176

elevation pressure

pressure found in water distribution system during normal consumption demands?p176

normal operating pressure

difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is ____ caused by water flowing through pipes, valves, and fittings.p176

friction

while water is flowing from a discharge opening, the forward velocity pressure is considered?p176

flow pressure

above ____ the lessening of atmospheric pressure means FD pumpers must work increasing harder to produce pressures required for fire streams.p176

2000 ft (sea level - 2000ft little affect)

above sea level atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ for every _____.p176

0.5 psi; 1000 ft

loss of pressure created by the turbulence of water moving against the interior walls of the hose or pipe ?p177

friction loss

causes of friction loss in fire hose:p177

movement of water molecules against each otherlinings of hose/delaminating hosecouplingssharp bends/kinkschange in hose size/orifice by adaptersimproper gasket size

friction loss in older hose may be much greater that of brand new hose, as much as?p177

50% greater

cause of friction loss in piping:p177

movement of water molecules against each otherinside surface of pipingpipe fittings valves

if all conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe.p178

1st principle of friction loss100'=10psi and 200'=20psi

when hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow.p178

2nd principle of friction losshose lenght/diameter =X flowing 200 gpm= 3.2psihose lenght/diameter =X flowing 400 gpm= 12.8psihose lenght/diameter =X flowing 600 gpm= 28.8psiflow doubles/friction loss squares

for the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.p179

3rd principle of friction lossFL 3' hose is 0.4 that of 2 1/2' (ground rules .5)2.5x2.5x2.5x2.5x2.5=97.66/3x3x3x3x3=243 =0.4FL 4' hose is 0.24 that of 3' 3x3x3x3x3=243 / 4x4x4x4x4=1024 243/1024 = 0.24

using 4 inch supply hose instead of 3 inch equates to a friction loss reduction of?p179

76% (FL 4' is 0.24 that of 3')

for given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure on the water.p179

4th principle of friction loss

with water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of ___ is required to reduce its volume _____ percent?p179

30,000 psi; 1%

the smaller the hose, the ___ the velocity needed to deliver the same volume?p179

greater

produces a stream that normally has no use in fire fighting?p180

open fire hose (open butt)

if velocity is increase beyond practical limits, the friction will become so great that the entire system is agitated by resistance causing a degree of turbulence known as?p181

critical velocity

forced created by the rapid deceleration of water; causes a violent increase in pressure powerful enough to rupture piping or damage fixtures?p181

water hammer

to prevent water hammer when water is flowing ?p181

slowly close nozzles, valves, and hose clamps

when a large volume of water is needed, FD can request an increase to water pressure from?p182

water utility department

the primary water supply can be obtained from?p182-183

surface water(rivers and lakes) or ground water(wells or water producing springs)

engineer estimates of total amount of water needed for domestic, industrial and fire fighting use?p183

community water needs

in cities the domestic and industrial water requirements far exceed that for?p183

fire protection

in small towns the requirements for _____ may exceed that for domestic and industrial.p183

fire protection

three methods of moving water in a system?p183

direct pumping systemgravity systemcombination system

most community use a combination system of?p183

direct pumping and gravity

a dependable ____ ____ involves reliable, duplicated equipment and proper sized, strategically located storage containers.p184

combination system

part of an overall water supply system that receives the water from the pumping station and delivers it throughout the area to be served?p184

distribution system

water supply system that utilizes lateral feeders for improved distribution?p184

grid system

fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is known as ?p184

dead-end hydrant

fire hydrant receives water from 2 or more directions it is said to have ?p184

circulating feed or a looped line

grid system consists of:p184-185

primary feederssecondary feedersdistributors

the function of a valve in a water distribution system is to provide means for controlling the?p185

flow os water through the distribution piping

type of valve use to control underground water mains found on the supply main of installed fire protection systems?p186

post indicator valve (PIV)

a type of valve for a sprinkler system in which the position of the center screw indicates whether the valve is open or closed?p186

outside screw and yoke (OS&Y) valve

to keep them in good condition valves should be inspected and operated at least?p186

once a year

one of the most important factors in the water supply system is the water department's ability to promptly operate the valves during?p186

an emergency or breakdown of equipment

visually shows whether the gate or valve seat is open, closed, or partially closed?p186

indicating valvesPIV- "open" or "shut"OS&Y- threads out open, threads in closed

valves in the private fire protection system are usually of the?p186

indicating valves

most common type of valves used on most public distribution systems; installed in valve boxes or manholes?p186

nonindicating valves

control valves in the public water distribution system are generally?p187

gate valves

nonrising-stem gate valves should be marked with a number indicating the number of turns necessary to ?p187

completely close the valve

water pipe that is used underground is generally made of:p187

cast iron, ductile iron, asbestos cement, steel, plastic, or concrete

adverse effects of encrustation and sedimentation can be reduced by?p188

flushing hydrants periodically

average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over a period of one year?p188

average daily consumption (ADC)

maximum total amount of water that was used during a 24 hour interval within a 3 year period(unusual situations not considered)?p188

maximum daily consumption (MDC)

maximum amount of water used in any 1 hour interval over the course of a day?p188

peak hourly consumption (PHC)

in general the private water supply system exists to provide water:p188

strictly for fire protection purposesfor sanitary and fire protection purposesfor fire protection and manufacturing processes

most commonly private water supply systems receive their water from?p188

municipal water supply system

if private source of water for fire protection is non-potable then measures must be taken to prevent?p188

cross contamination of municipal water supply system (back flow prevention measures)

interconnecting potable and non-potable water systems is restricted by the ?p189

environmental protection agency(EPA) and numerous state and local water quality codes

advantages to having separate piping arrangements in a private water supply system?p189

control over the water supply sourcefire protection or domestic/industrial are unaffected by interruptions to each other

if there is a question about the reliability of a private water supply system for fire fighting operations ?p189

augment the private water supply by:relaying from municipal systemdrafting from static source

fire service operates three types of nozzles to produce three basic fire streams: p193

solidfogbroken

stream that stays together as a solid mass, not to be confused with straight stream; produce by fixed orifice/smooth bore nozzle?p194

solid fire stream

nozzle pressure and size of the discharge orifice determine the flow and reach of a?p194

solid stream

solid stream handlines should generally be operated at a maximum of?p194

50 psi

master stream appliances should generally be operated at a maximum of?p194

80 psi

formula for discharge rate ?p195

GPM=29.7x d2xäš_NPGPM=discharge in gallons per minute29.7=constantd=diameter of orifice in inchesNP= nozzle pressure in psi

water stream of finely divided particles used for fire control?p196

fog stream

fog stream may be produce by :p196

deflection at the periphery, impinging jets of water or combination of both

angles of fog stream?p196

narrow fog = 15-45 degreeswide fog = 45-80 degrees

the reach of a fog stream is directly related to:p197

width, size of water particles(droplets), wind, volume of water flowing

designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure?p197

constant flow fog nozzle

feature a periphery-deflected stream and has adjustable pattern range; designed to operate at 100 psi, but some may at 50 psi?p197

constant flow fog nozzle

designed for adjustable gallonage settings; many are designed to flow gallonage indicated at?p197

selectable gallonage nozzles; 100 psi

with selectable gallonage nozzles if driver does not supply the proper pressure, the handline will not achieve ?p197

gallonage selected at the nozzle

type of variable flow nozzle flow nozzle with the ability to change patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure?p198

automatic fog nozzles

most automatic fog nozzles are designed to operate at ____, but some models may operate at _____?p198

100 psi; 75 psi

all hoselines must be supplied with 8adequate pressure, especially those with ____, or they will provide sufficient _____ for fire suppression even though the stream may appear well formed.p198

automatic nozzles; flow

within the limitation of its design an ____ ____ maintains its constant operating pressure even if the pump discharge pressure ____ above this level.p199

automatic nozzle; rises

produce a stream with significant forward velocity, but a relatively low volume of water delivery?p199

high pressure fog nozzles

nozzles best suited for wildland fire and not recommended for structural fire fighting due to low water flow of 8-15 gpm; up to 800 psi?p199

high pressure fog nozzle

solid, fog, or broken with 350 gpm maximum flow; ranging in size from 3/4 inch "booster" to nozzle suited for 3 inch diameter hoseline?p199

handline nozzles

capable of water flow in excess of 350 gpm?p199

master stream nozzle

operated during incidents where handlines would be ineffective, conditions require defensive posture, or personnel are limited?p199

master stream appliances

smooth bore master stream?p199

80 psi

fog nozzle master stream?p199

100 psi

designed for a feed position, _____ generally change the direction of water through the device in order to reduce the nozzle reaction and achieve delivery of the fire stream?p199

master stream appliances

three basic type of master stream appliances are?p200

fixedcombinationportable

commonly called "deck guns" permanently mounted on the apparatus?p200

fixed monitors

may be used in a mount on the apparatus or removed and used remotely from vehicle?p200

combination monitors

stored on the apparatus for deployment to the location where they may be used?p200

portable monitors

may be pre-plumbed and permanently attached to and aerial or designed as a detachable appliance?p200

elevated master streams

movement of ladder pipes is limited to a ____ motion accomplished by placing a firefighter at the tip or using ropes?p200

vertical up and down

pre-piped waterways generally feature a master stream that may be remotely controlled from the turntable and is generally able to move?p200

up and down and side to side

most often lowered through holes or other openings to the cellar of an occupancy, also for attic or void space fire?p200

cellar nozzles

cellar nozzles may be referred to as ___, but they have unique flow rates that differ from cellar nozzles.p201

distributor

nozzle with an angled, case hardened steel tip that can be driven through a wall, roof, or ceiling to extinguish hidden fire?p201

piercing nozzle(aka piercing applicator, puncture, penetrating)

commonly used in aircraft fire fighting, car fires, voids, attics, other areas inaccessible to standard fire streams?p201

piercing nozzles

impinging jet nozzle flow approximately 125gpm at 100 psi, 3-6 ft hollow steel 1 1/2 inch rod, with striking surface opposite to the tip.p201

piercing nozzle

designed to suppress fires in chimney flues; supplied by a booster hose?p201

chimney nozzle

slid piece of brass or steel with many small impinging holes; 1.5-3 gpm at 100 psi; very fine mist?p201-202

chimney nozzle

counterforce directed against a person/device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged?p202

nozzle reaction

nozzle reaction demonstrates Newton's third law of motion:p202

for every action there is an equal or opposite reaction

*___ nozzle reaction may seriously injure firefighters and hamper fire suppression efforts.p202

excessive

formula for solid stream nozzle reaction p203

NR=1.57xd(2)xNPNR=nozzle reaction in pounds1.57=constantd=nozzle diameter inchesNP=nozzle pressure psi

formula used to achieve the approximate solid stream nozzle reaction:p203

NR=Q/3NR=nozzle reaction in poundQ=flow of water in gpm flowing through nozzle3=constant

formula for fog stream nozzle reactionp204

NR=0.0505xQxäš_NPNR=nozzle reaction in pounds0.0505=constant Q=total nozzle flow in gpmNP=nozzle pressure in psi

the primary function of the driver/operator on the fireground is to?p209

provide water to attack crews in sufficient volume and pressure to achieve control and extinguishment of fires

to effectively provide water for fire streams it is necessary to know the amount of _____ in the fire hose and _____ due to elevation?p201

friction loss; pressure loss/gain

friction loss is caused by a number of factors including the condition of the hose and couplings, kinks, but the primary consideration is?p210

volume of water flowing per minute

friction loss and elevation pressure loss are combined with the loss associated with appliances is?p210

total pressure loss(TPL)

friction loss may be determined by?p211

calculations or performing tests

relies on the use of mathematical equations or field application methods that may not be completely accurate?p211

calculation method

only truly accurate method, measuring the pressure at both ends of the hoseline and subtracting the difference?p211

performing tests

formula for friction lossp212

FL=CQ(2)LFL= friction loss psiC=friction loss coefficientQ=flow rate in hundreds gpm (gpm/100)L=hose length in hundreds (feet/100)

generic term applied to any nozzle, wye, siamese, deluge monitor, or other piece of hardware used in conjunction with fire hose to deliver water?p213

appliance

friction loss in cases where total flow through the appliance is less than 350 gpm is considered?p213

insignificant

friction loss for each appliance in a hose assembly when flowing less than 350 gpm p213

0 psi

friction loss for each appliance(other than master stream devices) in a hose assembly when flowing 350 gpm or greater p213

10 psi

friction loss for all master stream appliances regardless of flow p213

25 psi

created by the height difference between the nozzle and the pump and must be factored into total pressure loss(TPL)?p213

elevation pressure

formula for elevation pressure lossp214

EP=0.5HEP=elevation pressure psi0.5=constantH=height in feet

formula elevation pressure loss buildingp214

EP=(5psi)x(# of stories-1)

whether used for supply or attack line presents the simplest friction loss calculation?p215

single hoseline

using more than one hoseline of equal length and equal diameter friction loss calculations need only to be made for one line?p215

multiple hoselines equal length

2 1/2", 3", 4" hoseline eyed into 2 or more smaller lines for fire attack, only one of the wyed calculated if they are same NP, length, and diameter?p215

wyed hoselines equal length

to accommodate larger volumes of water and keep friction loss rates reasonable, two or more parallel hoselines may be laid?p216

siamesed hoselines equal length

siamese hoselines friction loss is approximately ____ less than that of single hoseline at the same NP.p216

25.00%

many FD have predetermined pressure that a driver is expected to supply the?p216

FDC(25 psi)

driver must calculate the friction loss for each for each hoseline supplied by separate discharges to individual nozzles?p216

multiple hoselines unequal length

fed by a large diameter hoseline that supplies several smaller attack lines?p217

manifold appliance

when hose lengths/diameter are unequal the total pressure loss in the system is based on the?p217

highest pressure loss in any of the lines

unless each manifold discharge is equipped with a pressure gauge, _____ hoselines is based on guesswork and may endanger attack crews on the line.p27

gating down

calculating pressure loss with a master stream add?p217

25 psi

pressure loss in aerial device; elevation must be considered as part of the total pressure loss?p218

25 psi

actual pressure of the water as it leaves the pump and enters the hoseline; total amount of pressure being discharged by the pump? p218

pump pressure discharge (PDP)

must be sufficient to overcome all pressure loss? p218

PDP

formula for pump discharge pressurep218

PDP=NP+TPLPDP= pump discharge pressureNP=nozzle pressureTPL=total pressure loss(friction, elevation, appliances)

actual amount of pressure being produced by the pump(difference between intake pressure and discharge pressure)?p219

net pump discharge pressure(NPDP, engine/net pressure)

formula for NPDPp219

NPDP(pps)=PDP-Intake ReadingNPDPpps= net pump discharge pressure from positive pressure sourcePDP=pump discharge pressure

safe and efficient NP for common fire streams:p219

solid handline=50 psisolid master=80 psifog=100 psipressure fo= 50 or 75 psi

friction loss coefficients-single hoselinep222

1 3/4" with 1 1/2" coupling=15.5(15)2 1/2"=23" with 2 1/2" coupling= 0.8(1)4"=0.25"=0.08(0.1)

friction loss coefficients-siamesed lines equal lengthp229

two 2 1/2"=0.5three 2 1/2"=0.22two 3"=0.2one 3" and one 2 1/2"=0.3two 2 1/2" and 3"=0.16two 3" and one 2 1/2"=0.12

mechanical device installed in a discharge line that senses the amount of water flowing, reads out gpm?p281

flowmeter

methods for determining pressure loss and PDP:p281

flowmetershydraulic calculatorspump chartscondensed Q methodgpm flowing

based on the _____ standard, for every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter, a _____ _____ shall also be provided?p282

nfpa 1901; pressure gauge

flowmeters must display flow in increments of?p282

10 gpm or less

two most common types of flowmeters to the fire service?p282

paddlewheel and spring probe

mounted at the top of a straight section of the discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends into the waterway?p282

paddlewheel

sensor measures speed of wheel spin and translates to flow measurement; placement reduces impediment of water flow and lessens chances of damage from debris?p282

paddlewheel

employs a stainless steel spring probe to detect water movement in the discharge piping?p282

spring probe

the greater the flow the more the spring bends sending an electrical charge to display unit; one simple moving part, require very little maintenance?p282

spring probe

flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of ?p282

+/- 3%( 100 gpm=103/97)

each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ____of the control valve?p282

6 inches

pressure gauge is not mounted at ___ location, the flowmeter must be mounted within ____ adjacent to the pressure gauge.p282

