driver test 4th ed Flashcards
(374 cards)
1
Q
What tool was used to move water for fire extinguishment during colonial times?
A
Leather buckets passed in a bucket brigade
2
Q
What was the rattle watch in colonial America?
A
Watchmen who walked the streets at night looking for fires; they would run through the streets with wooden rattles to alert residents to turn out and help fight the fire
3
Q
What was the first equipment to replace the bucket brigade?
A
Hand pump
4
Q
What material was used for the water mains in Philadelphia’s early municipal water supply?
A
Wood
5
Q
Which fuel powered the first mechanized fire pumps?
A
Coal
6
Q
What was a chemical wagon?
A
The first gasoline-powered fire apparatus to discharge water
7
Q
What is a triple-combination pumper?
A
A motorized apparatus with a pump, water tank, and hose for fire extinguishment
8
Q
What development allowed aerial ladders to reach farther and carry greater loads?
A
Hydraulic pumps
9
Q
What replaced the gasoline engine for larger fire apparatus?
A
Diesel engines
10
Q
What does an antilock braking system (ABS) do?
A
Applies the correct amount of brake to each wheel to prevent the wheels from locking up and placing the vehicle in a skid
11
Q
What are the two modes of warning light systems required by NFPA 1900?
A
- A mode that makes the apparatus visible while responding
- A mode that makes the apparatus visible while blocking
12
Q
What is the most important aspect of crash prevention?
A
The driver/operator’s attitude, training, experience, and qualifications, and the application of those qualities
13
Q
Who is responsible for driving the fire apparatus to the scene safely?
A
Driver/operator
14
Q
Who is responsible for repairing and servicing fire and EMS vehicles?
A
Emergency vehicle technician (EVT)
15
Q
Who manages all incident operations at an emergency incident?
A
Incident commander (IC)
16
Q
What type of command system eliminates multiple command posts and ensures mutual communication among agencies?
A
Unified command
17
Q
What are SOPs?
A
Standard operating procedures; documents that provide specific information describing the actions that should be taken to accomplish tasks within the department or at an emergency scene
18
Q
What is the chain of command?
A
The rank-based, hierarchical structure that creates an orderly line of authority
19
Q
What is division of labor?
A
A way of organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks
20
Q
What is the concept that expects each member to answer to only one supervisor?
A
Unity of command
21
Q
What is the span of control?
A
The maximum number of individuals or resources that one person can supervise effectively
22
Q
Who evaluates hazards and recommends safety measures to the incident commander?
A
Incident safety officer (ISO)
23
Q
Who conducts post-incident reviews to identify new hazards?
A
Health and safety officers
24
Q
What is a proactive means to ensure critical functions are assigned to team members prior to arrival?
A
Assigned riding positions
25
What allows firefighters on the fire apparatus to communicate clearly?
Headsets and intercom systems
26
What is the leading cause of line-of-duty deaths for firefighters?
Cancer
27
The 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives (FLSIs) are key components of which program?
Everyone Goes Home
28
What is the main organization that publishes standards for firefighting in the U.S.?
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
29
Which organization enforces regulations on workplace safety?
Occupation Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
30
Who reports directly to the incident commander and has authority to correct unsafe actions?
Incident safety officer (ISO)
31
What term describes acting independently of a superior’s orders?
Freelancing
32
What equipment is commonly used to combat sleep apnea?
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machine
33
What action has the Firefighter Cancer Support Network identified as dangerous in the fire service?
Not wearing SCBA
34
How long must a driver/operator wait after drinking alcohol before engaging in operations?
8 hours
35
What does CISD stand for?
Critical incident stress debriefing
36
What does integrity mean in the context of fire service?
Doing the right thing even when no one is looking
37
Who would be a good source of advice for routine maintenance on the apparatus?
Certified emergency vehicle technician (EVTs)
38
According to NFPA 1010, what level of qualifications do driver/operators for aerials need?
Firefighter I
39
Which NFPA standard identifies requirements for a fire department’s driver training program?
NFPA 1451, Standard for a Fire and Emergency Service Vehicle Operations Training Program, 2018 Edition
40
What two types of assessments are usually required to become a driver/operator?
* Written examination
* Practical assessment
41
Which NFPA standard defines minimum requirements for fire apparatus design?
NFPA 1900
42
What type of apparatus can be used as a nurse tender?
Mobile water supply apparatus
43
What is a chassis?
The framework, cabin, and drivetrain of a vehicle
44
What are the minimum and maximum top speeds for a fire apparatus over 33,000 lb?
50 mph (80 km/h) and 68 mph (109 km/h)
45
What is the primary function of a pumper apparatus?