6 inch; 2 inches

apparatus monitoring device addition information displayed:p282-283

flow through specific dischargetotal water flow through pump "real time"total water flowed through pump for incident durationamount of foam being flowed

who determines when to use each type of flowmeter?p283

authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)

driver may use flowmeter reading to identify waterflow issues:p283

kink of partially open valve-flowmeter will register a change in reading burst- attack team sends message saying volume suddenly decreased without change in flowmeter

when engaged in a relay pumping operation,driver may feed supply line without having to know volume of water flowing from receiving pumper? p283

using a flowmeter and the pumper's master discharge gauge during initial phase of relay setup.increase throttle=flowmeter will rise, continue to increase until flowmeter no longer increases=correct discharge pressure

intake pressure reading cannot be allowed to drop below?p283

20 psi

apparatus equipped with electronic pressure governors involved in relay pumping, with the exception of attack pumper should be in ?p283

revolution per minute(rpm) mode

number and types of nozzles on line operating from the standpipe may be factored by adding the ___ ___ for each nozzle and pumping the ____ of water that matches.p283

flow rate; volume

when a line is shut down electronic pressure governors set in psi mode?p284

should compensate

when a line is shut down electronic pressure governors set in rpm mode?p284

will not automatically compensate

charts carried on fire apparatus to aid the pump operator in determining the proper pump discharge pressure when supplying hoselines?p284

pump charts

determine the pump discharge pressure required for virtually any hose layout without relying on mental calculations?p284

hydraulic calculator

slide or dial that can be moved to cover or reveal rates of flow, size of hose, and length of hose layout in order to come to a conclusion to a problem?p284

manual hydraulic calculator

specially programmed to allow you to input the variables of each hose layout, including length, diameter, and elevation?p284

electronic hydraulic calculator

may be used for operations in which the friction loss can be determined for 3-, 4-, or 5-inch hose; formulas cannot be used with metric measurements?p284

condensed Q formula

condensed Q formula 3"p287

FL=Q(2)FL=friction loss in psi for 100'Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)

friction loss results will be 20% greater than coefficient formula(in 1000ft of 3" the difference may be up tp 50 psi) ?p287

condensed Q formula 3"

condensed Q formula 4"p287

FL=Q(2)/5FL=friction loss in psi for 100'Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)

condensed Q formula 5"p288

FL=Q(2)/15FL=friction loss in psi for 100'Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)

applicable to both solid and fog streams and is calculated using flow in gpm?p288

GPM flowing(-10 method)250 gpm= 25-10=15 psi/100'

gpm flowing method is not applicable to metric system and 2 1/2" hoselines flowing less than?p288

160 gpm

gpm flowing:FL of 1 1/2" =FL of 2 1/2" flowing x4 gpmp288-289

1 1/2" 50gpm=10 psi/100'2 1/2" 200gpm=10 psi/100'

gpm flowing: 1 1/2" 50-75 gpm and 2 1/2" 200-300 gpmp289

FL increases 2 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2" and 20gpm-2 1/2"50/200 gpm=10 psi55/220 gpm=12 psi60/240 gpm=14 psi

gpm flowing: 1 1/2" 80-100 gpm and 2 1/2" 320-400 gpmp289

FL increases 3 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2" and 20gpm-2 1/2"80/320 gpm=23 psi85/340 gpm=26psi90/360 gpm=29 psi

gpm flowing: 1 1/2" 105-125 gpm and 2 1/2" 420-500 gpmp289

FL increases 4 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2" and 20gpm-2 1/2"105/420 gpm=39 psi110/440 gpm=43 psi115/460 gpm=47 psi

self-priming pump that utilizes a piston on interlocking rotors to move a given amount of fluid through the pump chamber with each stroke of the piston or rotation?p295

positive displacement pump

early pumps used in the fire service where a handle was pumped operating a piston in a cylinder forcing water to pump out?p295

hand-operated piston pump

_____ ____ followed, using a hand crank to to rotate a gear forcing water through the pump and hoses.p295

rotary pumps

rotary pumps were replaced by?p295

single and double action piston pumps also referred to as positive displacement pumps

these pumps produce the same flow at a given speed regardless of the discharge pressure?p295

"constant flow machines"-positive displacement pumps

modern FD pumpers are equipped with ___ ___ as their main pump.P296

centrifugal pumps

this type of pump does not use positive action to force water from the pump; rather, it depends on the velocity of the water produced by the centrifugal force to provide the pressure?p296

centrifugal pumps

positive displacement pump has been replaced by the ___ ___ as the main pumping unit on fire apparatus.p296

centrifugal pumps

continue to play a vital role on modern apparatus because of their ability to pump air and foam; used as priming devices during drafting?p296

positive displacement pump

positive displacement pump using one or more reciprocating pistons to force water from the pump chambers?p296

piston pump

no longer used as high-capacity pumps; some still used for high pressure stream fire fighting; can provide pressures up to 1000 psi; multi cylinder PTO driven pump?p296

piston pumps

the simplest of pumps; in modern apparatus confined to small capacity, booster type pumps; low volume high pressure pumps; and priming pumps?p296

rotary pumps

driven by either a small electric motor or through a clutch that extends from the apparatus drive shaft?p296

rotary pumps(gear or vane construction)

consist of two gears that rotate in a tightly meshed pattern inside a watertight case?p296

rotary gear pump

gears form watertight/airtight pockets as they force water/air out of of the discharge chamber and as they return to intake side no water/air returns?p296

rotary gear pump

total amount of water that can be pumped by a rotary gear pump depends on?p297

the size of the pockets in the gears and speed of rotation

rotary gear pump build up pressure therefore to handle excess pressure there must be?p297

pressure relief device

susceptible to damage from normal wear and tear as well as from sand or other debris?p297

rotary gear pump

rotary gear pump casing is made from?p297

strong alloy(cast iron)

to prevent damage to casings, gears are made from?p297

bronze or other soft metal

a rotor with attached is mounted of-center inside the pump housing; pressure is imparted on the water as the space between the rotor and pump housing wall decreases?p298

rotary vane pump

constructed with moveable that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearance as the pump is used?p298

rotary vane pump

most common type of pumps used to prime a centrifugal fire pump?p298

rotary vane pump

self adjusting feature makes the ___ ___ ___ much more efficient at pumping air than a rotary gear pump.p298

rotary vane pump

pumps cause air being evacuated from the intake side reduces pressure creating a vacuum?p298

rotary pumps

these pumps should be operated during routine apparatus check, because they are prone to failure if no exercised regularly?p298

rotary pumps

pump with one or more impellers that rotate and utilize centrifugal force to move water; most modern fire pumps are this type?

centrifugal pump

since it does not pump a definite amount of water with each revolution it is classified as a?p298

nonpositive displacement pump

self-priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water?p295

positive displacement pump

vaned circulating member of the centrifugal pump that transmits motion to the water?p299

impeller

intake orifice at the center of a centrifugal pump impeller?p299

impeller eye

spiral, divergent chamber of the centrifugal pump in which the velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure?p299

volute

the ___ of the impeller dictates the amount of ____ that is developed.p299

speed; pressure

impeller assembly:p299

impellershaftseals

the ___ transmits energy in the form of velocity to the water?p299

impeller

the ___ ___ houses the impeller assembly, collects the water, and confine its in order to convert the velocity to pressure.p299

pump casing

the ___ capacity of the pump is dictated by the size of the ___.p299

volume; impeller

the off-center mounting of the impeller within the casing creates a water passage of gradually increasing in size as it nears the discharge outlet, this section is called?p299

volute

the increasing size of the volute is necessary because the ?p299

volume of water passing through it increases as it nears he discharge outlet

the volute's gradual increase of size reduces the velocity of water, enabling the pressure to build up___?p300

proportionately

3 main factors influence the centrifugal fire pump's discharge pressure:p300

amount of water being dischargedspeed at which impeller is turningpressure of water when it enter the pump from a pressurized source

amount of ___ ___ that a pump may develop directly dependent on the volume of water it is discharging.p300

output pressure

the discharge volume affects both the ____ and ____ pressures?p300

intake; discharge

the increase in pressure is roughly equal to the ___ of the change in impeller speed?p300

squarepsi=rpm(2)

water will flow through a ____ ____ even if the impeller is not turning.p300

centrifugal pump

because the incoming pressure adds directly to the pressure developed by the pump, incoming pressure changes are reflected in the ___ ___?p300

discharge pressure

a ___ ___ in unable to pump air and is not self-priming.p300

centrifugal pump

ways to prime a centrifugal pump to draft?p300

1 external priming pump2 use of a device that employs air from the apparatus braking system to power a venturi device that removes air from the suction side of the pump3 foot valve attached to the suction side of the pump

two basic types of centrifugal pumps used in the fire service?p300

single stage and multistage

due to recirculation in single stage-pumps, where excess capacity is not allowed to escape the impeller area?p300

cavitation

pump constructed of single impeller; front-mount pumps, PTO, auxiliary engine driven, and midship; up to 2250 gpm?p300

single-stage centrifugal pump

to minimize the lateral thrust of large quantities of water entering the eye of the impeller a ___ ___ impeller may be used.p301

double-suction

takes water from both sides; reaction of each side being equal and opposite cancels out the lateral thrust; provides a larger waterway?p301

double-suction impeller

water is diverted into two streams that are 180ŒÁ apart causing the water to be removed at opposite direction cancels out the?p301

radial thrust

has impeller for each stage mounted in a single housing and usually on a single shaft driven by a single drive train?p301

multistage centrifugal pump

each of the impeller takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge?p301

pumping in parallel(volume) position

each of the impellers is capable of delivering its rated pressure while flowing?p301

50%two stage pump rated 1000gpm at 150 psi each impeller supplies 500gpm

all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller?p302

pumping in series(pressure) mode

first stage increases the pressure and discharges ___-___ percent of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the the eye of the second impeller.p302

50-70

greatly increases the maximum pressure that may be obtained with a corresponding loss of volume?p302

series(pressure) mode

same stream of water has passed through two impellers with each boosting the pressure?p302

series(pressure) mode

process of switching between pressure and volume is sometimes referred to as?p302

"changeover"

maximum net pump discharge pressure at which the transfer valve may be safely operated varies by?p302

manufacturer and age of the pump

*switching from volume to pressure can result in immediate ____ of the previous discharge pressure, which can damage the pump, hoselines, and injure fire fighters.p302

doubling

any ____ must be carefully coordinated with attack crews so they can prepare for slight interruption.p303

changeover

pump is capable of supplying 100% of its rated capacity at 150 psi at 10 ft of lift with 20 ft of suction hose while drafting?p303

parallel(volume) mode

transfer valve on older two-stage pumps is performed ____; safeguard making it ____ ____ to accomplish the transfer while pumping at ___ ____.p303

manually; physically impossible; high pressure

newer pumps us a ____ ____ valve, activated by electricity, air pressure, or water itself and can operate at pressures as high as ____.p3030

power-operated; 200 psi

hinged valve that permits the flow of water in one direction only?p304

clapper valve

automatic valve that permits liquid to flow in only one direction?p304

check valve

essential to the operation of a multi-stage pump; stick open/closed, or hampered by debris pump will not operate properly in series(pressure) mode?p304

clapper/check valves

four impellers connected in series to develop pressures up to 1000 psi for ?p304

high pressure fog

single-stage high-pressure centrifugal pump mounted outboard in conjunction with a conventional two-stage pump with a separate drive system when pressure needed higher than?p304

250 psi

replaceable rings that are attached to the impeller and/or the pump casing to allow a small running clearance between the impeller and pump casing without causing wear of the actual impeller or pump casing material?p304

wear rings

opening between pump casing and the hub of the impeller is usually limited to?p304

0.01 inch or less

sediment and dirt cause wear on the impeller as it turns at nearly ____ when pump nears it capacity.p304

4000 rpm

initial indication of wear may occur during pump tests when increased engine rpm is required to pump at the ___ ___?p304

rated capacity

unlike the positive displacement pump, no harm results from shutting off all the pump discharges for ___ periods of time in a centrifugal pump?p304

short

newer centrifugal pumps may be equipped with a ___ ___ ___ that opens to allow overheated water to circulate between the pump and the main tank/atmosphere.p306

thermal relief valve

non circulating water in the pump heats up causing metal parts of the pump to expand causing ?p306

pump damage

driver can check for excessive temperature manually by placing hand on the ___ ___ ___ pipe, if warm to touch the open ____, ____, or ____.p306

direct pump intake; discharge, tank fill, or circulator valve

point where the shaft passes through the pump casing a semi-tight seal must be maintained to prevent air leaks for ___; ____ seal most common seal type.p306

drafting; mechanical

most common type of seal packing material is composed of:p306

rope fibers impregnated with graphite or lead

some centrifugal pumps are equipped with ___ or ___ seals that are not adjustable.p306

ceramic or mechanical

packing rings are primarily used in?p306

older fire pumps

as packing rings wear with the operation of the shaft, the packing gland can be tightened in order to control?p306

leaks

spacer that causes small leak around the packing where it is in contact with the shaft to provide cooling?p306

lantern or slinger ring

*if a pump is operated dry for any length of time, damage to the shaft may result, any weakening may cause ____ during future use.p307

failure

pump seal material offers superior resistance to warping, stretching, and corrosion?p307

ceramic

factors that determine which fire pump would work best for local FD?p307

intended use and costappearancespace requirementsease of maintenance

pumps powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle-drive engine are?p307

examples of auxiliary pumps

most common applications for auxiliary engine driven pumps:p307

ARFF vehicleswildland fire apparatusmobile water supply apparatustrailer mounted fire pumpsportable fire pumps

type of pump that may be part of skid mount assembly with pumping capacity of 500gpm or less?p307

auxiliary engine driven

skid mount assembly?p307

small water tank, booster reel, small diameter attack lines

pump is driven by a driveshaft connected to the PTO, common to initial attack, wildland, or mobile water supply?p307

power take-off (PTO) driven pump

manufacturers offer rear-engine PTO design that is driven off the engine's ?p307

flywheel

mechanism that allows a vehicle engine to power equipment such as a pump, winch, or portable tools and is typically attached to the transmission?p307

power take-off (PTO) system

ability of an apparatus to pump water while the vehicle is in motion?p308

pump and roll

offers versatility of pump and roll, mounting of the pump offers shorter wheelbase, additional room for compartments, as well as cross lays that are packed lower on apparatus?p308

rear engine PTO design

proper mounting of rear engine PTO is essential for dependable and smooth operation, therefore pump gear case must be mounted in location:p308

that allows for minimum of angles in driveshaftmust not extend too far below the chassis(damage during driving)

PTO pump does permit pump and roll operations, but it is not as effective as?p308

separate engine unit

during pump and roll operations while drive using the ___ ___ rather than the speedometer?p308

pressure gauge

PTO units range from conventional units at ___to other manufacturers provide full torque PTO as large as____.p308

500gpm to 1250gpm

mounted between the front bumper and grill; is typically driven through a gear box and clutch connected by a driveshaft to the front of the crankshaft?p308

front-mount pumps

gear box uses a step up gear ratio, which causes the impeller of the pump to turn faster than the engine with limitations typically up to 1250gpm in ?p308

front-mount pumps

disadvantages of the front-mount pump are :p309

exposure to weather and vulnerable todamage

most ___ pumps are engaged and operated at the pump location, putting the driver in a vulnerable position.p309

front-mount

pump mounted laterally across the frame behind the engine and transmission?

midship pump

power is supplied to the pump using a split shaft gear case(transfer case) that diverts power from rear axle to fire pump through gears, drive chain or belt?p309

midship pump

ratio is arranged so that the impeller turns faster than the engine?p310

1 1/2 to 2 1/2 times as fast

fire pumps can be configured to operate over a range of capacities determined by piping arrangement and gear ratio; pump ratings can range:p310

500-2250 gpm

the usual arrangement provides control of the transfer case from the inside of the apparatus by using a:p310

mechanical linkage or electrical, hydraulic, or air-operated controls

when driver places the transmission in the correct gear, a ____ feature engages, preventing the transmission from switching gears as rpms are raised or lowered.p310

lockout

with the engine idling and the pump engaged most speedometers will read?p310

10-15 mph

some apparatus are designed so that the speedometer does not register above 0 mph when pump is engaged including ?p310

all PTO pumps

signs indicating that the apparatus is ready to pump:p311

pump indicator lightspeedometer reading sound of the pump engaging

used for auxiliary systems, including compressed air foam systems(CAFS) and generators on some apparatus?p311

hydrostatic pumps

pump design that offers more even weight distribution on the chassis and more usable compartment space?p312

rear-mount pumps

disadvantage of the era-mount pump is:p312

driver may be more directly exposed to oncoming traffic

rear-mount pumps are powered by:p312

split-shaft transmission or by a power take-off

piping and valves attached to a pump are integral components of the fire pump system, primary parts of piping system are:p312

intake and discharge pipin, pump drains, and valves

nfpa 1901 requires all components of the piping system to be of?p312

corrosion resistant material

most fire pump pipes are constructed of:p312

cast iron, brass, stainless steel, or galvanized steel and may include rubber hoses in certain applications

the piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of _____ before being placed into service.p312

500 psi

all piping and hoses must be designed to run as straight as possible with a minimum number of bends and turns in order to?p312

minimize pressure loss within the apparatus

according nfpa 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 fpm or less should have piping capable of flowing?p312

250gpm

according nfpa 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 fpm or greater should have piping capable of flowing?p312

at least 500gpm

many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump as large as?p312

mobile water supply units may feature multiple?p312

tank-to-pump lines

modern pumps are equipped with ___ ___ that prevent damage to the tank if the tank-to-pump valve opens inadvertently while water is being supplied tho the pump under pressure(relay operation).p312

check valves

if flow requirements allow it, refill the ___ ___ and keep it maintained as an emergency water supply during pumping operations.p313

booster tank

the ___ is tapped into the pump at a high point on the suction side or the impeller eye and use a priming valve.p313

primer

as piping nears the pump it typically tapers to a ____ shape in order to eliminate the vortex that may occur in water that flows through circular piping.p314

square

unless certified by the manufacturer to deliver the rated capacity these intakes should be considered auxiliary?p314

front and rear

2 1/2" pipe used with 90ŒÁ bends and T-fittings the flow is limited to?p314

250gpm

3" pipes is used with straighter piping route, a flow as high as ____ may be possible through one of the intakes(may be used as auxiliary drafting point).p314

450gpm

nfpa 1901, a sufficient number of 2 1/2" discharge openings must provide to flow the?p314

rated capacity of the pump

as a minimum all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750gpm or greater must be equipped with?p314

at least two 2 1/2" discharges

pump rated less than 750gpm, are required to have?p314

only one 2 1/2" discharge

apparatus may be equipped with discharges smaller than 2 1/2" which are commonly used with?p314

pre-connected attack lines

a minimum of ____ piping, valves, and elbows must be used to supply discharges where 1 1/2", 1 3/4", or 2" handlines are attached.p314

2-inch

discharges are usually equipped with a ___ ___ valve that can be operated and locked in any position.p314

locking ball

all valves should be designed and maintained so that they are easily operated at pressures up to?p314

250psi

allows the the tank to be filled without making additional connections when pump is being supplied from external source?p315

tank fill line(tank recirculating valve)

according to nfpa 1901 apparatus with tanks less than 1000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least?p315

1-inch

according to nfpa 1901 apparatus with tanks greater than 1000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least?p316

2-inches

on pumps not equipped with thermal relief valve, the ___ ___ line can be used in conjunction with the ____ _ ___ valve to circulate water.p316

tank fill; tank-to-pump

serves the same function as a circulating valve; small-diameter copper tubing with a very limited flow capability?p316

booster line cooling valve

control most of the intake and discharge lines from the pump, must airtight and wear resistant?p316

valves

most common type of valve and permits the full flow of water through a line with minimum friction loss?p316

ball-type valve

most common actuators for ball-type valves?p316

push-pull handles (T-handles) or quarter-turn handles

has a simpler mechanical linkage with the handle mounted directly on the valve stem?p316

quarter-turn handle

some apparatus may feature valves that are hydraulically, pneumatically, or electrically controlled; operated by toggle switch or touch screen?p317

ball-type valve

*drivers must ensure that ___ ___ are open or fully closed by the visual indicator on the pump panel.p317

intake valves

large diameter intakes and discharges commonly use these types of valves?p317

gate or butterfly

gate valves are most commonly operated by?p317

handwheel

butterfly valves are most commonly operated by?p317

quarter-turn handles

nfpa 1901 require that all intakes or discharges that are 3" or greater be equipped with?p317

slow acting valve controls

slow acting valve controls prevents the valve movement from open to close in less than?p317

3 seconds

provide a way for the driver to drain the hose side of of the valve after the discharge valve and nozzle are both closed?p317

drain valve

allows the changeover from tank water to a supply without interruption to the attack lines operating from the tank?p318

bleeder valve on the gated intake

all air is evacuated, bleeder valve is discharging steady water, bleeder valve can be closed, the intake valve opened, and the tank-to-pump valve closed?p318

change over with no interruption to water flow

___ all drain immediately after draining. leaving drains opened may result in inability to prime the pump. p318

when pump is supplying multiple attack lines, any sudden change in flow on one line can cause a ____ ____ in another.p318

pressure surge

nfpa 1901 requires some type of ____ ____ ____ to be part of any fire apparatus pumping system.p318

pressure control device

pressure control device must operate within ___ to ___ after discharge pressure rises and restrict the pressure from exceeding ____ above the set level.p318-319

3 to 10 seconds; 30 psi

relief valve systems and governor systems must have an indicator to show that the system is activated; and whether it is controlling the?p319

engine speed of pump pressure

sensitivity to pressure change and its ability to relieve excessive pressure within the the pump discharge?p319

relief valve

two basic concepts for pressure relief valves:p319

relieve excess pressure on the discharge and intake side of the pump

most common relief valve uses a?p319

spring loaded pilot valve

discharge pressure relief valves are ___ to react and ___ to reset back to "all closed" positions.p320

quick; slow

intake pressure relief valves are intended to reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and discharge hoselines caused by?p320

water hammer

two basic types of intake pressure relief valves include:p320

supplied by the pump manufacturer and is an integral part of the pump intake manifoldadd-on device that is screwed onto the pump intake connection

generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than _____ above the necessary operating pressure.p320

10 psi

pressure control device that controls engine speed, eliminating hazardous conditions that result from excessive pressures?p321

pressure governor

pressure in a centrifugal pump may also be regulated by a ___ or ___ governor that is pressure activated to adjust the engine throttle?p321

mechanical or electronic

designed to regulate engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements?p321

pressure governor

it is only necessary to reduce engine speed to reduce pressure because?p321

pressure governor-engine speed- impellers-discharge pressure

excessive pressure is generally caused by?p321

shutting down one or more operating hoselines

when ___ a tube from the discharge side of the pump transmits the resulting pressure rise to a governing device, which then cuts back the throttle.p321

excessive pressure builds up

uses a pressure sensing element(pressure transducer) that is connected to the discharge manifold?p321

electronic governor

electronic governor's pressure sensing element(pressure transducer) changes the throttle setting as needed by adjusting the amount of ____ supplied to the engine.p321

fuel

electronic governor also features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below?p321

30 psi

condition in which vacuum pockets form due to localized regions of low pressure at the vanes in the impeller of the centrifugal pump, causing vibrations, loss of efficiency, and possible damage to the impeller?p321

cavitation

when discharge is closed the engine rpm is adjusted, but the same discharge pressure is maintained on any line still flowing?

electronic governor

when discharge is closed the engine rpm is adjusted, and results in lower discharge pressure for all lines as the engine rpm is lowered?p321

mechanical governor

any device, usually a positive displacement pump, used to exhaust the air from inside a centrifugal pump and the attached hard suction?p322

priming device

depends on creating a lower pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere?p322

drafting operation

categories of primers:p322

positive displacement, exhaust, vacuum, and air primers

most modern pumpers use ______ primers.p322

positive displacement

small versions of _____ and ____ type positive displacement pumps are commonly used as primers.p322

rotary vane; rotary gear

primers may be driven off the transfer case of the transmission, but most popular means of powering primer pumps is?p322

electric motor

many conventional primers use an oil or other type of fluid that serves to:p322

seal gapsfill irregularitiespreserve pump

activate the primers with the engine in idle then increase the throttle to specified rpms; in general the rpm range for priming?p322

1000-1200 rpms

devices constructed of materials that do not require lubrication; most new pumpers are equipped with?p323

oil-less primers

generally found in skid-nount pumps or older fire apparatus, uses exhaust gasses diverted to a chamber where passing velocity creates a vacuum?p323

exhaust primers

primer that requires high engine rpms to create vacuum; requires great deal of maintenance to remove carbon deposits?p323

exhaust primers

simple device that makes use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold of any gasoline-driven engine?p323

vacuum primers

engine vacuum is greatest at near idle speed, the primer works best at low engine rpm; not common because gasoline-powered engines are a rarity?

vacuum primers

physical law stating that when a fluid, such as water or air, is forced under pressure through a restricted orifice, there is an increase in the velocity of the fluid passing through the orifice and a corresponding decrease in the pressure exerted against the sides of the constriction. Because the surrounding guild is under greater atmospheric pressure, it is forced into the are of lower pressure?p324

venturi effect

uses the compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump that creates a ____ that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants.p324

venturi effect

___ requires that all controls and instruments necessary to operate the pump are located on the pump operator's panel.p324

nfpa 1901

not specifically required by nfpa 1901, but it is recommended and generally found on the pump operator's panel?p324

engine fuel gauge

two primary gauges used by the driver to determine the water entering and leaving the pump?p324

master intake and discharge gauges

connected to the intake side of the pump and measures either positive or a vacuum?p324

master intake gauge(vacuum or compound)

calibrated from 0-600 psi of positive pressure and 0-30 inches of mercury on the negative side?p324

master intake gauge(vacuum or compound)

when the vacuum reading approaches ____, the pump is nearing capacity and is not able to supply additional lines.p325

20 inches

master intake gauge also provides a reading of the ____ when the pump is operating from a hydrant or supply from another pumper?p325

residual pressure

displays the engine speed in revolutions per minute?p326

tachometer

during acceptance testing the rpm required to pump the ____ is determined and the information is recorded on the identification plate on the pump panel.p326

rated capacity

displays the temperature of the coolant in the engine that powers the fire pump?p326

pumping engine coolant temperature indicator

engine that operates too cool is not _____ and too high may result in ____ to mechanical.P326

efficient; damage

shows if an adequate supply of oil is being delivered to the critical areas of the engine that power the fire pump; does not measure the amount of oil in crankcase but if too low oil pump will be unable to maintain proper pressure?p326

pumping engine oil indicator

pump panel may be equipped with an ____ or ____ indicator that warns the driver when the pump will over heat?p326

audible; visual

device used for measuring existing voltage in electrical system; provides relative indication of battery condition?p326

voltmeter

gauge that indicates both the amount of electrical current being drawn from and provided to the vehicle's battery; indicates status of the alternator and charging system?p326

ammeter

must be connected to the outlet side of the discharge valve so that the pressure being reported is actually the pressure supplied to the hoselines after the valve?p327

pump pressure indicators or discharge gauges

____ ____ gauges may also be supplied with master stream devices or the lines that supply them.p327

individual pressure

nfpa 1901 allows flowmeter readouts to substitute for?p327

individual pressure discharge gauges(master intake and pressure gauges must be present)

device used to increase/decrease the speed of the engine that powers the fire pump; must be contained on the pump panel?p327

pumping engine throttle

can be turned clock- or counterclockwise to achieve the required pressure?p327

throttle knob or vernier

operated by throttle switch or push button are commonly found on newer apparatus?p327

automatic throttle control

used to operate the priming device when the pump will draft from a static water supply; push button, toggle, or pull lever?p328

primer control

displays the quantity of water held in the onboard water tank; uses a series of lights to indicate the signals sent by sensors within the tank in increments of one quarter levels(1/4, 1/2, 3/4, full)?p328

water tank level indicator

during routine daily inspection, driver should verify the accuracy of the ____ ____ ____ by inspecting the fill opening to verify the tank i full.p328-329

water level gauge

the gauges and other controls related to the CAFS or other foam systems are usually located on the?p329

pump operator's panel

primary function is to control the temperature of th coolant in the apparatus engine during pumping operations?p329

auxiliary cooling system

older apparatus usually contain one of two auxiliary coolers:p329

marine or immersion type

auxiliary coolers are designed so that the coolant in the radiator does not mix with the water from the fire pump so that engine coolant will not be?p329

contaminated

in older apparatus radiator fill valve allows water from the pump to be circulated to the radiator to cool engine; causes the original coolant to ____ and should be operated in ____ only; should be flushed and filled with fresh coolant after use.p329

dilute; emergency

*in extreme situations ( cooling element failure) during pumping operations, what can be done for brief time while interior crews withdraw and immediately after driver should? p329

direct a water stream at the engine for cooling; shut down engine

making the fire pump operational is commonly referred to as?p336

putting the pump into gear

IFSTA recommends the wheels be ___ every time the driver exits the cab.p336

chocked

when the driver is ready to operate the pump to generate sufficient pressure to create an effective fire stream?p337

fire pump made operational

while the pump is in operation the driver must:p337

monitor all gauges(engine/pump)adjust throttle until desired flow rate achieved if using flowmeter

can be opened and set to circulate water back into the tank if pumped is equipped:p338

circulator; bypass; or booster cooling valve

driver must be aware that tank fill line may be plumbed with pipe large enough to cause pump?p338

cavitation

to partially open the tank fill valve and avoid cavitation, some drivers use the distance of?p338

thumb to pump panel

in an incident requiring more water than carried aboard apparatus?p338

transition to external water supply before depleting onboard tank

two basic pressurized water supply sources that a driver will encounter:p339

fire hydrant or supply hose from another pumper

pumping at a _____ _____ _____ while being supplied by other apparatus is equally dangerous.p330

low residual pressure(below 20 psi)-can cause hose collapse or cavitation

driver should maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ on their master intake gauge.p340

20 psi

safety and fire fighting needs may indicate that the _____ hydrant to the fire may not be the most prudent choice.p340

closest

many water supply districts use a _____ ____ system to indicate the capacity of the hydrants.p340

color-coded marking

least desired hydrants are those located on " ___ ___ ___" that are served by smaller main from one direction.p340

dead end mains

water main that is not looped and in which water can flow in only one direction?p340

dead end mains

method of laying hose from the water supply to the fire scene?p341

forward lay

stopping at the hydrant, dropping the end of one or mrs supply hoselines at the hydrant, and then proceeding to the fire location?p341

forward lay

to aid the process of making a forward lay, allows second arriving pumper at the hydrant to connect without interrupting water flow and is able to boost supply of attack pumper?p341

four-way hydrant valve

when supplying pumper directly from hydrant keep the distance as short as possible to avoid excess friction loss when using what diameter hose?p344

2 1/2" or 3"

method of laying hose from the fire scene to the water supply?p344

reverse lay

executing a reverse lay is a common method for setting up a water supply operation using ____ ____ hose as supply line?p344

medium diameter

2 1/2" or 3" hose used for both firefighting attack and relay-supply purposes?p344

medium diameter hose(MDH)

a common two-pumper operation provides for?p344

an attack pumper and a water supply pumper

first pumper reports directly to the incident scene to begin initial operations using water from onboard tank?p344

attack pumper

second arriving pumper lays a supply line from the attack pumper back to the water source?p344

water supply pumper

close the tank to pump valve if the intake is not equipped with a ?p344

shutoff valve

valve in the tank-to-pump line that prevent water from entering the tank under pressure from the pump intake?p344-345

check valve

pumpers built before ___ may not be equipped with a check valve in the tank-to-pump line.p345

1991

regardless of whether apparatus has check valve/shutoff valve on the intake, the driver should close the ____ ___ after transitioning to external water supply?p345

tank-to-pump valve

the driver should record the ___ ___ reading before he or she begins to pump.p346

static pressure

if the master intake gauge drops below 20 psi the throttle must not be ___ any further because the pump may begin to cavitate. p346

increased

methods to prevent overheating:p347

continuous minimum flowbooster line/small diameter line discharge water in direction that won't interfere or back into tank

during prolonged operations a bypass circulator may not provided sufficient cooling, additional measures:p347

open a discharge drain valve partially open tank-fill or tank-to-pump

formula percentage method(available hydrant water)p348

percent drop= (static-residual)(100)/static10% or less= 3 lines same flow11%-15%= 2 lines same flow>25%= 0 lines

fist digit method:p349

difference in psi=static-residual 70-65=5multiply 1st digit of static:7x1-equal or less= 3 lines same flow 0-7*x2-equal or less= 2 lines same flow 8-14x3- equal or less= 1 line same flow 15-21

squaring the lines method?p350

difference in psi=static-residual 60-52=8psimultiplication factor=(number of lines)2 2(2)=4resultant pressure drop in system at the new flow rate= (multiplication factor)x(original pressure drop) 4x8=32psi60-32=28psi left 3rd line no go

each time the flow rate is double, the pressure drop in the system is?p350

quadrupled

all changes in flow should be made slowly and smoothly to avoid ____ ____ and ____ ____ on water systems.p351

water hammer and pressure surges

effect of altering the atmospheric pressure within a confined space by mechanical means?p352

pressure differential

it is not possible to ___ water into the pump.p352

pull

it is possible to evacuate some of the air inside the pump creating a ____ ____(partial vacuum), which allows atmospheric pressure acting on the surface of the water to force it into the fire pump.p352

pressure differential

atmospheric pressure at sea level is ?p352

14.7 psi

the amount of ___ ___ is proportional to the amount of water moving through hose or appliance.p352

friction loss

pumper supplied with 4 1/2" intake hose can attain its rated capacity of?p352

750gpm

pumper supplied with 5" intake hose can increase its rated capacity to?p352

820gpm

what measurement is used in drafting since the changes of pressure are so minute?p352

inches of mercury

pressure decreases approximately ___ psi or ___inch of Hg for each 1000 feet of altitude gain.p352

0.5psi or 1 inch of Hg

in a city located 5000 feet above sea level the atmospheric pressure is ?p352

12.2 psi5000ft(0.5x5=2.5)14.7-2.5=12.2

increasing the hight of the lift will decrease?p353

total pump capacity(pump rated at 750pgm with 10ft lift will do 585gpm at 16ft lift)

most pumps are able to develop vacuum capacity of approximately ___ inches of mercury.p354

in theory, ____ can be described as water being discharged faster than it is coming into the pump.p354

cavitation

indicators of pump cavitation:p354

pressure gauge will fluctuatehose streams pulsate/popping or sputtering soundsound like gravel passing through pumplack of reaction on pressure with increase throttle

drafting site may be selected by:p355

amount of watertype/quality of wateraccessibility of water

most important factor in choosing a draft site?p355

amount of water available

in order for the pumper to approach its rated capacity using a traditional strainer there must be at least _____ of water over the strainer.p355