To bring personnel, water, a pump, and hose to the fire scene
46
What type of fire apparatus is designed to be more maneuverable than a pumper?
Initial attack apparatus
47
What type of apparatus hauls a substantial amount of water to a scene?
Mobile water supply apparatus
48
What are the three types of aerial devices?
* Aerial ladder
* Elevating platform
* Water tower
49
What are the five devices a quint is equipped with?
* A pump
* A water tank
* A fire hose
* An aerial device
* Ground ladders
50
What tactic uses multiple mobile water supply apparatus to transport water?
Water shuttle operation
51
What type of apparatus is a giant rolling toolbox?
Special service apparatus
52
What is the primary purpose of a mobile foam apparatus?
To control and extinguish flammable and combustible liquid fires
53
What system mixes the correct amount of water and foam concentrate?
Foam proportioner
54
What is the chemical formula for water?
H2O
55
What physical property allows water to flow and puddle?
Surface tension
56
Which liquid is known as the universal solvent?
Water
57
What is the specific heat capacity of a substance?
The amount of heat energy required to increase the temperature of the substance
58
How much does a gallon of water weigh at room temperature?
8.34 lb (3.78 kg)
59
What is the latent heat of vaporization?
The amount of energy required for a liquid to undergo a complete phase change from liquid to gas
60
What volume does 1 gallon of water fill when vaporized?
1700 gal (6435 L)
61
What is galvanic corrosion?
The process that occurs when two dissimilar metals are immersed in an electrolyte solution and begin to eat away at each other
62
What is a sacrificial anode?
A replaceable component made from a specific metal intended to be consumed by galvanic corrosion to protect the pump and piping
63
What is a static water source?
A water source that is not under pressure
64
What type of water system supplies domestic water and is also available to the fire department?
Municipal water supply system
65
What are human-made storage facilities for municipal water called?
Reservoirs
66
What type of light source is used in water treatment facilities to kill bacteria?
Ultraviolet
67
What are the large water mains in a municipal water system called?
Primary feeders
68
What is potential energy?
The energy stored due to position or condition
69
Where can you test water pressure in a hose line when fluid is not moving?
Anywhere
70
Why should you open and close all valves 2 in. or greater slowly?
To prevent water hammer
71
What is friction loss?
The drop in water pressure due to friction between flowing water and the inside walls of the pipe, fittings, or hose
72
What is the recommended minimum operating pressure for hydrants?
20 psi (140 kPa)
73
What type of hydrant is used in freezing climates?
Dry barrel hydrant
74
What type of fire hydrant has water in the barrel and is not drained after use?
Wet barrel hydrant
75
Why are gate valves used on fire hydrant outlets?
To allow additional hose lines to be connected to a dry barrel hydrant after the main valve is opened
76
In residential areas, how far apart are fire hydrants typically placed?
500 ft (150 m)
77
What type of hose connects an engine directly to a fire hydrant?
Soft sleeve
78
What type of hose connects to a dry hydrant for drafting water?
Hard suction
79
What is residual pressure?
The amount of pressure that remains in the water main system when water is flowing out
80
What is a Pitot gauge used for?
To measure flow pressure
81
Why must the flow hydrant be downstream from the residual hydrant during a flow test?
To ensure accurate residual pressure readings
82
What color fire hydrant bonnet indicates an available flow of 1500 GPM or more?
Light blue
83
How often should fire hydrants be checked?
Annually
84
At what distance from a 2½-in. outlet should the tip of a Pitot gauge be placed?
1¼ in. (3 cm)
85
At what rate can a portable pump deliver water?
500 GPM (2000 L/min)
86
What is a hose bed?
A flat, open area on an apparatus where hose is stored in different configurations
87
What is a preconnected attack line?
Hose on a pumper that is already connected to a pump discharge outlet
88
Where are the controls for the fire pump located on the apparatus?
In the cab
89
What does 'pump and roll' mean?
The apparatus can pump water and drive slowly in forward gear at 2 mi/h (3.2 km/h) or less at the same time
90
What indicators show that the pump is engaged in a pumper?
* The 'OK to Pump' indicator illuminates
* There is a reading of greater than zero on the speedometer
91
What is an impeller?
The rotating part of a centrifugal pump that resembles a disk
92
What is a volute?
The spiral-shaped pump casing
93
What is the process of filling the pump with water called?
Priming the pump
94
What is deadheading a pump?
Running the pump without allowing it to discharge water
95
What is cavitation?
The formation of vapor bubbles on the low-pressure side of the pump
96
Why are two-stage pumps most often operated in series/pressure mode?