24 inches

in drafting operations with less than _____ of water above the strainer it is more likely that floating debris may clog strainer.p355

24 inches

rapid intake of water into the strainer may cause a _____; placing a blank ___ ___ above the strainer may lessen the chances of it happening.p355

whirlpool; floating object(capped plastic jug or beach ball)

in order to draft from a swift moving shallow stream?p355

dam or dig out bottom

strainer where water is drawn in through a series of holes on the bottom because of this no whirlpools?p355

floating strainer

because floating strainers take in water from bottom only pumper may not receive enough water to achieve its?p355

rated discharge capacity

strainer used portable tank or swimming pool for drafting operation?

low-level strainer

low-level strainer are designed to sit at bottom of portable tank or pool draft effectively to a depth of approximately?p356

2 inches

in jurisdictions that may draft using ocean water, ___ ___ must be considered.p356

tidal movement

water temperature below _____ or above _____ may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity.p356

35ä‹Š(1.7ä‹€); 90ä‹Š(32ä‹€)

water that has not been examined, properly treated, and not approved by appropriate authorities as being safe for consumption?

non-potable water

almost any type of water may be used for fire suppression, but ____ water may be harmful to the pump.p356

non-potable

using saltwater or water supply from vicinity of mining operations/industrial plants may expose the pump to?p356

corrosion(salt and caustic chemicals)

the pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed with fresh water soon after pumping?p356

non-potable water

as the amount of lift required to reach the pump increases, the following effects occur:p357

elevation pressure increasesless friction loss can be overcomecapacity of pump decreased

all fire pumps meeting nfpa and underwriter's laboratories inc. requirements are rated to pump their capacity at ___ of lift?p357

10 feet

if lift is less the capacity of the pump is ____; if the lift is greater the capacity _____?p357

higher; decreases

a pumper in good working order can lift water a maximum of?p357

25 ft

to create an effective fire stream recommended lift no greater than?p357

20 ft

percentage of rated capacity of the pump working with 20 ft lift is?p357

60.00%

important variables to consider during draft site selection include ?p357

stability of the ground surfaceconvenience of connecting hoselinesafety of the driver operator

usually easier to connect the hose to the intake fittings by first putting the strainer into the water and then placing ?p358

apparatus into position

routing intake hose over high point(fence or guard rail) that is higher than the pump intake may?p358

trap air in the hose

when pump made operational, ____ the pump will begin draft operation.p358

priming

two-stage pumps, the transfer valve must be in the ____ position because in _____ position may trap air.p358

parallel(volume); series(pressure)

most priming pumps are intended to work most effectively when the engine is set at a rate between?p359

1000-1200 rpms

if priming pump is driven by electric motor the exact rpm is not critical, but should be sufficient to keep ____ ____ and prevent loss of prime.p359

alternator charging

the engine rpm should be kept as low as possible without causing engine to stall?p359

vacuum type primer

pump made airtight, engine rpm set, operate primer control to evacuate air then the master intake gauge will register vacuum reading of?p359

1 inch of mercury per foot of lift required

entire priming action from start to finish typically requires?p359

10 to 15 seconds

up to 20 ft of intake hose lifting a maximum of 10 ft vertical priming may take as long as?p359

30 seconds(45 pumps larger than 1250gpm)

most common cause of air leak is?p359

open drain or valve, gasket of intake hose(tighten with mallet)

other potential problems cause air leak:p359

insufficient fluid in priming reservoirengine speed(rpm) too lowlift is too highhigh point in intake hose create air pocket

after successful prime increase/maintain throttle setting between ____ before opening discharge to avoid loss of prime.p360

50-100 psi

driver should not attempt to set desired discharge pressure until water is flowing and the gauge is?p360

stabilized

most common source of problems while operating at draft?p360

air leak intake side(air entering along with water)

if there is not enough water above drafting strainer air may be entering because of ?p361

whirpool

if onboard water tank is empty the tank-to-pump line may be source of leakage due to?p361

defective pump packing

*damaged or leaking ____ valves may lead to the inability to achieve or maintain a draft.p361

tank-to-pump

gradual increase in the vacuum noted with no change in flow rate indicates?p361

blockage

immediate solution to cavitation?p361

decrease rpm

the most common place for a blockage to occur is the ?p361

strainer

intake hose operating under vacuum the inner liner can become _____ from the hose itself and ____ causing a block.p362

detached; collapse

steps to shut down drafting operation:p362

slowly decrease engine speed to idletake pump out of gearallow pump to drain

integral part of the fire protection features of many buildings?

fixed fire suppression systems

designed to support the flow of a specified number of fire sprinklers based on the hazard being protected?p362

sprinkler system

automatic water supply for sprinkler system is designed to supply only a ____ number of the total sprinklers at any given time.p362

fraction

should be identified in pre-incident planning;p362

occupancies with automatic sprinkler systemsFDCcloses hydrant/static water

FDC connection may consist of:p363

siamese 2-2 1/2" female connections connected to a clappered inlet or one LDH sexless connection

*when interior attack crews operate from combination sprinkler/standpipe system pressure supplied should be based on safe operating pressure for the?p363

interior crews

it is advisable to confirm the presence of actual ___ before pumping to FDC.p363

fire

when pumping to sprinkler system multistage pumps should be operated in ____ position, and general guideline to discharge pressure is ____.p363

parallel(volume); 150 psi

prevents water from sprinkler system back into FDC, but allows water from FDC into sprinkler systems as long pressure is greater than that holding the check valve closed?p363

check valve

sprinkler control valves should be checked and those closed should be opened except one the control area of building where sprinkler system is undergoing?p364

construction or renovation

wet or dry system of pipes in a large single- or multi-story building with fire hose outlets?p364

standpipe system

allow for quicker access to water supply for attack hoselines with 2 1/2" or 1 1/2" connections?p364

standpipe system

contain water under pressure and may be used as soon as a hoseline is stretched and the valve is opened?p364

wet pipe system

must be charged with water from the occupancy's water supply, stationary fire pump, FD pumper, or combination of the sources?p364

dry pipe system

FD should always support the ____ to ensure adequate flow and pressure is provided for fire fighting operations.p364

FDC

pump discharge pressure when supplying FDC depends on:p364-365

pressure loss standpipe 25psi(flow exceeding 350gpm)friction loss pumper to FDCfriction loss hose fire floornozzle pressureelevation

approximate elevation loss for each floor above the FDC?p365

5 psi

do not use PDP in excess of ____ unless standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressure.p365

185 psi

valve installed at the standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at that discharge to specific pressure?p365

pressure reducing valve(PRV)

pressure reducing valves usually reduce pressure to?p365

100psi

water will be discharged at all the points where caps are off and the valve is open when the standpipe is/p365

charged

when a dry standpipe is charged there will be a time delay as?p365

water fills the system and expels the air

in unable to use FDC an alternative way to provide some support is?p366

using a double female connector supply the 1st floor standpipe connection

immediately upon indication that water supply or pumping ability may be unattainable or interrupted you must notify?p366

officer or IC

the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center if the pump intake?p403

lift

a ____ vacuum is impossible to create using fire service equipment?p404

total

theoretical scientific height that a column of water may be lifted but atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum; at sea level is?p404

theoretical lift; 33.9 ft

maximum height to which any amount of water may be raised through a hard suction hose to a pump; determined by the ability of the pump to create a vacuum?p404

maximum lift

variables affecting maximum lift include:p404

atmospheric pressure condition of fire pump, primer, intake hose, gaskets, and valves

formula for determining maximum liftp405

L=1.13HgL=height of lift (ft)1.13= constantHg=inches of Mercurygauge read 14 Hg lift= 15.82ft (1.13x14)

height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable flow?p406

dependable lift

after factoring in the surrounding atmospheric pressure and friction loss in the intake hose, every fire pump that is operating properly should have a dependable lift of at least?p406

14.7 ft

if lift is increased to 15ft pump may only deliver _____ percent of its capacity and if increased to 20ft it may deliver only _____ percent of its capacity.p406

70%; 60%

must account for all factors that contribute to the amount of work required by a pump to produce a fire stream?p407

net pump discharge pressure(NPDP)

formula for pressure correction

PC= lift+total intake hose friction loss/2.3PC=pressure correctionlift=required lift in lifttotal intake hose friction loss=# from table 11.22.3=constant

formula for net pump discharge pressure at draft

NPDPdraft=PDP+PCNPDPdraft=net pump discharge pressure at draftPDP=pump discharge pressurePC=intake pressure correction

natural water supply sources include:p410

lakes, ponds, streams, rivers and oceans

when evaluating a potential water supply source first determine:p410

adequacy and accessibility

smaller natural sources may be more susceptible to fluctuations in adequacy during periods of _____ than larger bodies of water.p410

drought

floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to?p411

500gpm

allows the utilization of static water supplies that are located a modest distance from fire apparatus?p411

water eductor

operating apparatus on unstable terrain is ___ and may result in a ____?p411

dangerous; rollover

sufficient depth recommended for barrel-type strainer?p412

2 ft of water all around

sufficient depth recommended for floating strainer?p412

shallow as 1 ft

sufficient depth recommended for low-level strainer?p412

1-2 inches

cleaning the fire pump or piping by flowing water through it in the opposite direction of normal flow?p412

back flushing

if an adequate draft cannot be established due to clogging at the strainer, _____ _____ with tank water may help to dislodge the debris.p412

back flushing

may restrict the volume of water that can be drafted, but allows for more efficient access to a natural supply source through a pre-piped installation?p412

dry hydrant

methods for gaining access to static water supplies during freezing weather include:p413

allow barrels filled with antifreeze to freeze in place and knockout bottom for accessset wooden plug or plastic can to freeze in place, drive through ice if access is neededchain saw, power auger, axe, or combination of tools to breach the ice

*regardless of the assumed depth all firefighters working close to water must?p414

wear pfd and use safety line

___ ___ often make it difficult to keep the strainers submerged below the surface of the water.p414

strong currents

common artificial static water supply sources:p414

cisterns private water storage tanksground reservoirsswimming poolsagricultural irrigation systems

water storage receptacle that is usually underground and may be supplied by a well or rainwater runoff; not service by hydrants?p415

cistern

most often used for domestic or agricultural purposes, but some are specifically constructed and placed for fire department use?415

cistern

typically range from 10,000 to 100,000 gallons; accessed through utility cover or installed dry hydrant?p415

cistern

found in large residential, industrial, or agricultural locations; several hundreds to tens of thousands of gallons of water; ground level or elevated(technically not static source as it has pressure at outlet)?p415

private water storage tanks

artificial installations that have similar characteristics as a pond or lake?p415

ground reservoirs

contain millions of gallons of water; may be more accessible to fire apparatus than natural bodies of water?p415

ground reservoirs

due to their backyard location and the presence of fences access may be difficult?p415

swimming pools

typical residential swimming pool may contain adequate water supply for a fire in?p416

single family dwelling

formula square/rectangular pool capacityp416

C=7.5xLxWxDC=capacity in gallons7.5=number of gallons per cubic footL=length in ftW=width in ftD=average depth in ft

formula round pool capacityp417

C=7.5x“óxrŒ_xDC=round pool capacity7.5=number of gallon in cubic ft“ó=pi or 3.14r=radius(1/2 diameter) in ft D=average depth in ft

large pools pre-planned as potential static water may be equipped with connections similar to a ____ ____ for quick FD hook-ups.p418

dry hydrant

flush FD pumpers with fresh water after drafting from ___ ___ in order to remove damaging chlorine residue.p418

swimming pool

*using an internal combustion engine indoors creates a danger of ____ ____ poisoning to the occupants of the building.p418

carbon monoxide

agricultural irrigation systems may function as a potential water source because they may flow in excess of ?p418

1,000 gpm

consists of a pumper positioned at the water supply source that is used to pump water under pressure through one or more supply lines to another pumper connected further down the supply line(s)?p425

relay pumping operation

using two or more pumpers to move water over a long distance by operating them in series?p425

relay operation

pumper that takes water from the hydrant or static source and pumps it under pressure to the next apparatus in the relay pumping operation?p426

water supply pumper

should be the apparatus with the largest pumping capacity (aka source pumpers)?426

water supply pumper

using a smaller pumper as a supply pumper should be avoided because?427

will limit the overall fire flow for the incident

pumper(s) connected with the really that receive water from the source pumper or another relay pumper, raises the pressure and then supplies next apparatus?p427

relay pumper

this pumper may be of smaller capacity due to its ability to use acquired energy of previous pumpers in the relay?p427

relay pumper

term used within the ICS for a mobile piece of apparatus that has the primary function of supporting another operation?p427

tender

can carry a mile or more of LDH on hose bed or reel, equipped with a wide assortment of valves, manifolds, and other appliances for relay pumping?p427

tenders

relay supply hose of 3 1/2"-6" in diameter; used to move large volumes of water quickly with a minimum number of pumpers and personnel?p427

large diameter hose(LDH)

the amount of water required at an incident and the distance between the incident scene and the water source determine the need for?p427

relay pumping

the amount of water required will have a major impact on the design of the?p427

relay system

if the amount of flow through a relay operation needs to be increased:p428

increase diameter/number of supply linesincrease PDP of pumpers involveadd pumper(s) to overcome friction loss

centrifugal pumps are rated to pump their maximum volume capacity at _____ at _____?p428

150psi; draft

at no time should discharge pressure exceed the pressure at which hose or appliances have been?p428

service tested

*pumper are rated to flow:p429

maximum capacity at 150 psi70% at 200 psi60% at 250 psi

formula for relay distance(all answers rounded up to the nearest whole number)p430

P=R/D+1P=total number of pumpers neededR=relay distanceD=distance from Tables 12.1a or 12.1b

when relaying long distances the hose lays between each pumper should as ____ as possible.p432

equalized

overall capacity of the relay system is determined by?p432

smallest pump and smallest diameter hose used

failure to keep water moving through the pump when using a static water supply may result in?p432

loss of prime or overheating of the pump

secured hoseline that is used to handle excess water during a relay operation?p433

dump line

the relay pumper should be waiting for water with?p433

a dump line or discharge open and the pump out of gear

when a steady flow of water begins to issue from the dump line, the pump on the relay pumper may be?p433

engaged

the driver of the relay pumper should maintain an intake pressure of?p433

20-30 psi

as water begins to reach each pumper, the driver should ____ any air from the line before opening the intake valve.p433

bleed

process of releasing a liquid or gas under pressure such as releasing air from the regulator or cylinder of a SCBA, or allowing air to escape from hoseline?p433

bleed

device that serves an important role in the safety of relay operation because the cumulative effect of pressure increases when in changes in flow occur?p433

pressure governor

apparatus equipped with pressure governor should set be set in pressure mode when acting as the ___ ___ and in the rpm mode while working as a ___ ____.p433

attack pumper; relay pumper

relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to ____ above the static pressure of the water system/discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.p434

10 psi

attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between ___ and ___ to establish a stable operating condition.p434

50-75 psi

do not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure does not drop below?p434

20 psi

when the need for relay pumping has ended the operation should be discontinued from the?p434

fire scene first

beginning with the attack pumper and coordinating with the other pumpers in the relay, each driver should?p434

slowly decrease the throttle, open the dump line valve, and then disengage the pump

operating from portable folding drop tanks eliminates the ___ ___ and inconsistent supply sometimes found in closed relay.p435

pressure surges

to attain ____ ____, these relay task force units must train together and have compatible equipment.p435

maximum proficiency

using hose for supply:p435

median diameter hose(MDH) 2 1/2"or 3" multiple lineslarge diameter hose(LDH) 4" or 5" requires only 1

refer to ____ for further information regarding the placement of relief devices.p435

nfpa 1962

appliances intended to enhance firefighter safety and reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and other water supply components that may be caused by water hammer?p435

relay relief valves

placed along the length of the supply hose that permits a pumper to connect to the valve to boost pressure in the hose?p436

inline relay valve

used to provide water supply to incident scenes where relay pumping is not a viable option?p443

water shuttle operations

deliver their load of water to the incident scene, dump it into portable tanks, travel to a fill site and then return to the incident scene to dump another load of water?p443

water supply apparatus(tenders or tankers)

usually provides more reliable supply of continuous water with the use of fewer apparatus, but it is more labor intensive to take up when incident is terminated?p443

relay pumping

relies on the constant movement of apparatus at the fill site and dump sites as well as along the route?p444

shuttle operations

in shuttle operations with movement of multiple apparatus the chance of _____ increases?p444

collision

location at which tankers/tenders will be loaded during a water shuttle operation?p444

fill site

location approved for water shuttle apparatus to discharge their water for other apparatus to draw during incident operations?p444

dump site

most favorable aspect of a water shuttle operation is the?p444

ease with which it is terminated when the incident is concluded

in some cases an incident may begin with a ___ ___ operation for the sake of expediency and then transition to a ___ as supply lines are laid.p444

water shuttle; relay

major components of a water shuttle operation:p444

fill site, shuttle route, and dump site

with the exception of operations that feature a vacuum tanker or the use of a hydrant, most water shuttles require at least ___ pumpers for water supply.p445

pumper located at the water source and has the responsibility of filling water tenders?p445

fill site pumper

pumper located near the fire scene and is used to draft water from portable tanks that are filled by water tenders making shuttle runs to and from fill site?p445

dump site pumper

according to nfpa 1901 water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least ____ so that pumpers assigned to the fill site must be rated at that capacity or greater.p445