Because most fire responses do not require more than 50 percent of the pump’s rated capacity
97
What is the pipe that leads from the apparatus water tank to the fire pump called?
Tank-to-pump pipe or tank-to-pump
98
What is an intake pressure relief valve?
A valve that automatically bleeds off excess pressure coming into the intake side of a pump
99
What type of fittings must all 2½-in. or larger discharge outlet connections have?
Standard
100
What is an intake pressure relief valve?
A valve that automatically bleeds off excess pressure coming into the intake side of a pump to prevent damage due to excessive pressure surges
101
All 2½-in. (65-mm) or larger discharge outlet connections for fire pumps must be equipped with which type of fittings?
Standardized hose connections
102
What gauge measures the pressure as it leaves the pump?
Master pump discharge gauge
103
According to NFPA 1900, how accurate must the gauges on the pump panel be?
They cannot be off by more than 10 psi (70 kPa)
104
What does the discharge pressure relief valve do?
It controls pressure by setting a spring-loaded valve to automatically open when the predetermined pressure setting is exceeded
105
Which device electronically monitors the pressure and adjusts the engine speed?
Pressure governor
106
Which device transfers the engine’s power to the pump?
Power take-off (PTO) unit
107
What does a split-shaft transfer case do?
It directs the power to either the rear axle or to the pump
108
What is the difference between attack hose and supply hose?
Attack hose is used to discharge water under pressure onto a fire; supply hose is used to deliver water from a source to a tank
109
What is the difference between threaded and non-threaded couplings?
Threaded couplings have male and female threads; non-threaded couplings need to be mated face-to-face
110
What size of couplings is usually found on medium-diameter hose?
2½-in. (65-mm)
111
What are the two most common sizes of LDH used by today’s fire departments?
4 and 5 in. (100 and 125 mm)
112
Which hose size is most commonly used to attack interior residential structure fires?
1¾ in. (45 mm)
113
Which size coupling is typically used on 1½-in. (38-mm), 1¾-in. (45-mm), and 2-in. (50-mm) hose?
1½ in. (38 mm)
114
What is soft sleeve hose?
A short section of LDH that connects a fire department pumper to a pressurized water supply
115
What is hard suction hose?
A special type of supply hose used to draft water from a static source
116
What is the flow rate range of a handline nozzle?
95 to 350 GPM (360 to 1325 L/min)
117
What are the two types of nozzles manufactured for the fire service?
Smooth bore and fog stream
118
At what pressure do most smooth-bore nozzles operate?
50 psi (350 kPa)
119
Which type of nozzle makes a hole in solid material and discharges water on the other side?
Piercing nozzle
120
Which two types of nozzles are used to suppress fire in inaccessible areas?
Cellar nozzle and Bresnan distributor nozzle
121
What are the three classifications of fog-stream nozzles?
Fixed gallonage, adjustable gallonage, and automatic
122
Which type of fog-stream nozzle allows flow rate selection by adjusting the orifice size?
Adjustable-gallonage nozzle
123
Which hose appliance splits one hose stream into two?
Wye
124
Which hose appliance combines two hose lines into one?
Siamese
125
What nozzle pressures is the smooth-bore nozzle commonly pumped at?
50 psi (350 kPa), but may also be flowed at 40 or 60 psi
126
What are the three nozzle pressures that fixed-gallonage fog nozzles are pumped at?
50, 75, and 100 psi (350, 525, and 700 kPa)
127
Which formula is used to calculate nozzle reaction for a smooth-bore nozzle?
NR = 1.57 × d² × NP (standard) or NR = 0.0226 × d² × NP (metric)
128
Which formula is used to calculate flow from a smooth-bore nozzle?
GPM = 29.7 × d² × √NP (standard) or kPa = 0.067 × d² × √NP (metric)
129
According to Friction Loss Law 1, friction loss varies in direct proportion to which factor?
The length of the hose
130
According to Friction Loss Law 2, friction loss varies approximately as the square of which factor?
The velocity
131
What is the friction loss formula in its simplest form?
FL = C × Q² × L
132
What is a numerical measure that is a constant for each specific hose diameter?
Coefficient
133
What is the process called when you do not fully open a discharge valve to deliver a desired pressure?
Gating a valve
134
What action must be taken to set discharge pressures correctly?
Flowing water
135
What does the fire service call the pressure created by a vertical column of water?
Elevation pressure
136
Water exerts a pressure of how many psi per 1 ft of water column?
0.434 psi/ft
137
In the fire service, how many psi of elevation gain or loss occurs per floor of elevation change?
5 psi
138
Appliance friction loss is considered insignificant when water flows are less than what level?