1,000gpm

vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of?p446

2,000 gallons

with regards to weight apparatus with a capacity greater than 2,000 gallons require?p446

tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers

water tenders used for shuttle operations do not require a ___ ___ if they are equipped with suitable dumping system.p446

fire pump

tenders featuring pumps of 750gpm or greater rating are often called?p446

pumper/tenders

in order to be considered a tender under NIMS typing requires?p446

an onboard or portable fire pump

is bale to self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000gpm with a lift of up to 22ft.?p446

vacuum tender

vacuum tenders are capable of discharging its water tank at a rate of up to?p446

1750 gpm

the success of a water shuttle operation depends on its?p446

efficiency

variable of water shuttle operation that can be controlled through equipment and training to increase efficiency?p446

filling and dump times

attempt to "make up time" by driving faster during water shuttle operation is unsafe and may result in?p447

property damage, injury, death to firefighters/civilians

if using medium diameter hose for filling should have at least ___ external fill connections piped directly to the tank; if using LDH ____ fill connection is generally sufficient.p447

2 MDH; 1 LDH

an alternative to using heavy and harder to handle LDH a ____ hose for each tank fill with quarter turn connectors.p447

it is preferable to have an "____" in the fill pipping to avoid pressurizing the vehicles onboard water tank.p447

"air gap"

*filling through the ___ of the tanks is dangerous and should be discouraged.p447

top

apparatus equipped with ___ ___ valve, this design often do not meet the 1,000gpm flow requirement of nfpa1901.p448

front dump valve

multiple dump valves help improve ___ and ___ by eliminating the need for backing at many dump sites.p448

efficiency and safety

tanks must be ____ ____ to ensure proper dumping operations.p448

adequately vented

two primary types of large tank discharges in use on water tenders?p448

gravity and jet-assisted dumps

gravity is used to empty water from tank; use 8" or larger round or square piping; valve that extends to the exterior of the vehicle?p448

gravity dump

use small diameter in-line discharge inserted into the piping of the large tank discharge; in-line discharge is supplied by the water pump on the water tender and creates a Venturi effect increasing water flow through large tank discharge?p448

jet-assissted dumps

larger gravity dumps limit cost and address operation issues concerning jet-assissted dumps:p448-449

apparatus must be equipped with fire pumppump must be engaged before dumping/adds time water can be discharged without engaging pump at lower ratehigh velocity of water discharge may miss portable tank/strike people or other apparatusmechanism may freeze between dumping-cold weather

with exception of ___ ___, the onboard tank of water tenders must be properly vented to avoid a sudden pressure failure of the tank during quick-filling operations.p449

vacuum tenders

the driver must be sure that the ___ are completely open during fill and dump operations.p449

vents

success of a water shuttle operation relies on several decisions:p449-450

location of dump sitelocation of fill siteroute of travelnumber of apparatus necessary

best time to make tactical decisions id during?p450

pre-incident planning for target hazards and specific geographical areas

must be relatively close proximity to the incident scene, but not so close where it would hamper operations or be in danger of exposure/collapse?p450

dump site

if incident is located on a narrow lane, driveway, or dead end street, it may be advantageous to locate the dump site at?p450

nearest intersection

best location for a dump site is where water tenders can have through access to complete their water shuttle without having to?p450

turn around

for water shuttle operation most suitable site to meet the travel safety and flow requirements of a particular incident may not be always be?p450

geographically closest site

*_____ accidents involving mobile water supply apparatus are a major cause of death and injury to firefighters each year.p453

rollover

the route of travel for water tenders should be selected based on ?p453

safety and operational effectiveness

this route is the optimum arrangement for a water shuttle circuit?p453

circular

fully loaded tenders should travel ____ and empty tenders should make return trip traveling ____.p453

downhill; uphill

consider the following safety issues when planning a route of travel for water shuttle operations:p454

narrow roadslong drivewaysblind curves/intersectionswinding roadssteep gradesinclement weather conditionsfreezing water

US mandated incident management system that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations; creates unified response structure for federal, state, and local governments?p454

national incident command system-incident command system(NIMS-ICS)

when water supply group is established, the person in charge is known as?p454

water supply supervisor

when multiple radio channels are available it may be advantageous to assign dedicated channel to water supply to reduce traffic on the ____?p454

main incident channel

person assigned the role of ___ ___ for water supply operation must have considerable experience in pumper, water supply, and shuttle operations, as well as familiarity with local conditions and a working knowledge of the ICS.p455

group supervisor

system described in nfpa 1561 that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations?p455

incident management system (IMS)

group supervisor will appoint individual responsible for fill and dump sites, which typical ____ or ___ of apparatus stationed at site.p455

company officer or driver/operator

during large scale incidents it may be necessary to establish two or more water shuttle operations, in these cases IC may develop a?p455

water supply branch(east shuttle and west shuttle)

the goal of the fill site is to load tenders as ___ and ___ as possible?p455

safely; efficiently

positioning at fill site must allow for drafting or hydrant connection and the best possible approach and departure for ___ ___ traffic?p456

water tender

ideally position fill site pumper to allow view of?p456

water source and water tender to be filled

if possible fill water tenders at a rate of?p456

1,000gpm

when operating from a hydrant driver must connect at a minimum a ____ intake hose; connect ___ hydrant discharges to pump intake to maximize the potential.p456

LDH; all available

when positioning for draft at static water supply seek position that requires minimum of lift in order to?p456

maximize flow

when fill site pumper has been positioned at source layout and make ready ____ and ____ necessary for the operation?456

hose and appliances

commonly water tenders have at least ___ or ___ direct tank fill connections?p456

2- 2 1/2" or 1- LDH

position a traffic cone/marker so that it is adjacent to ___ ___ denoting the best stopping point for water tender?p456

driver's door

*using hose clamps on LDH is ___; flow through LDH should be controlled at the ____ or with ____ ____?p457

unsafe; pumper or with valve appliances

*do not fill water tenders with ____ fill device or an ___ due to the reaction of hoseline and possibility of firefighters sustaining serious injuries due to falls from the top of the tender.p48

portable; open hose butt

at fill site assign one firefighter to ___ and ___ each fill line that is laid out.p458

maneuver and connect

firefighters operating fill lines are referred to as?p458

"make and break"

personnel should remain at the gate valves or manifold until the tender is?p458

full

the hand signals/flashlight signals at fill site should be given by ____ in order to maintain continuity and clarity of instruction.p459

one individual

monitor ground conditions as the shuttle operation progresses because of?p459

water spill

drivers of responding tenders should fill their tanks before returning to _____; so that apparatus is in "____" status.p459

quarters; "ready"

provides a continuous supply of water to the apparatus attacking the fire?p459

dump site

primary methods for operating a dump site:p459

direct pumping nurse tenderportable water tank

water tenders pump the water from their tanks directly into the pump intake of an attack apparatus?p459

direct pumping method

two pumpers connect to a siamese intake of attack pumper, 1st pumper supplies at slightly higher pressure and once its out of water the 2nd will begin the supply without delay?p460

alternating supply operation

dump site method generally performed only when a minimal volume of water is required?p460

direct pumping

dump site method of positioning a large water tender immediately adjacent to the attack pumper, serving the same role as a portable tank?p460

nurse tankers(tenders)

tractor-trailer tenders are typically used as?p460

nurse tankers(tenders)

portable water tanks located near the incident scene to eliminate the need for backing or turning around is an efficient way to manage?p460

dump site water supply

very large water tanker(generally 4,000 gallons or larger) that is stationed at the fire scene and serves as a portable reservoir rather than as a shuttle tanker?p460

nurse tanker

method generally considered to be the simplest and quickest method to ensure a constant water supply for fire attack operations?p461

portable tank method

generally pumping through a discharge is ____ ____ than using a dump valve?p461

less efficient

fire fighters should not attempt to manually hold the ___ ___ of a hoseline?p461

open butt

end of a charged hoseline that is flowing water without a nozzle or valve to control the flow?p461

open butt

the tank ____ must have opening of sufficient size to allow free movement of water at the bottom and air at the top during rapid filling or dumping.461

baffles

intermediate partial bulkhead that reduces the surge effect in a partially loaded liquid tank?p461

baffles

nfpa 1901 requires all tenders to dump at a minimum average flow of ____ for the first ____ percent of its tank capacity.p362

1,000gpm; 90%

collapsible storage tank used during a relay or shuttle operation to hold water from water tanks or hydrants?p462

portable tank(catch basin, fold-a-tank, port-tank or portable basin)

operation that is generally adequate for firefighting operations that require relatively low flow rates(less than 300gpm)?p462

portable tank

portable tank variation consisting of a large bladder with a floating collar around the opening; must be set up on level surface to hold max capacity?p462

self-supporting or frameless water tank

regardless of type portable tanks should be set up on level surface and have a capacity of at least?p462

500gpm

when drafting from portable tanks dump site pumper should use _____ strainer for continuous drafting until about 2 inches.p462

low-level

incident that require a flow rate in excess of 300gpm are best served by a?p463

multiple tank operation

most multi-tank operations use?p463

2-5 tanks

the goal of multi-tank operation is to keep the tank used by attack pumper?p463

full at all times

ways to transfer water between portable tanks:p463

connect drain openingsuse jet siphons(more efficient)

must monitor conditions around the dump site as operations progress?p464

dump site officer

if conditions at dump site deteriorate the new dump site must be put into use before original one is ?p464

terminated

all attack apparatus and the dump site pumper should be refilled prior to?p464

concluding operations

overall tender performance is based on a number of factors:p464

loading and unloading time, rive-train capabilities, and tank size

two basic methods for calculating a flow rate for specific tender:p465

timer(dump valve is opened-return to dump site)ISO formulas

formula water shuttle ratep465

FLOW=0.9xTS/trip timeFLOW= water shuttle flow rate in gpm0.9=constant(90% tank)TS= tank size

private national insurance organization that evaluates and rates fire defense for all communities through the fire-suppression rating schedule?p465

insurance services office(ISO)

formula travel timep466

travel time=0.65+(1.7)(distance) 5 mile water shuttletravel time=0.65+(1.7)(5)travel time=9.15 minutes

formula handling timep466

handling time=fill site time+dump site time4,000 gal tender/rate of 2,000gpm fill time=(2min+[4000/2000])=4dump time=(2min+[4000/2000])=4handling time=4+4=8 min

flow rate of the fill site pumper must be established in order to use what formula?p466

handling time

some FD have found that they actually routinely dump less than ____ of each load?p467

90.00%

one of the most accurate ways to to determine the amount of water left in tank after dumping id to ____ the truck full and after dumping.p467

weigh

formula tender flow ratep467

Flow=0.9xTS/Travel time+handling timeFlow=tender flow rate gpm0.9=constant(90% tank)TS=tank size

matching local capabilities with water supply requirements should be completed prior to an?p468

incident

effective water shuttle operations are the result of safe and efficient practices and not excessive?p468

driving speeds

use of foam agents in all areas of the fire service has _____ dramatically in recent years.p479

increased

foam used by a physical agitation of a mixture of foam concentrate, water, and air?p480

mechanical foam

mixing water with appropriate amount of foam concentrate in order to form a foam solution?p480

proportioning

introduction of air into a foam solution to create bubbles that result in finished foam?p480

aeration

process used to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner; concentrate drawn into the water by venturi effect?p480

eduction

raw chemical compound solution that is mixed with water and air to produce finished foam?p480

foam concentrate

device that injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water stream to make foam solution?p480

foam proportioner

the result of mixing the appropriate amount of foam concentrate with water?p480

foam solution

an extinguishing agent formed by mixing a foam concentrate with water and aerating the solution for expansion?p480

foam(finished foam)

most common foams in use; must proportioned and aerated before use?p480

mechanical foam

to produce fire fighting foam, foam concentrate, water, and air must be ?p480

educated or injected in the correct ratios

failure to match the proper ___ ___ to the type of fuel may result in an unsuccessful suppression attempt that could endanger firefighters.p480

foam concentrate

class B fuels are decided into two:p480

hydrocarbons and polar solvents

crude oil, fuel oil, gasoline, benzene, and kerosene are petroleum based and have a specific gravity less than one and will float on water?p480

hydrocarbon fuels

effective in extinguishing these fires and suppressing vapors because because it floats on the surface of hydrocarbon fuels?p480

class B

alcohol, acetone, ketones, and esters, are known as miscible(mix with water); special alcohol-resistant(polymeric) formulations of firefighting foam must be used when these flammable liquids are encountered?p480

polar solvants

many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ___ solvent additives.p480

15.00%

class b foam are designed solely for hydrocarbon and not effective on polar solvents?p481

polar solvents

some foams are intended for use on polar solvents may be used on?p481

hydrocarbons fuel

foam extinguishes and/or suppresses vapors by:p481

separating-barrier between fuel and firecooling- lower temp of fuel and adjacent surfacessuppressing or smothering- prevents release of flammable vapors reducing ignition/reignition

firefighting foam creates a ____ on the burning or exposed fuel, excluding oxygen and making ignition difficult and stops the burning process.p481

film/blanket

a petroleum based organic compound that contains only hydrogen and carbon?p481

hydrocarbon fuel

liquid having a molecule where the negative and positive charger are permanently separated, resulting in their ability to ionize in solution and create electrical conductivity(water, alcohol, and sulfuric acid)?p481

polar solvants

materials that are capable of being mixed in all proportions?p481

miscible

foam concentrates are generally intended to be mixed with?p482

fresh or slat water

most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with ___ to ___ percent water.p482

94 to 99.9

class a foams are formulated to be proportioned within certain limits, percentage range:p482

0.1 to 1 percent

foam is proportioned by:p482

inductioninjectionbatch mixing premixing

equipment types for proportioning foam:p483

apparatus, portable use, or fixed fire protection system

uses the pressure of water stream to induct(draft) foam concentrate?p483

induction method

uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio; commonly apparatus mounted or fixed fire protection system?p483

injection

simple but potentially inaccurate method of mixing foam concentrate and water, foam concentrate is poured directly into a tank of water?p483

batch mixing

method commonly used with class A foams; may not be effective during large incidents as foam lines must be shut down when the tank is emptied?p483

batch mixing

portable proportioning device that injects a liquid, such as foam concentrate into the water; venturi device that uses water pressure to draw foam concentrate?p483

eductor

solid or flexible tube used to transfer foam concentrate from a storage container to the inline eductor or proportioner?p483

pickup tube

mixing remeasured portions of water and foam concentrate in a container; portable extinguishers, wheeled extinguishers, skid mounted twin ager units, vehicle mounted tank systems?p484

pre-mixing

when batch mixing class b foam concentrate tank water must be _____ to ensure proper mixing before discharge.p484

circulated

must be thoroughly flushed after use with foams:p484

fire pump, associated piping, tank, hose, and appliances

batch mixing of class a foam is accomplished using portable tanks with?p484

tender relays

premixed solutions may be discharged from a ________ tank using compressed air or inert gas(nitrogen) or by a pump from a _______ storage tank.p484

pressurized; non pressurized

limited to one time use applications, once used they must be completely emptied, flushed, and refilled before used again?p484

premixing system

methods of foam storage for fire service application:p484

pails barrels totesapparatus tanks

5-gallon plastic container not affected by the corrosive nature of foam, remain airtight?p485

pails

55-gallon plastic or plastic-lined container container, more common in industrial applications?p485

barrels

275-gallon container, bulk storage required, trailer mounted, housed and transported by a "host" department in response area for large-scale incidents?p485

totes

piped directly to the delivery system; 20 to 200 gallons on fire pumpers and 8,000 gallons or more on tenders?p485

apparatus tanks

often located above the fire pump area or integral cell within the apparatus water tank, or additional pump and a lower connection point for refilling the tank?p486

smaller foam concentrate tanks

may be directly adjacent to the water tank, or only one tank for foam and no water tank?p486

larger foam concentrate tanks

mixing different types or brands of foam concentrate should be avoided as the result may prove?p486

ineffective and have reduced suppression capabilities

some foam concentrate are approved for both but the majority are divide for use on either?p486

class a(ordinary) or class b(flammable)

available since the 1940s class a foam technology has only recently been widely accepted and used for?p486

structure, wildland, coal, tire storage, other deep seated fuels

*use class a foams only on ___ fuels.p487

class a

includes hydrocarbon surfactants that reduce the surface tension of water in the foam solution?p487

class a foam

chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid; allows water to spread more rapidly over the surface of class a fuels and penetrate organic fuels?p487

surfactant

*as with any method of fire attack, the correct ___ must be applied to safely and efficiently extinguish the fire.p487

flow in gpm

may be used with fog nozzles, aerating foam nozzles, medium and high expansion devices, compressed air foam systems using most nozzles including solid?p487

class a foam

shelf life of class a foam?p487

as long as 20 years

drain time increases in proportion with increases in the ____ of the solution.p487

percentage

most foam nozzles will produce more stable foam at ____ percent concentration than ____ percent?p487

1%; 0.5%

proportioning class a foam for fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzles?p488

0.2-0.5%

proportioning class a foam for exposure protection with standard fog nozzles?p488

0.5-1.0%

proportioning class a foam for any application with air aspirating foam nozzles?p488

0.3-0.7%

proportioning class a foam for any application with compressed air foam systems(CAFS)?p488

0.2-0.5%

minimum amount of foam solution that must be applied to an unignited fire, spill, or spill fire to either control vapor emission or extinguish the fire; measured per minute per square foot of area to be covered?p488

application rate

the rate at which foam bubbles breakdown?p488

stability of foam

class b foam concentrate consist of ?p489

synthetic or protein base

made from a mixture of fluorosurfactants; 20-25 years shelf life?p489

synthetic foam

derived from animal protein; 10 years shelf life?p489

protein based foam

should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life?p489

class be foam

generally ____ products are considered safer for the environment?p489

protein based

specifications developed by the US department of defense(DoD) for purchase of materials and equipment ?p489

military specifications(Mil-Specs)

form provided by the manufacturer and blender of chemicals that contains information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response procedures, and waste disposal procedures of a specified material?p489

safety data sheet(SDS)

class be foams are mixed in proportions of?p490

1 to 6 percent

concentration of hydrocarbon fuel?p490

1 to 3 percent

concentration for polar solvants ?p490

3 to 6 percent

result of adding air to a foam solution consisting of water and foam concentrate; increase in volume of solution once aerated?p490

foam expansion

method used to aerate foam solution will create varying degrees of expansion based on:p490

type of foamaccurate proportioning quality of foammethod of aeration

foam expansion is generally describe as being low, medium, or high; nfpa 11 states:p490

low- 20:1 ratiomedium- 20:1 up to 200:1high- 200:1 to 1000:1

rate of application depends on:p490

type of concentrateif fuel is on firetype of fuelfuel is contained or not

the minimum foam solution application rates for ignited fuels are specified in?p490

nfpa 11

to calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle?p491

divide the flow rate by the area of the fireflow rate gpm/fire area ftŒ_= gpm/ftŒ_

unignited spills do not require the same application rate due to the absence of:p491

radiant heat, open flame, and thermal drafts

once foam application begins continue without interruption from uphill/upwind until?p491

extinguishment

derived from animal protein sources such as hooves, horns or feather meal?p492

protein foams

foam concentrate that consists of a protein hydrolysate plus additives to prevent from freezing, corrosion equipment and containers, bacterial decomposition during storage and control viscosity?p492

protein foam concentrate

to cause or go a chemical process of decomposition involving the splitting of a bond and the addition of the element of water?p492

hydrolyze

ability of foam blanket to resist direct flame impingement such as would be evident in a partially extinguished petroleum fire?p492

burnback resistance

foam concentrate that combines the qualities of fluoroprotein foam with those of aqueous film forming foam?p492

film forming fluoroprotein foam(FFFP)

synthetic foam concentrate that when combined with water can form a complete vapor barrier over fuel spills and fires and is a highly effective extinguishing and blanketing agent on hydrocarbon fuels?p492

aqueous film forming foam(AFFF, light water)

generally has good heat stability and burnback resistance; not as fluid and degrades more quickly in storage than synthetic?p492

regular protein foam

combination of protein-based foam and synthetic, surfactants are added, flow more readily than ordinary foam, longer lasting vapor suppression?p492

fluoroprotein foam

may be made alcohol resistant(approximately 15 minutes) with the addition of ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents,

fluoroprotein foams

most commonly used synthetic foam concentrate; fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with solvents to create a high boiling point?p492

aqueous film forming foam(AFFF, A triple F)

when AFFF or FFFP foam is applied to a fire involving a hydrocarbon fuel:p493

-air/vapor excluding film is released ahead of the foam blanket-fast moving blanket of foam spreads across the surface of the fuel surrounding objects/providing insulation-as aerated foam blanket drains water, more lim is released giving the foam an ability to recover or "heal" areas disturbed

*when applying foam be aware of the potential for _____ in previously covered areas where contact with hot objects may be present, more apparent with AFFF foam.p493

burnback

aqueous film forming foam that is designed for use with polar solvent fuels?p493

alcohol-resistant aqueous film forming foam concentrate(AR-AFFF)

commonly used on polar solvents (3-6%), may be used on hydrocarbon (1-6%)? p493

AFFF

applied gently to a fuel product in order allow membrane to form, aspirating nozzles generally best?p493

AR-AFFF

contains detergent base and a low water content?p494

high expansion foam

common applications for high expansion foam:p494

concealed space firefixed extinguishing systems for specific industrial hazardsclass a fire applications

foam proportioning devices operate by one of two basic principles:p494

venturi effect or pressurized proportioning

impart pressure on the foam solution with the use of the main pump, introduces air into the foam solution when it reaches the nozzle or is discharged from the nozzle?p494

low energy foam systems

a simple and common method of foam proportioning involves the use of a ?p494

portable foam proportioner

three common types of portable foam proportioner:p494

in-line foam eductorfoam nozzle eductorself educating master stream nozzles

type of foam delivery device that is located in line near the nozzle; foam is drawn into the water line using venturi method?p494

in-line foam eductor

flow in gpm through eductor must not exceed its; quality of foam may decrease or flow may stop if exceeded?p495

rated capacity

pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed _____ percent of the eductor inlet pressure.p495

70.00%

pressure loss or gain created by changes in elevation between the nozzle and pump?p495

back pressure

foam solution will only blend accurately if the inlet pressure at the eductor is correct?p495

150-200 psi

inlet pressure too low will not create venturi effect resulting in ?p495

mixture too lean

inlet pressure too high?p4

mixture too rich

educators must be properly maintained by immersing pick up tube in clean water and letting it induct water for at least?p495

1 minute

must be set to draw the correct percentage needed to develop correct quality foam?p495

metering valves

the foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than ____ above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate?p495

6 ft

foam concentrate are more viscous in ____ and less viscous when ____?p495

cold; heated

the nozzle and the eductor must have the same ___ ___ in order to operate successfully.p495

gpm rating

operates under the same principle as in-line eductor, but it is built in rather than attached to hoseline?p496

self-eructing nozzle

*use of foam nozzle eductors may compromise firefighter ____, because firefighters cannot quickly move and must abandon the supply of concentrate should they need to withdraw rapidly.p496

safety

large-capacity nozzle with built-in foam eductor, uses a modified venturi design, pickup tube is located in the center bore of the nozzle?p496

self-educting master stream foam nozzle

produces an over-proportioned that is diluted by the deflector plates in the nozzle, flows in excess of 350gpm(up to 14,000gpm), pressure drop is much lower(10 percent or less) than standard foam nozzle eductor?p496

self-educting master stream foam nozzle

type of foam eductor that is used to supply self-educting master stream nozzles?p497

jet ratio controller(JRC)

jet ratio controller allows the foam concentrate to be located as far as _____ away from a self-educting master stream nozzle, and elevation change of up to____? p497

3,000 ft; 50 ft

supplied by a hoseline from the main fire pump; flow of water of this device represents about 2.5% of total flow?p497

jet ratio controller

JRC proportion the concentrate at a ____ percent solution, then it is further proportioned by nozzle resulting in discharge solution of ____ percent.p497

66.5%; 3%

operate under the same principles as portable in-line eductor, but the system is fixed-position mounting on apparatus?p497

installed in-line eductor system

in some installations a ___ ___ is installed to reduce the friction loss across the eductor.p497

bypass proportioner

in ___ ___, a valve directs the water through a second chamber of the eductor that contains no orifice or restrictions; used when no foam is desired?p497

bypass mode

when a ___ ___ is required, a valve is directed to divert water through the eductor/orifice chamber?p497

foam line

most commonly used to proportion ____ foam, not as effective for proportioning the very low concentrations used in ____ foam operations?p497

class b; class a

apparatus-mounted foam proportioner in which a small quantity of water is diverted from the pump through an in-line proportioner; there it picks up foam and carries it to the intake side of the pump?p498

around-the-pump proportioner

in the open position valve for the around-the-pump proportioner eductor allows approximately ______ to flow through the piping?p498

10 to 40gpm

older model around-the-pump proportioner only work with onboard tank water, because inlet water pressure of greater than ____ will not allow foam concentrate to enter the pump intake.p498-499

10 psi

one of the most most common types of installed proportioners used in modern fire apparatus?p498

around-the-pump proportioner

is unable to pump both foam and plain water from the pump at the same time?p499

around-the-pump proportioner

foam concentrate proportioner that operates in tandem with a fire water pump to ensure a proper foam concentrate-to-water mixture?p499

bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

used on large mobile apparatus installations (ARFF vehicles), is one of the most accurate methods proportioning?p499

bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

features ability to monitor the demand for foam concentrate and adjust amount supplied, also a foam concentrate line supplied by a separate foam concentrate pump connected to each discharge?p499

bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

pressure of the concentrate and water are monitored by a _____ that ensure proper balance.p499

hydraulic pressure control valve

because the water and foam concentrate are supplied at the same pressure and the sizes of the discharges are _____, the foam is proportioned correctly.p499

proportional

apparatus-mounted foam system that injects the correct amount of foam into the pump piping, thereby supplying all discharges with foam?p500

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

proportioner generally operates off power supplied but the apparatus electrical system, but larger units may use a combination of electric and hydraulic power?p500

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

proportion foam 0.1 to 3 percent; used with class a and many class b; not useable with alcohol resistant foam due to the viscous nature of the product?p500

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

able to adjust to changes in water flow as nozzles are opened or shut, and nozzles can operate above or below pump without adversely affecting foam proportioning?p500

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

foam proportioning system that is used both fixed and mobile applications; a variable speed mechanism drives the foam pump and automatically monitors the flow to produce effective solution?p500

variable-flow demand-typed balance pressure proportioners(pumped/demand system)

flow of concentrate matches the pressure demand; requires no flushing after use; water and/or foam solution may be discharged simultaneously from any number of outlets, up to rated capacity?p500

variable-flow demand-typed balance pressure proportioners

the dump in method is the simplest of proportioning foam, approximate amount of concentrate is poured into tank using top fill opening?p501

batch mixing

with batch mixing the size of water tank and desired proportioning percentage indicate the ____ that must be poured into tank?p501

quantity of concentratedesired 3%97 gal water+3 gal concentrate= 100 gal foam solution

generally batch mixing is only used with ____ and ___?p501

class a and regular AFFF(not alcohol resistant)

class a foam do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than?p501

24 hours

when batch mixing slowly circulate the water tank to avoid ____ and continue to do so for short period of time to ensure mixing is complete?p501

frothing

foam removes all lubricants from pump seals, thoroughly flush out tank and check seals for proper_____?p501

lubrication

conduct flushing operations in accordance with the ____ supplied by the foam manufacturer?p502

SDS

because of the shortcomings ____ ____ is used only if no other proportioning method is available?p502

batch mixing

introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into hoseline; discharged greater distances than ordinary foam/water stream?p502

high energy foam generating systems/CAFS

in the mid-1980s, the ______ conducted research that resulted in development of the type of high energy class a foam system?p502

US bureau of land management

features a rotary air compressor and a standard centrifugal fire pump?502

compressed air foam system(CAFS)

apparatus equipped with CAFS also flow plain water, designed to flow foam only through ____ discharges?p503

preselected

CAFS apparatus use a standard centrifugal pump with an automatic discharge side proportioning system; due to low eduction rates, a variable flow rate sensing proportioner is required to supply the fire stream at a rate of?p503

0.1 to 1.0 percent

2 cubic ft per min of airflow per gallon per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to 100gpm of foam solution?

10:1 expansion ratio

most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use an airflow rate of?p503

0.5 to 1.0ftŒ_

*to protect the attack team when using class a foam, ____ floe rates should be the same as those for plain water.p503

nozzle

any nozzle that can be safely handled by one to three firefighters and flow less the 350gpm?p503

handline nozzle

most common handline nozzles used for foam applications are:p503

smooth borefogair-aspirating foam

limited to application of class a foam from a CAFS, exception to the rule-discharge orifice be no greater than half the diameter of the hose?p504

smooth bore

may operate fixed flow, selective flow, or automatic when applying low expansion short duration foam blanket?504

fog

expansion ratios for most fog nozzles are in the ?p504

2:1 to 4:1 range

fog nozzle are most efficient during the application of ____, however may also be used with_____ ?p504

regular AFFF and class a; AR-AFFF(hydrocarbon fires)

fog nozzles are not an acceptable choice for delivery of ____ foams as insufficient aspiration is created; likewise not to be employed in incidents involving ____?p504

fluoroprotein foam; polar solvents

only nozzles that should be used with protein and fluoroprotein concentrates; can be used with class a in wildland?p504

air-aspirating foam nozzle

perform in similar manner to the handling nozzles; used in large-scale flammable and combustible liquid fires beyond the capabilities of hand lines?p504

master stream foam nozzles

high-expansion foam generator that uses a fan to inject the air into the foam solution as it passes through the unit?p505

mechanical blower

two basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators?p505

water aspirating an mechanical blower

produce foam containing high air content:p505

medium-expansion= 20:1 to 200:1high-expansion= 200:1 to 1000:1

similar to other foam producing nozzles, except considerably larger and longer; generate a lower air volume foam product than mechanical blowers?p505

water aspirating device for medium- and high-expansion

air is forced through the foam solution by fan instead of being pulled by water; foam contains very high air content for total flooding; limited to high-expansion applications?p505

mechanical blowers

techniques for applying foam to a fire or spill:p506

direct-applicationroll-onbank-down rain-down

fire attack class a foam; applying finished foam directly onto the burning material?p506

direct-application method

class b foam application; directing a foam fire stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pill and foam rolls across the surface of the fuel?p506

roll-on method

class b foam; foam is directed onto the vertical surface and allowed to run down and spread across the pooled fuel product?p506

bank-down method

class b foam; direct stream into the air above the fire allowing the foam to gently rain down on the surface of the fuel?p506

rain-down method

capable of being broken down into innocuous products by the actions of living things(microorganisms)?p508

biodegradable

chemical change in which a substance breaks down into two or more simpler substances(oxidation)?p508

decomposition

studies by the US forest service shows that release of foam into bodies of water can be?p508

lethal to fish

provide additional information regarding foam environmental impact?p508

safety data sheets(SDS) and nfpa 1150

extinguishing agents as well as pre-treatment of structures threatened by fire spread; retain fire retarding properties longer than class a foam?p508

durable or gelling agents (fire blocking gels, or aqueous fire fighting gels)

superabsorbent liquid polymers capable of absorbing hundreds of times their own weight in water?p509

gelling agents

water absorbent polymers, small bubbles filled with water, nontoxic and biodegradable, however slippery and more expensive than class a foam?p509

durable/gelling agents

applied for extinguishment, fire line construction, or structure protection through hand lines, master streams, or air drop?p509

durable/gelling agents

gelling agent standard application ratio?p509

extinguishing: 1:100(1%)fire line construction: 1.5-2%structure protection: 2-3%

durable agents will adhere to vertical structural surfaces for up to?p509

24 hrs

___ is tested upon completion and periodically for its entire service life?p515

new fire apparatus

two basic categories of testing fire apparatus?p515

preservice and performance

the purchaser should require these tests when writing specifications for the apparatus bid?p515

manufacturer'scertificationacceptance

commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications?p516

nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatusnfpa 1906 standard for wildland fire apparatusnfpa 414 standard for aircraft rescue and firefighting vehicles

fire department personnel are not normally involved in; performed by manufacturer or underwriter labs?p516

manufacturer or certification tests

fire department personnel, especially drivers may be involved in?p516

acceptance testing

if requirements of nfpa 1901 are included in apparatus bid specifications, manufacturer must perform two specific test in addition to pump certification tests?p516

road test and hydrostatic test

per nfpa 1901, ____ is to be conducted with vehicle loaded to the same weight as it will be when placed in service?p516

road test

preservice apparatus maneuverability tests designed to determine the road worthiness of a new vehicle?p516

road tests

apparatus road test minimum standards:p516

-0-35 mph within 25 seconds -achieve max speed of 50 mph(waived-off road vehicles)-full stop from 20 mph in 35 ft-parking brake must conform to manufacturer specifications

written list of expected capabilities for a new apparatus?p516

performance requirements

special requirements should be written into the bid specifications as ____, and not _____ or _____ specifications.p561

performance requirements; engineering or equipment

testing method that uses water under pressure to check the integrity of pressure vessels?p517

hydrostatic test

performed to ensure that the pump and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands?p517

hydrostatic test

not subjected to hydrostatic testing?p517

tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves

during testing a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of _____ for a minimum of ____?p517