350 GPM (1400 L/min)
139
How much FL should be allowed in appliances when the flow rate is 350 GPM or greater?
10 psi
140
How much FL should be allowed for all master stream appliances?
25 psi
141
When using a Pitot gauge, how far from the face of the opening should the tip be positioned?
Half the diameter
142
Which appliance is used to split a single hose line into two hose lines?
Wye
143
Which size are the two connections of many FDCs?
2½ in. (65 mm)
144
In what year did rules concerning standpipe design change?
1993
145
If no preincident plan exists and the riser size is unknown, how much friction loss should be added for the standpipe riser?
25 psi
146
Which classes of standpipes have 2½-in. outlets?
Classes I and III
147
PRVs are required when pressures exceed how much static pressure?
175 psi
148
What are the three methods for estimating the amount of water available from a fire hydrant?
The OK method, the first-digit method, and the percentage method
149
Within what time frame after a response does NFPA 1910 require apparatus inspections?
24 hours
150
What is the next step after washing and rinsing the exterior of the apparatus?
The apparatus should be dried off
151
What is a fire apparatus inspection?
An evaluation of the fire apparatus and its equipment to ensure safe operation
152
The inspection process should begin with a review of which document?
The previous apparatus inspection form
153
Which piece of equipment may require a separate inspection form?
Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
154
What is the name of the system used to draw exhaust outside the fire apparatus bay?
Source capture exhaust system
155
What is diesel exhaust fluid (DEF)?
Fluid injected into the exhaust stream to transform NOx emissions into nitrogen and water vapor
156
Where can firefighters find the fluid chart required by NFPA 1900?
In the cab or engineer’s compartment
157
What is the final stage of apparatus inspection?
Making sure all tools and equipment are secured
158
What guidelines should be considered as minimum requirements for maintenance of fire apparatus?
The manufacturer’s recommendations
159
What should be done with the fire inspection forms once completed?
They should be filed in accordance with the fire department’s procedures
160
Which NFPA standard dictates conditions that require a vehicle to be taken out of service?
NFPA 1451, Standard for a Fire and Emergency Service Vehicle Operations Training Program
161
What is the term for a preliminary inspection of the fire apparatus?
360-degree inspection
162
What is the first step to performing a 360-degree inspection if parked inside the bay?
Open the fire apparatus bay door
163
Why is it important to ensure unnecessary electrical loads are shut off prior to starting the fire apparatus?
Diesel engines require significant current during starting
164
The air system should build up to sufficient pressure to disengage the air brakes within how many seconds?
60 seconds
165
Which NFPA standard requires the fire apparatus to remain stationary until all persons are seated and secured?
NFPA 1550
166
Which NFPA 1010 driving exercise simulates a passed intersection and needs to turn the apparatus around?
Confined-space turnaround
167
What should assist the driver/operator whenever an emergency vehicle is backing up?
A spotter
168
What must be done immediately if the driver/operator cannot see or loses sight of the spotter?
Stop the apparatus
169
Why are modern fire stations built with drive-through bays?
To reduce backing-up accidents
170
What is a mobile computer terminal (MCT)?
The onboard computer or tablet connected to the dispatch system
171
What should every driver/operator complete before driving a fire apparatus?
A training course approved by the fire department
172
During an emergency response, the fire apparatus should be driven with which two items activated?
The emergency lights and the sirens
173
The fire apparatus should be driven with the intention of passing other vehicles on which side?
The left side
174
If you encounter a bridge that may not support the apparatus weight, what must you do?
Access the scene from another route
175
What should you do as you arrive on the scene to allow for final observations?
Slow down
176
While approaching a fire scene, how many sides of the structure should you attempt to view?
Three
177
What distance should apparatus be positioned outside a collapse zone?
1½ times the height of the building
178
Why is it necessary to position the fire apparatus with the cab angled away from the incident?
To deflect uncontrolled vehicles
179
At what angle to a vehicle fire should you position the fire apparatus?
45 degrees
180
What is the first priority when arriving at an EMS scene?
Provide a protected environment for firefighters
181
How far should first-arriving units be positioned from a trench?
150 ft (45 m)
182
What is an example of a pressurized water source?
A fire hydrant or fire pump
183
What is a changeover operation?
Transferring from using onboard tank water to using an external water supply
184
What advantage is gained by using internal tank water for initial fire suppression?
The advantage of speed
185
What limiting factor must be considered when using internal tank water?
The amount of water in the tank
186
What is hand-jacking?
The driver manages the hydrant connections and hose deployment
187
What is the difference between supply line operations and attack line operations?