500 psi; 10 minutes

performed by an independent testing organization(UL), and are designed to ensure the fire pump will operate as designed?p517

pump certification tests

test performed at manufacturer plant before acceptance of vehicle, and results are stamped on a plate affixed to pump panel?p517

pump certification tests

nfpa 1901 requires following certification test on apparatus with fire pump of 750gpm up to 3,000gpm:p517

engine speed checkpumping testpumping engine overload testpressure control system testpriming system testvacuum testwater tank-to-pump testengine speed interlock testgauge and flowmeter testmanufacturer's predelivery test*tank-to-pump flow test(onboard water tank)

procedure used to determine the rate of water flow available for fire fighting at various points within the distribution system?p517

fire flow testing

preservice tests on fire apparatus or equipment, performed at the factory or after delivery, to assure the purchaser that the apparatus or equipment meets bid specifications?p517

acceptance testing

should feature pump test in addition to the pump certification test?p517

acceptance test

if apparatus fails to perform to the requirements outlined in the bid specifications?p517-518

rejected by purchasermanufacturer must correct deficiency or new apparatusvoid and choose another vendor

higher than 2,000ft above sea level, ____ should be performed as part of acceptance testing?p518

pumping engine overload test

requirements for apparatus service testing are contained in?p518

nfpa 1911 standard for inspection, maintenance, testing and retirement of in-service automotive fire apparatus

based on nfpa 1911 a pumper must be performance tested at least ____, or whenever it has undergone ______?p518

once a year; major pump or powertrain repair

minimum performance testing required in nfpa 1911:p518

engine speed checkpump shift indicatorpump engine control interlockpriming system testvacuum testpumping test for fire pumpsoverload testspressure control test for fire pumpsintake relief valve system testgauge test flowmeter testtank-to-pump flow rate

nfpa 1911 allows performance testing to be conducted using ___ or ___ water supply, but ___ is preferred because it will provide easier evaluation of pump performance?p518

hydrant or static; static

distance of the centerline of the pumper intake above the surface of water is based on?p518

pump capacity

pumps rated at 1,500gpm or less ___ is maximum distance, while 2,000gpm pumps use a ____ maximum lift?p518

10ft; 6ft

air temperature when performance test is conducted should be between?p518

0ä‹Š(18ä‹€ ) and 110ä‹Š(43ä‹€ )

water temperature when performance test is conducted should be between?p518

35ä‹Š(2ä‹€ ) and 90ä‹Š(32ä‹€ )

barometric pressure should be at least ___ inches of mercury when corrected at sea level?p518-519

1 inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately?p519

1 foot

nfpa 1911 lists the minimum intake hose arrangements necessary to perform tests on pumps of various capacities accurate at altitudes of up to?p519

2,000 ft above sea level

intake hose diameter or the number of hoses may need to be increased when performance testing at higher altitude than?p519

2,000 ft above sea level

for pump test a sufficient number of discharge hoses must be stretched and operated, minimum diameter for this purpose?p519

2 1/2"

to monitor serviceability of the hose during test where hose and coupling meet scribe a ?p519

mark

if scribe mark has moved more than 3/8" from coupling?p519

stop the test and replace hose

performance tests are conducted at net pump discharge pressure of?p519

150 psi, 165 psi, 200 psi, and 250 psi

provides information on friction loss allowances for various sizes of intake hose that may be used during pump testing?p521

nfpa1911

nfpa 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within ___ day of testing?p521

indicates flow in gallons per minute within +/- 5%?p522

flowmeter

hole through which a person may go to gain access to an underground or enclosed structure?p523

manhole

instrument that indicates the rotational speed of a shaft in revolutions per minute; used to indicate engine speed?p523

tachometer

should be conducted under no-load conditions after all fluid levels are within manufacturer recommendations?p523

engine speed check

if engine is not running at the same governed speed(+/- 50 rpm) at which it was rated then apparatus should be ?p523

evaluated by a qualified mechanic

evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks?p523

vacuum test

if pump fails to reach ___ inches of mercury, remove apparatus from service until repair is made?p523

according to nfpa 1911 fire pumps of 1,250gpm must achieve prime in _____; 1,500gpm must be primed within ____?p524

30 seconds or less; 45 seconds

evaluates the overall operation of the engine and fire pump?p524

pumping test

must be tested to ensure the operate as designed, maintaining a safe level of pressure on the pump when valves are closed at a range of discharge pressures?p525

pressure control devices

performed in 3 part sequence, and may be completed while the pump is still set up from the pumping test for efficiency?p525

pressure control test

must be tested to ensure that the driver has accurate information on which to base decision on pump operations?p525

discharge pressure gauges/flowmeter

flow rate is measured using a ___ ___ reading at the discharge of the solid stream nozzle?p525

pitot gauge

difference in readings between flowmeter and pitot gauge should be no more than?p525

10.00%

must be conducted on any apparatus with an onboard water tank; verifies that piping between the onboard and pump is sufficient to supply minimum amount of water specified by nfpa 1911?p525

tank-to-pump flow test

tank capacity flow rate standards:p525-526

500 gal or less = 250gpmgreater than 500 gal = 500gpm

internal intake pressure relief valves as well as intake relief valves on any appliances used on the apparatus should be?p526

tested

any apparatus that achieves results less than ____ percent of its original rated capabilities, may be placed out of service or restored/tested again.p526

90.00%

accuracy of an apparatus foam system must be tested prior to ____ per nfpa 1911, does not require yearly testing?p527

delivery

methods for testing a foam proportioning system for calibration:p527

foam concentrate displacement methodfoam concentrate pump discharge volume methodfoam solution refractivity testingfoam solution conductivity

method checks the volume of foam concentrate that is drawn through the system to determine the accuracy of the proportioning equipment?p527

foam concentrate displacement method

at a predetermined flow water is drawn from a calibrated tank; water has a different viscosity than foam so a correction factor is used?p527

foam concentrate displacement method

used by certain direct injection type proportioning systems; discharge fro foam concentrate pump is collected in a calibrated tank for specified period of time ?p528

foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

ensures the quality of foam after it has been created using a refractometer to measure; accurate for protein and fluoroprotein?p528

foam solution refractivity testing

used to ensure the quality of synthetic based foam; difference in the level of conductivity can be used to measure the amount of foam concentrate in a given solution?p529

foam solution conductivity testing

due to the very light color of synthetic based foam, ___ testing is not accurate?p529

refractivity

method may be used when actual percentage of foam concentrate in a solution may be indicated on certain meters?p529

direct reading conductivity testing

method is used during testing with a meter that displays units of micro-siemens per centimeter(ms/cm)?p529

conductivity comparison testing

perfumed using a handheld temperature compensated conductivity meter ?p530

conductivity calibration curve testing

designing or selecting apparatus consider factor:p541

maneuverabilitymost common tasks requiredamount of equipment it will carrybudget constraintsinsurance industry recommendationsplanning department recommendationsnumber of responders it will carry

because of their size and versatility, _____ ____ often meet many of the criteria that fire departments consider when choosing or designing apparatus.p541

aerial devices

specialty category of fire fighting vehicle equipped with a hydraulically operated ladder, elevating platform, or other similar device for the purpose of placing personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions?p541

aerial apparatus

nfpa 1901 groups aerial devices into three basic categories; based on how they are used and their tactical advantages:p542

aerial ladderselevating platformswater towers

general term used to describe the hydraulically operated ladder or elevating platform attached to a specially designed fire apparatus?p543

aerial device

power operated ladder, usually employing hydraulics, that is mounted on a special truck chassis?p543

aerial ladder

trailer equipped with steerable rear wheels?p543

tillered trailer

assembly of bracing bars or rods in triangular shapes that form a rigid framework for the aerial device?p543

aerial ladder truss

engineering design has proven that trusses lend more strength if their assembled members form ____?p543

triangles

properly designed truss permits tension and compression stresses to be distributer over the length of the ladder for ____ strength with ____ weight.p543d

maximum; minimum

extendable section of ground extension or aerial ladder?p544

fly section

the bottom section of the aerial ladder is referred to a as?p544

base/bed section

two most common materials for construction of aerial ladders:p544

heat-treated aluminum alloy and steel

aerial ladders' structural members may be:p544

fastened by rivetswelded(steel)heliarced(aluminum alloy)

three main portions of an aerial ladder:p544

base rails(beams)top rails(handrails)rungs

the lower cords of the aerial ladder to which the rungs, trusses, and other portions of the ladder are attached?p544

base rails(beams)

the top chords to which the opposite ends of the trussing are attached?p544

top rails(handrails)

the portions that are attached between the two base rails and are used as steps for personnel on the aerial ladder?p544

rungs

aerial ladders designed and built with "_____" as a standard feature provide greater strength than those with older designs?p544

"k-bracing"

____ establishes requirements for the dimensions of sections and structural members of the aerial ladder?p545

nfpa 1901

device that transfers the center of gravity of an apparatus and prevents it from tipping as it is extended away from the centerline of the chassis?p546

stabilizer

in the early days aerial apparatus, aerial devices and stabilizers were ____ operated; spring-operated, gear driven, or other means to raise and lower.p546

manually

all new aerial devices and virtually all stabilizers are ____ activated?p546

hydraulically

*on some apparatus the aerial device could be raised before the ______ are set; the _____ valve should be preset to stabilizer system; selector valve must not be inadvertently changed while the aerial device is ____?p546

stabilizers; selector; raised

hydraulic system has four main components:p546

actuatorshydraulic fluidhydraulic pumphydraulic reservoir

transforms power into mechanical force?p546

actuator

is the medium by which the system transmits force?p546-547

hydraulic fluid

creates force on the fluid; powered by power-take-off(PTO) arrangement off the vehicle's main engine?p547

hydraulic pump

hydraulic systems can be either:p547

load sensing piston pumprotary vane pumprotary gear positive-displacement pump

hydraulic fluids may be under pressures of?p547

3,500 psi

Leaks in hydraulic systems occur at high pressure and can ____ or ___ skin.p548

burn or cut

supplies the hydraulic fluid that is moved in and out of the system?p548

hydraulic reservoir

the ____ allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid before it is reintroduced into the hydraulic system?p548

reservoir

tubes and hoses that supply the hydraulic fluid throughout the system are:p548

steel tubing and aircraft-type, steel braided hose

hoses must be rated to withstand pressures of at least ___ ___ greater then normal operating pressure.p548

4 times

in order to control the flow of hydraulic fluid through the system a number of different ____ are used?p548

valves

start, stop, regulate and direct the flow of fluid to control pressure in the system?p548

valves

valves may be controlled?p548-549

manuallyelectricallyhydraulicallymechanicallycombination of these methods

prevent fluid from flowing backward through a component and act as safety feature in the event a leak develops in the system?p549

check valves

limit the pressure built up in the system, thus preventing damage due to over pressurization?p549

relief valves

prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its established position?p549

counterbalance valves

three-way valve on a fire department aerial apparatus that directs oil to either stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves?p549

selector valve(diverter valve)

*some older aerial apparatus still in use today do not have the ____ to prevent the unintended use of the aerial before setting the stabilizers?p549

interlocks

actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves abd proportional directional control valves are used to direct and control the power in the operating systems are?p549

four- or five-way valves

convert energy in the system into linear mechanical force or motion when pressurized hydraulics oil is directed into a chamber created by lifting a piston into a cylindrical barrel?p549

hydraulic cylinders

hydraulic cylinders used for elevation and telescopic control of the aerial device and for operating the stabilizers are?p549

double acting cylinders

are capable of receiving oil under pressure from both sides of the piston so that force is created in either direction?p549

double acting cylinders

convert energy in the system into a rotary motion?p549

hydraulic motors

two rotary motor systems of the apparatus:p549

ring and pinion drive-rotates the aerialoperates a winch drive-extend and retract aerial

nfpa 1901 requires all manufacturers of aerial devices to provide an _____ hydraulic pump for use in the event of failure of the main?550

auxiliary

the ___ pump is typically 12-volt DC, electrically operated pump connected directly to the vehicle's battery; 110-volt AC power or small internal combustion engine?p550

auxiliary

provide all the same motions as the main pump but at reduced speed; should be limited to bedding aerial only; operate only for intervals of 1:1 minute work/rest?p550

auxiliary hydraulic pumps

force the stabilizer arms outward and down to stabilize apparatus?p550

stabilizer cylinders

hydraulic cylinders used to lift the aerial device from its bed to a working position?p550

hoisting cylinder(elevation or lift)

heavy seamless steel outer shells bored to an extremely sooth inside surface?p550

hoisting cylinders

in a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin?p551

trunnion

the larger the piston area the more ___ ___ is produced; normal hydraulic pressure is from ____ to ___ psi.p551

upward force; 850 to 3,000 psi

many new hoisting cylinders are equipped with ___ ___ ___ that lock and hold oil in the cylinder in the event of a leak or a blowout?p552

integral safety valves

used to lower the ladder by manually bleeding the pressure from the cylinder in case of failure?p552

bleed-down valve

dual cylinders fitted on the base section and used to extend the second section of the device, in some designs the simple operate a series of pulleys and cables that in turn extend the fly sections?p552

extension cylinders

its primary function is to provide rotation to the aerial device?p552

turntable

aerial ladders made in North America the fully extended(working) length ranges?p552

50-137 ft

some aerial apparatus made in the US and overseas may reach in excess of?p552

200 ft

the main uses of aerial ladders are?p552

rescueventilationelevated master stream applicationaccess to upper floorsexposure protectionabove ground fire fighting

aerial ladder may be mounted on :p552-553

two- or three-axle single chassis tractor-drawn type

aerial ladder apparatus that consists of a tractor power unit and trailer(tiller) section that contains the aerial ladder, ground ladders, and equipment storage areas?p553

tractor-drawn aerial apparatus(TDA)

equipped with steerable rear wheels on the trailer; more maneuverable than single-straight vehicles; capable of sharp u-turns in dead-end street or courts?p553

tractor-drawn aerial apparatus(TDA)

as an alternative may have some of the benefits of the tiller trucks in terms of maneuverability, and not widely manufactured ?p553

all-wheel steer apparatus

*apparatus with ___ ____ capabilities handle differently than apparatus with traditional front-wheel steering.p553

all-wheel steer

driver/operator of the trailer section of a tractor-tiller aerial ladder apparatus?p553

tiller operator(tillerman)

ifsta devices the nfpa classification of elevating platform apparatus into three distinct types of aerial devices:p555

aerial ladder platformstelescoping aerial platformsarticulating aerial platforms

work platform attached to the end of an articulating or telescoping aerial device?p555

elevating platform

power-operated ladder usually employing hydraulics, with a passenger carrying device attached to the end of the ladder?p555

aerial ladder platform

an elevating platform equipped with piping systems and nozzles for elevated master stream operations; not meant to be climbed and are equipped with a small ladder that is to be used only to escape from the platform in emergency situations?p555

telescoping aerial platform

aerial device that consists of two or more booms that are attached with hinges and operate in a folding manner with a passenger carrying platform attached to the working end?p555

articulating aerial platform

a 4-inch metal plate that runs around the bottom edge of any railing on a balcony or elevated walkway to prevent someone's foot from slipping off?p556

kickplate(footplate)

required so that the platform's position is horizontal to the ground at all times?p556

elevating platform leveling system

required minimum floor area of the platform is?p556

14ftŒ_

each platform must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no area opening under the railing greater than?p556

24 inches

two gates below the top railing provide firefighter/victim access and egress; surest standards cal for ____ opening doors unlike older apparatus with ____ opening doors.p556

inward; outward

all elevating platforms are required to have two operator control stations:p556

street level and platform

the controls at ___ ___ must be able to override the ____ controls.p556

street level; platform

a ____ ____ ____ is built in to platforms to protect firefighters from radiated heat.p557

heat protective shield

the heat protective shield can loose its ability to reflect heat through?p557

age, dirt or damage

nfpa 1901 requires a protective ___ be provided on the bottom of the platform?p557

water fog curtain nozzle

water fog curtain nozzle is designed to be operated using a ____ and required by nfpa 1901 to flow at least ____?p557

quick actuating lever; 75gpm

when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within normal range of motion, and no water in the piping system all elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of?p557

750 lbs

load requirements of elevating platforms when the water delivery system is charged?p557

500 lbs

when the aerial device is in any position the water delivery system must be capable of discharging at least?p557

1,000 gpm at 100 psi

elevating platforms that are 110ft or shorter should be able to raised from bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in ?p557

150 seconds or less(no time requirement >110ft)

aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from?558

85 to 110 ft

most common aerial ladder platform apparatus in service today is the ?p558

straight chassis, 3-axle, rear-mounted

aerial ladder platforms are designed with a ____ that allows firefighters and victims to climb either direction on the ladder.p558

large ladder

telescoping aerial platforms are not intended for ___, but are equipped with a ____ attached to the boom used as an emergency escape ladder for firefighters working in the platform.p558

climbing; small ladder

common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms in North America range from?p558-559