Supply line operations involve laying hose from a water source to an attack pumper; attack line operations involve applying water onto a fire
188
Which tactic involves laying a supply line from the hydrant to the fire?
A forward lay
189
What is a split hose lay?
An attack pumper lays a supply line to the fire, then the supply engine lays a supply line to the water source
190
Who typically decides whether to lay a supply line to the incident?
The fire officer
191
What is a soft sleeve hose or pony line?
A short length of hose used to connect the fire apparatus intake to the hydrant
192
What are two ways to supply a second pumper from a single hydrant?
Double-tapping the hydrant and in-line pumping
193
What is the name of the connection point on a building for fire department water supply?
Fire department connection (FDC)
194
What is the target maximum pressure to keep fluctuations low during a changeover operation?
10 psi (70 kPa)
195
What is the method to supply a second pumper from a single hydrant?
Double-tapping the hydrant and in-line pumping
196
What is the name of the connection point on a building for the fire department to pump water into the standpipe or sprinkler system?
Fire department connection (FDC)
197
What is a good maximum pressure to target when manually performing a changeover operation?
10 psi (70 kPa)
198
Which valve should be opened to control engine temperature during a pumping operation?
The auxiliary cooling valve
199
What is the function of the high-idle switch?
It sets the apparatus engine to 900–1100 rpm for full alternator amperage
200
Which type of lighting has reduced electrical problems on fire apparatus?
LED lighting
201
What type of battery pack powers most newer models of extrication tools?
Lithium ion
202
What is draft in the context of fire apparatus?
The pressure difference that causes water to flow from high pressure to low pressure
203
A pumper must develop a vacuum equal to how many inches of mercury?
22 in. Hg (75 kPa)
204
What is one common method to fill the pump and suction hose with water?
Using the priming pump
205
What is dependable lift?
The height a column of water can be lifted to provide reliable fire flow
206
Which newer-style primer uses compressed air from the chassis?
Venturi-style primer
207
Who ensures there is an adequate water supply to mitigate an incident?
The water supply officer
208
What is the most important consideration when selecting a static water source?
The reliability of the static water source
209
What device prevents large debris from entering the pump?
The strainer
210
Which type of strainer is most commonly used when drafting from deep water?
A barrel strainer
211
What are two methods to prime the pump using onboard tank water without the primer?
Burp priming and Venturi priming
212
What is the purpose of a dump line during drafting operations?
To avoid loss of draft and to prevent overheating
213
What may happen if the discharge valve is opened too quickly when flowing water from a draft?
A loss of vacuum, ending the pump’s draft
214
What must the crew receiving water know before you open the discharge valve?
That you are ready to start flowing
215
What problem may occur if the intake gauge pressure changes significantly?
Debris plugging the intake strainer
216
What occurs when you attempt to flow water faster than it is supplied to the pump?
Cavitation
217
What is a crucial objective for an incident commander when water is not readily available?
Establishing an uninterrupted water supply
218
What are the two locations used during water shuttle operations?
Fill site and dump site
219
What is an advantage of locating a dump site at an intersection?
Tenders can approach from and depart in different directions
220
Which tender should ideally be the nurse tender from the department’s fleet?
The largest
221
What position should be assigned as part of the Incident Management System for a water shuttle operation?
Water supply officer
222
What factors determine the distance between pumpers in relay pumping?
Water required on scene, size/type of fire hose, and topography
223
What is the name for the apparatus connected directly to a water supply in relay pumping?
Source pumper
224
What is the name for the apparatus positioned at the scene supplying hose lines?
Attack pumper
225
What is the name for the apparatus placed between the source pumper and attack pumper?
Relay pumper
226
Why is LDH highly recommended for relay pumping operations?
To avoid high friction loss
227
How many medium-diameter hose lines are recommended to reduce total friction loss in relay pumping?
Two
228
How does the attack pumper determine pressure and flow in relay operations?
Based on the types of nozzles used and their flow characteristics
229
What type of relay pumping operation uses flow calculations to determine water quantity needed?
Calculated flow relay
230
What must the operator of a relay pumper monitor regarding the pump?
Intake pressure not below 20 psi and discharge pressure not above hose-specific operating pressure
231
What is the only difference between using a hydrant for relay pumping versus a personal supply?
Supplying another pumper’s use
232
What is a good practice to prevent air from entering the pump?
Bleeding the supply line
233
Which pumping apparatus is typically the first to arrive on a fire scene?
Attack pumper
234
What two connections must be made for a relay pumper to be considered ready?
Connections between supply hose and pumper, and discharge hose and next pumper
235
Which appliance is used when the last pumper needs to supply multiple attack pumpers?
A manifold
236
Which appliance allows a relay pumper to be added into a supply line without shutting down?
A relay or four-way valve
237
What mode should the controller be in when relay pumping with a pressure governor?
rpm
238
Do pressure fluctuations have a large effect on relay pumping operations?
No; they can usually be handled by pressure relief valves
239
Why must the order to terminate a relay pumping operation be given with care?
Relays are difficult to establish and should be maintained as necessary
240
Why should the IC assign a tactical channel for all pump operators?
So they can communicate directly without distracting fire attack personnel
241
What was the first type of water additive used to fight Class B fires?
Chemical foam
242
What term describes a liquid firefighting agent that must be diluted with water?
Concentrate
243
Why are PFAS, PFOS, and PFOA known as forever chemicals?
They do not degrade and accumulate in our bodies and the environment
244
List the three types of water additives.
* Emulsifiers
* Wetting agents
* Foams
245
What is the name for the stable mass of small air-filled bubbles used for firefighting?
Foam
246
Which kind of water additive allows two dissimilar products to blend?
Emulsifier
247
Which Class B water additive enables the solution to mix with hydrocarbons?
Wetting agent
248
What type of foam system injects air into the hose line to produce finished foam?
Compressed-air foam system (CAFS)
249
What is the general name for chemical compounds containing carbon and hydrogen?
Hydrocarbon
250
What foam concentrate is produced using animal by-products?
Protein foam
251
Which type of foam was considered the gold standard and contains fluorochemical surfactants?
Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
252
Which foam was developed as a replacement after discovering harmful forever chemicals?
Fluorine-free foam (FFF)
253
Foam concentrates for Class A foams are designed to be mixed within what percentage range?
0.1 to 1 percent
254
Which type of foam has an expansion ratio of 20:1?
Low-expansion foam
255
What type of proportioning involves pouring foam concentrate directly into the onboard water tank?
Batch mixing
256
What proportioning system uses the Venturi principle to introduce concentrate into the water stream?
Eductor
257
Which foam system continues to proportion foam when the nozzle is not flowing?
Around-the-pump proportioning system
258
What type of gauge allows you to see the pressures of both concentrate and water?
Duplex gauge
259
What type of nozzle should be used when flowing CAFS?
Smooth-bore
260
What is the typical shelf life of synthetic concentrates?
20 to 25 years
261
What is the foam application method where foam is directed onto the ground in front of the product?
Roll-on (or sweep) method
262
What is the foam application method where the firefighter uses an object to deflect the stream?
Bankdown method
263
What is the foam application method where the foam stream is lofted into the air?
Raindown method
264
Is it effective to mix different types of concentrate together to extinguish a fire?
No, concentrates are not necessarily compatible
265
By the end of which decade were modern aerial apparatus integrated?
The 1970s
266
What are the four tactical priorities for aerial apparatus?
* Rescue
* Ventilation to support rescue
* Exposure protection
* Offensive and defensive fire attack
267
What are the three types of aerial devices?
* Aerial ladders
* Elevating platforms
* Water towers
268
Of what materials are aerial ladders and elevating platforms constructed?
* Brushed aluminum
* Painted steel
269
What powers the hydraulic pump in aerial apparatus?
Hydraulic power take-off (PTO) unit
270
Which type of outrigger may be short-jacked on some aerial apparatus?
H-type
271
How often should certified EVTs perform detailed inspections of aerial apparatus?
Annually, every year
272
Where should aerial positioning be for residential structures?
Directly in front (Alpha-side) of the building
273
At or above what grade is it necessary to compensate when stabilizing an aerial?
Grades that exceed 6 percent or 3.5 degrees
274
How many speeds do most aerials allow for operation of turntable controls?
Two speeds, slow and fast
275
Which control should be off near structures, hazards, or people?
High idle
276
How far should aerial devices be kept from overhead wires?
10 ft (3 m)
277
What is the design basis of the modern aerial?
Truss construction
278
What safety equipment must firefighters use when occupying the tip or platform of an aerial?
Ladder belt
279
What actions should a skilled driver/operator be able to perform smoothly?
Simultaneously raise, rotate, and extend the ladder
280
What should the positioning of the aerial aid when roof work is anticipated?
Access and rapid egress
281
What mode is the master stream in when pinned to the upper section of the aerial ladder?
Firefighting mode
282
What may catapult off the end of the ladder if improperly installed?
Master stream or waterway positioning pin
283
What nozzle pressure are smooth-bore master streams typically supplied at?
80 psi (550 kPa)
284
What typically powers emergency hydraulic pumps?
12-volt battery
285
What sources may assist the driver/operator while en route to a call?