75 to 100 ft

telescoping aerial platform devices have two or more sections and are made of either?p559

box-beam or tubular truss-beam construction

a mechanically applied rivet used in the construction of some aerial devices; can only be removed by drilling?p559

huck bolt

boom sections are connected by a hinge and they fold/unfold like an elbow?p559

articulating aerial platforms

additional benefits of the articulating devices:p559

assembly enables the platform to go "up and over" and into areas not accessible with straight line apparatus

standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from?p559

55 to 85 ft

devices with two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge?p559-560

combination aerial devices

combination(telescope/articulate) aerial devices range in height from?p560

90 to 174 ft

aerial device primarily intended for deploying an elevated master stream and not for climbing?p560

water tower(elevating master stream device)

most water towers are able to deploy fire streams range of elevation?p560

few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground

water towers range in sizes from?p560

50 to 130 ft

water tower are capable of maximum flows ranging from?p560

1,000 to 5,000 gpm

in order for devices to be truly considered an aerial ladder the ladder affixed to the water tower must meet requirements?p560

nfpa 1901 for aerial ladder

apparatus that serves as an engine and as a ladder truck?p560

quint

having 5 major features or functions the term quint is derived from?p560

quintuple fire apparatus or quintuple combination pumper

criteria for qualification as a quint apparatus:p560-561

F-fire pumpW-water tankA-aerial device/elevated platformG-ground laddersS-supply/attack hoses

on most aerial devices the 3rd, 4th, and 5th(if present) sections of the aerial device are extended and retracted by a system of ?p562

cables and pulleys

are usually corrosion resistant aircraft quality cables made with a very high strength steel, called plow steel and are resistant to abrasion?p562

extension and retraction cables

allows the various sections of the aerial to extend and retract without causing excessive wear on the parts of the device that come in contact with each other?p562

slide and rollers

most devices use a combination of the following to facilitate the movements of the device?p562

slide pads/blocks/rollers

rotational structural component of the aerial device; primary function is to provide continuous rotation on a horizontal plane?p563

turntable

turntable generally operate on?p563

large shear ball-type bearings

is designed for operators of all heights and is positioned on the turntable side of the aerial apparatus?p564

operator's control pedestal

the top of the pedestal is usually designed with a ___ to make it easier to read the instruments mounted on it.p564

sloping panel

for apparatus equipped with a platform nfpa 1901 also requires a ____ in the platform.p564

control station

the turntable control station must have the ability to ____ the platform control station?

override

most control pedestals have three separate lever to control:p564

elevationrotationextension

because an aerial operator should first ___, ___, ___ the aerial device, the control levers should be located in order from ___ to ___ on the pedestal.p564

elevate, rotate, extend; right to left

some aerial devices, particularly water towers, telescoping and articulating platforms, feature a ____ type of control capable of making all aerial device movements?p564

single "joystick"

a safety device that prevents a component from functioning when another component is functioning?p566

interlock

certain interlocks are required by ______ which my be a combination of:p564

nfpa 1901; mechanical limit switches or incorporated into computer algorithms

the aerial device function must not activate unless the stabilizers are fully deployed?p566

aerial/stabilizer interlock

the device will not move into regions where it would make contact with the body or cab?p566

body collision interlock

the aerial device will not rotate over the side of the apparatus where the stabilizer are not fully extended?p566

rotational (short-jack) interlock

the device will slow down before reaching maximum elevation or extension?p566

maximum elevation slow-down interlock

the device will not retract completely without the activation of the retract override function?p566

retraction interlock

the device will not drop into the cradle if the master stream nozzle is not properly positioned?p566

nozzle stow interlock

the aerial device will not operate until the parking brakes have been set and the transmission has been placed in neutral or the transmission is in the drive position with the driveline to the rear axle disengaged?p566

aerial function interlocks

the cab will not raise in the engine is running ?p566

cab interlock

the engine starter will not work unless the tiller operator is seated and belted or a tiller cab start button is engaged?p566

tiller operator interlock

many aerial ladders are equipped with _____ that eliminate the need for laying hose up the ladder to a master stream nozzle.p567

pre-piped waterways

non-telescoping section of pipe usually 3"or 3 1/2" in diameter, attached to the underside of the bed section of the aerial with master stream nozzle at the end?p567

bed ladder pipe

often equipped with solid stream nozzles because of their inability to telescope prevents them from being positioned for effective fog stream application?p567

bed ladders pipes

most ladder pipes are equipped with manually operated nozzles, which may be operated from:p567

the tip of the retracted aerial device or preferably the ground or turntable with ropes attached to the nozzle

most new aerial ladders are equipped with a ____ waterway that extends toward the top of the ladder?p567

telescoping

ladders that are ___ or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section?p567-568

110 ft

consist of 3 or 4 sections that decrease in diameter(largest-base to smallest-fly); made of aluminum or other metal; generally minimum internal diameter of 4"?p568

telescoping piping system

the piping that goes through the turntable is equipped with a continuous ___ ___ that allows 360 degree rotation while flowing water.p568

swivel joint

switches near the tip or at the control pedestal can be used to ___ control nozzles in telescoping waterway systems.p568

remotely

most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to?p568

1,000 gpm

mechanical means to secure the master stream monitor to the ladders?p568

some telescoping pre-piped waterway systems allow the operator to ____ or ___ the master stream monitor to two locations along the device.p569

secure or pin

anchoring mechanisms in pin-able waterways may include:p569

pins, levers, or clamps

the ladder must be fully retracted and the waterway uncharged before the operator adjusts the ?p569

pin locations

drivers should always be sure that the master stream monitor is?p569

secured in its anchor

*always ____ pre-piped monitors before charging with water or they can launch pipe sections through the air, and always ensure there in no ____ in the waterway before changing the pin location.p569

anchor; pressure

aerial ladders not equipped with pre-piped waterway systems have?p569

detachable ladder pipe appliances

main components of the detachable ladder pipe:p569

ladder pipefire hosehose strapssiamese/LDH with 3-way wye

designed to be clamped to the top two rungs of the fly section, and for additional security also lashed to the ladder using rope/hose straps?p569

ladder pipe

detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than?p569

750 gpm

hose appliance with one female and two or more male outlets; outlets usually smaller then inlet and gated?p569

wye

a twisting action or an applied force resulting in a rotational twist?p570

torsional stress

hose appliance that has two or more female inlets and a single male outlet, equipped with hinged gates(clapper valves) that prevent water from being discharged through an open inlet?p570

siamese

counterforce directed against a person/device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged?p570

nozzle reaction

ladder pipe hose should run up the ___ to avoid torsional stress and secured at a minimum _____ locations on the ladder.p570

center; 2-3

most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about _____ either side of the center.p571

15 degrees

because elevating platforms typically have greater load capacities than aerial ladders, the piping systems may be larger and flow up to?p571

2,000gpm

is safer and has more working room than aerial ladders; some are equipped with two nozzles that can be operated individually or simultaneously and at least one 2 1/2" discharge?p571

elevating platforms

equipped with system similar pre-piped water system found on aerial ladders; with controls for both the motion of the water tower and nozzle on the control panel?p572

water tower system

most commonly the water discharged from a water tower is pumped from? p572

fire pump on the apparatus

are sometimes equipped with video camera and thermal imagers at the tip and a video monitor at the control panel?p572

water towers

water towers may have an optional ___ nozzle at the tip of the aerial device, this ____ _____ nozzle penetrates through sheet metal buildings, aircraft skins, and metal roofs.p572

piercing; hardened steel

piercing nozzles on water towers have a ____ ____ nozzle at the tip capable of discharging flows up to ____?p572

broken stream; 300gpm

permit fire fighters at the tip of the aerial device to communicate with the driver at his position?p572

voice communication systems

system consist of a "hands-free" transmitter/receiver at the tip of the ladder or in the elevating platform and a transmitter/receiver at the operator position/pump panel(does not have to be "hands-free")?p572

voice communication system

the voice communication system receivers are?p572

hard-wired or radio transceivers

now requires a two-way communication system on all aerial device apparatus?p573

nfpa 1901

allow one or more firefighters operating at the tip of the aerial device to breathe clean air without the need to don a SCBA?p573

fixed breathing air system

nfpa 1901 does not require aerial devices to have breathing air systems, but installed it establishes requirements for:p573

number of firefighters to be supported by systemcapacity of compressed air cylinders pressure requirements for the piping systemlow air warning alarmsconformity to government regulations

establishes requirements for the quality of the air in breathing air systems?p573

nfpa 1989 standard on breathing air quality for emergency services respiratory protection

establishes the requirement to annually test the breathing air system and the quality of the stored air?p573

nfpa 1911

today's aerial apparatus are often equipped with ___ ___ equipment used to power floodlights, and other electrical tools/equipment on emergency scene.p574

electrical generation

regardless of type of electrical generation equipment used, its design and installation must meet pertinent electrical ___ and include proper ____?p574

codes; grounding

____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be _____ or _____?p574

generators; portable or fixed

used on aerials when it is not necessary for the apparatus to be able to generate large amounts of power?p574

inverters

a step-up transformer that converts the vehicle's 12-or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220-AC current; most commonly used to power vehicle mounted floodlights?p574

inverter

advantages of inverters are:p574

efficiency and low or nonexistent noise during operation

disadvantages of inverters are:p574

small capacities and limited mobility from apparatus

typically have 110- and/or 220-volt capacities; gasoline or diesel powered; extremely useful when power is needed in areas not accessible to the vehicle-mounted system?p574

portable generators

powered by variety of fuels or power take-off(PTO) and usually have larger capacity than portable units; provide power to portable equipment, and floodlight system ?p574

vehicle-mounted generators

usually have 110- and 220-volt capabilities, fixed floodlights are wired directly to the unit through a switch or circuit breaker and provides outlets?p575

vehicle mounted generators

device designed to protect against electrical shock by opening a circuit to shut off the flow of electricity when grounding occurs?p575

ground fault circuit interruptor(GFCI or ground fault indicator GFI receptacle)

if apparatus is equipped with a GFCI the driver must know?p575

how the system operates and how to test/reset the system

used where fixed lights are not able to reach or when additional lighting is necessary?p575

portable lights

mounted on the vehicle or aerial device and their main function is to provide overall lighting of the emergency scene?p575

fixed lights

usually mounted so they can be raised, lowered, or turned, with more elaborate setups including electrically, pneumatically, or hydraulically operated booms with a bank of lights?p576

fixed lights

_____ the power-generating equipment will result in poor lighting and may damage the power-generating unit, lights, or restrict the operation of electrical tools.p576

overtaxing

needed to conduct electric power to portable equipment; must be adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, waterproof, and have no exposed wires?p576

electrical power cords

driver should examine electric power cords ____ for damage to the insulation or connections; recommended lengths should not exceed ____ per reel or cord.p576

daily; 200ft

provide one form of secure and safe connections?p576

twist-lock recepticles

used when multiple connections are needed; supplied by one inlet and fitted with several outlets; 110- and 220-volt?p576

junction boxes

junction boxes are commonly equipped with a ____ ____ on top to make them easier to locate and to provide visual assurance that they are energized.p576

small light

should be carried so that equipment can be interchanged and firefighters can plug their equipment into standard outlets?p576-577

adapters

it is common for FD aerial apparatus to carry a variety of ___ ___, most commonly used are ___ ___?p577

extrication equipment; hydraulic powered

rescue workers use four common types of hydraulic power tools:p577

spreaders, shears, combination spreaders/shears, and extension rams

___ ___ receive their power from compressed air, electric motors, two- or four-cycle gas engines, or apparatus-mounted PTO ?p577

hydraulic tool pumps

hydraulic tool pumps may be ___ and carried with the tool, or they may be ___ on the vehicle and supply tools through long coiled hoses/hose reel.p577

portable; mounted

hose distances of ____ or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on tool operation.p577

100ft

in addition to apparatus-mounted systems aerials may also carry a large array of?p577

portable tools and equipment

crews assigned to aerial apparatus historically have been assigned a variety of fireground functions including:p577

forcible entryventilationsearch and rescuesalvage and overhaul

contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?p577

nfpa 1901

used when the main aerial devices cannot reach a portion of the building, additional ladders are needed, or when only they are needed?p578

ground ladders

nfpa 1901 requires that the ladder complement must include at least:p578

attic, roof, and extension ladders

many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is 40ft or longer to reach 4th or 5th story windows a called?p578

"pole" ladders

due to the extreme weight and awkwardness "pole" ladders are equipped with "_____" or "_____" for stability and leverage during raising.p578

"staypoles" or "tormentors"

driver should be familiar with ___ ___ carried on the apparatus and procedures for ___, ___, and ___ ground ladders.p578

ladder load; inspecting, testing, and maintaining

driver should be familiar with the location, operation, inspection, and servicing of each type of ___ ___ equipment carried on the apparatus.p578

forcible entry

two common types of equipment used to supplement the natural flow of heat, smoke, and gases from a fire building?p579

exhaust fans(smoke ejectors) and positive pressure blowers

placed in window, door, or roof openings for drawing out heat, smoke, and gases by creating a lower pressure inside the fire building?p579

exhaust fan/smoke ejector

used to increase the air pressure in the structure and thus force out the by-products of combustion?p579

positive-pressure ventilation fan

___ ___ starts from the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident.p579

loss control

loss control activities include:p579

safe driving skills water applications techniquessalvage and overhaul

nfpa 1901 requires aerials to be equipped with ____ and ____ to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.p579

multiple salvage covers and two scoop shovels

drivers should inventory their equipment ___ per SOP, and power equipment should be started ____and inspected for readiness.p580

periodically; daily

drivers should follow a ___ tiller inspection procedure based on department SOPs, nfpa standards, and manufacturer.p581

systematic

there are a myriad of forces on the ___ ___ that cause wear and tear greater than other chassis components and more than a regular tractor trailer system where the trailer follows the tractor.p581

tiller components

tiller axle is a steering axle therefore steering wheel free play must not exceed ____ on a 20" wheel or ____ degrees?p581

2"; 10ŒÁ

most tiller steering systems can be locked in the straight ahead position by the use of ____; used so a single driver in front cab to transport for maintenance, training, other non-emergency?p581

lever or pin

all tractor drawn aerials have permanently mounted ______ attaching the "trailer" to the "tractor" power unit, since it is the articulation point insufficient ____ will result in the coupling system binding creating difficulty in steering control.p581

coupling systems; lubrication

unlike tractor suspension systems most tiller systems have ____ suspension that require additional attention during inspections.p581

air bag

should be done with proper supervision and is not considered to be routine maintenance?p582

regular structural testing

most often the agency will have its own ____ ___ that will serve as a checklist for the aerial device inspection; furthermore some have forms for ____, ___, and ___ inspections?p583

official form; daily, weekly, and monthly

check and fill the hydraulic fluid when system is ______; using the _____ or _____ provided on apparatus; only when the stabilizers and aerial device are in ____?p583

cold; dipstick or sight gauge; stowed positions

*adding hydraulic fluid while the stabilizers or aerial device are deployed can lead to ____ the system which could result in hydraulic leaks and damage to the system when cylinders are retracted.

overfilling

the operational inspection serves two purposes:p583

to ensure aerial device is in proper working condition and serves as a review of the aerial device operation for the driver

by operating the aerial device at least ____, the driver will be more prepared to operate efficiently under emergency conditions.p583

once every work period

the location to perform operational test must be:p584

suitable for operating aerial deviceclear of overhead obstructionsapproved by the property ownerstable/reinforced parking area that will support the weight of apparatus

before performing operational tests?p584

transmission in neutral, set parking brake, and chock the tires

____ drivers should not rotate and extend the device at the same time.p585

inexperienced

operating a hydraulic pump without allowing flow through the system; this generates tremendous heat and pressure and can damage components?p585

deadheading

apparatus tests are grouped into two basic categories:p585

preservice and service

all tests should conform to the most current editions at time apparatus was manufactured of _____?

nfpa 1911 and nfpa 1901

service tests are conducted on at least a ___ basis while apparatus is in service.p586

yearly

nondestructive testing is conducted:p586

every 5 yearsafter accidents aerial has been subject to unusual stresses and loadsmajor repairs and overhauls

service testing includes inspecting and testing components such as:p586

stabilizerstorque boxaerial devicewater systems

the best guarantee that the apparatus will perform within its design limitations is :p586

an organized system of apparatus testing and regular maintenance

the ___ ___ requires apparatus testing in order for the community to receive full insurance rating credit, and this ultimately affects rates.p586

insurance industry

for efficient and safe fire control apparatus drivers must work together to ensure _____ ____ are positioned for maximum use and minimum stress to the aerial device.p610

aerial apparatus

SOPs provide basic guidance but positioning the apparatus at an actual incident is influenced by conditions and will be at the discretion of:p610

IC, truck company officer, driver/operator

aerial apparatus placement on the foreground is critically important because aerial devices and ladders have?p610

fixed maximum lengths

it is crucial to obtain the optimum scene position for the aerial preferably on the first attempts when placing consider:p610

aerial objectiveturntable placementscene conditionsproper stabilization

driver simple_csv Flashcards

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