Radio traffic or CAD information
286
When is a good time to practice aerial positioning at a local school?
During winter, spring, or summer break
287
What means can an aerial apparatus use to control fire progress?
A master stream
288
What is the main job of the tiller operator?
To control the trailer by steering the rear axle
289
What is the most efficient way to get the apparatus to a scene quickly?
To get on the rig and get out of the firehouse in a timely manner
290
What does a single buzz in the buzzer system mean?
Stop
291
What is the purpose of the beacon installed on the roof of the tractor?
To assist in keeping the trailer in line with the cab
292
How many full rotations for the tiller wheels vary between manufacturers?
Two to three full rotations
293
Who typically operates the aerial device on scene?
The driver/operator
294
What type of obstacle is used to set up a driving obstacle course?
Orange plastic cones
295
What driving exercise measures the ability to turn the apparatus in a restricted area?
The confined-space turnaround
296
What driving exercise tests communication skills and braking understanding?
The straight-line drive
297
What tools allow a seasoned tiller operator to coach a novice from a distance?
Wireless headsets and video from a mounted cell phone or camera
298
What must the driver/operator do before entering an intersection?
Bring the rig to a complete stop
299
What does slowing down when approaching the incident allow for?
Time for the crew to size up the situation
300
What should the collapse zone be at least in relation to the height of the building?
One-and-a-half times the height
301
What are typically the strongest points of a structure?
The corners
302
What is the name for a series of structural members that counteract twisting motions?
Torque box
303
Where are wheel chocks placed when stabilizing the tractor on a tillered aerial?
In front of and behind the steering axle
304
What is the collapse zone relative to the height of the building?
One-and-a-half times
305
What is a torque box?
A series of structural members welded together to build a solid frame that will counteract the twisting motions imparted by the aerial device
306
Where are wheel chocks placed when stabilizing the tractor on a tillered aerial?
Both in front of and behind the steering axle of the tractor
307
What is the first step in the deployment of the aerial ladder?
Elevate or raise it, to get the device out of its cradle
308
Why is the ladder lowered, not raised, into position during a rescue from an aerial ladder?
To avoid the victim jumping or reaching out to the ladder
309
At approximately how many degrees should the aerial device be angled when using it with the tractor on an incline?
45 degrees
310
What type of load does high wind impose on the aerial device?
Dynamic load
311
What is the first action after any drill to identify potential problems with the apparatus?
360-degree walk-around inspection
312
Where should 360-degree walk-around inspections begin?
Near the driver’s door
313
The inspection/maintenance standards are linked to which time intervals on the aerial hour meter?
10, 50, 100, 200, and 400-hour times
314
What position should the aerial device and outriggers be in when checking the fluid level of the hydraulic reservoir?
Stowed and bedded
315
What is viscosity?
A measure of a liquid’s resistance to flow
316
What is the angle of approach?
The smallest angle between the road surface and a line drawn from the ground in front of the front tire to any part of the apparatus in front of the front axle
317
Where are the aerial hydraulic and electrical controls installed?
The turntable control pedestal
318
What devices activate and limit the aerial device’s movements if the outriggers are not fully extended?
The interlocks
319
What is the purpose of the override switch?
To bypass or negate interlocks that have been activated
320
What is an elevating platform?
An aerial device consisting of an elevated tower with two or more booms or sections equipped with a passenger-carrying platform assembly
321
What is the largest and most powerful component in the hydraulic system on the aerial apparatus?
The lift cylinder
322
What is backlash in the context of aerial devices?
The unwanted side-to-side movement that can be reduced by using two rotation gears to rotate the aerial device at the turntable
323
What is the minimum flow rating of a permanently installed waterway on the aerial device per NFPA standards?
1000 GPM (4000 L/min)
324
What component allows a continuous 360-degree rotation while allowing fluid flow and electrical signals transfer?
The hydroelectric swivel
325
What does the rudder control indicator inform the tiller operator about?
The position of the rear wheels
326
What type of aerial turntable mounting is most effective for reach and stability when operated off the back of the apparatus?
A rear-mount aerial device
327
What type of stabilizing system is mounted lower than other types, under the torque box?
Under-slung jacks
328
In which area on the level gauge will require reduced capabilities, typically 50 percent of the ladder’s capability?
The yellow area (greater than 5 degrees but less than 8 degrees)
329
What is the first aerial device movement performed?
To raise or elevate it from the bedded position
330
Where can information about the aerial device’s safety parameters be found?
The load chart
331
During what phase of aerial device operation do most accidents occur?
Rotation
332
What is the water tower position?
The position in which the waterway is secured to allow extension as close to the tip of the aerial as possible
333
What may occur if a telescoping waterway is charged and no valves are open when the device is retracted?
Pipe rupture
334
What component allows each section of the ladder to stop to avoid over-retracting or overextending?
The ladder stops
335
What is nondestructive testing (NDT)?
A method used to inspect a structural component without physically altering or damaging the materials
336
What type of NDT relies on a magnetic current applied through a magnetic particle (mag) yoke?
Magnetic particle testing
337
What type of NDT uses a colored or fluorescent dye and a developer?
Dye penetrant testing
338
What is the emergency power unit (EPU)?
An auxiliary hydraulic pump that can lower the ladder if the engine or PTO unit fails
339
Who should be contacted when problems with aerial apparatus exceed the capabilities of the driver/operators?
The appropriate EVT on the maintenance staff
340
What are the three types of cues that can alert the driver/operator to potential problems with the aerial apparatus?
Visual, audible, and tactile cues
341
Who may be required to evaluate an issue found during the daily/weekly inspection of fire apparatus?
An emergency vehicle technician (EVT)
342
What test ensures that the maximum weight rating on each individual axle is not exceeded?
The weight verification test
343
On what incline should the parking brake hold the apparatus stationary?
20 degrees of incline
344
What test shall be conducted at least annually, after each scheduled maintenance interval, and after repairs?
The road test
345
What type of battery test is preferred for accuracy and does not stress the battery?
The conductance test
346
What type of test is conducted to test the starter wiring?
The voltage drop test
347
What is the voltage drop threshold considered a failure when testing a solenoid?
0.3 volt
348
What NFPA standard must the quality of clean compressed air meet during performance testing of breathing air compressor systems?
NFPA 1989
349
How often should performance testing of fire apparatus pumps over 250 GPM be conducted?
Annually
350
What is the corrected barometric pressure threshold below which pump testing from draft should not be conducted?
29 in. Hg (98.2 kPa)
351
How far below the surface should the strainer be located when pump testing from draft?
2 ft (0.6 m)
352
What is the desirable ratio of volume to capacity of the pump size when designing a pump test pit?
10:1
353
How frequently should gauges used for testing fire pumps be calibrated?
Annually
354
What should the pressure inside a pump or suction hose not drop below during a vacuum test?
10 in. Hg (34 kPa)
355
What additional test must be performed when conducting pump performance testing on a pump 750 GPM or larger?
The overload test
356
How quickly should the discharge valve be closed when performing a pressure control test?
From 3 to 10 seconds
357
What is the maximum discharge pressure increase considered acceptable during a pressure control test?
30 psi (210 kPa)
358
What should be done with pump panel gauges that are off by more than 10 psi?
They must be recalibrated, repaired, or replaced
359
When must the flow meter be recalibrated, repaired, or replaced?
When its accuracy is off by more than 10 percent
360
What are two possible causes of failure of the pump to deliver desired capacity or pressure?
* Insufficient power
* Restrictions in the intake
361
What step should be considered if an apparatus is delivered with an engine capable of supplying additional power?
Re-rating the pump
362
What tool is used to determine the concentration of a foam solution by measuring its refractive index?
A refractometer
363
What tool is used to determine the concentration of a foam solution by measuring conductivity?
A conductivity meter
364
When testing the compressed-air foam system (CAFS), what percentage deviation from the original set point will cause failure?
±10 percent
365
How often should a full load test of the power source for line voltage electrical systems be conducted?
Every 5 years
366
What does dispatch mean?
To select units to respond to a reported incident, alert those units, and communicate the request for service
367
List 11 types of equipment that are in most communications centers.
* Dedicated land lines to receive 911 calls
* Public phones
* Land lines that connect directly to other agencies
* Equipment to receive alarms from fire alarm systems
* TTY/TDD capabilities
* Computers that use GIS
* Equipment for alerting and dispatching units
* Two-way radio system(s)
* Recording devices for phone calls and radio traffic
* Backup generators
* Records and a record management system
368
What is Enhanced 911?
It provides the phone number and location of the caller using ANI and ALI
369
What is VoIP?
Technology that converts a person’s voice into a digital signal sent via the Internet
370
What is an emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)?
A dispatcher trained to provide medical self-help instructions for callers
371
What happens if the dispatcher does not receive confirmation of a unit responding?
They dispatch substitute units
372
What are the three types of radios that fire service personnel primarily use?
Portable radio, mobile radio, and base station
373
What type of system transmits radio signals on the same frequency?
Simplex system
374
What is a repeater?
A base station that uses two separate frequencies for receiving and transmitting messages
