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Drug names Flashcards

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1
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics

A 
Acetylcholine
Bethanechol
Carbachol 
Methacholine
Verenicline
Cevimeline
Pilocarpine
Arecoline
Lobeline
Muscarine
Nicotine
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2
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics (choline esters)

A

Acetylcholine
Bethanechol
Carbachol
Methacholine

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3
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics (synthetic)

A

Verenicline

Cevimeline

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4
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics (alkaloids)

A 
Pilocarpine
Lobeline
Arecoline
Nicotine
Muscarine
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5
Q

Name the indirect acting cholinomimetics

A 
Edrophonium
Pyridostigmine
Rivastigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine 
Physostigmine
Organophosphates
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6
Q

Name the indirect acting irreversible cholinomimetics (irreversible)

A

Organophosphates (e.g., Methioprine)

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7
Q

Name the indirect acting reversible cholinomimetics

A 
Edrophonium
Physostigmine
Rivastigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine
Pyridostigmine
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8
Q

Name the indirect acting quaternary cholinomimetics

A

Edrophonium
Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine

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9
Q

Name the indirect acting tertiary cholinimimetics

A

Physostigmine

Rivastigmine

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10
Q

What is another name for muscarinic antagonists?

A

Parasympatholytics

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11
Q

Name the muscarinic antagonists

A 
Atropine
Scopolamine
Homatropine
Benztropine
Ipratropium
Tiatropium
Methylalatropine
Procyclidin
Biperidin
Tropicamide
Pirenzepine
Tolterodine
Oxybutynin 
Solifenacine
Darifenacine
Propantheline
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12
Q

Name the tertiary tropeins muscarinic antagonists

A

Atropine
Scopolamine
Homatropine
Benztropine

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13
Q

Name the quarternary tropeins muscarinic antagonists

A

Ipratropium
Tiatropium
Methylalatropine

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14
Q

Name the synthetic muscarinic antagonists with tertiary amines

A 
Procyclidin
Biperidin
Tropicamide
Pirenzepine
Tolterodine
Oxybutynin 
Solifenacine
Darifenacine
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15
Q

Name the synthetic muscarinic antagonists with quaternary amines

A

Propantheline

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16
Q

What are the first line agents for TB?

A 
Rifampin
Isoniazide
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
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17
Q

What are the 2nd line agents for TB?

A 
Ethionamide
Cycloserine
Paraaminosalicyclic acid (PAS)
Kanamycin
Amikacin
Capreomycin
Fluroquinolones
Rifabutin
Linezolid
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18
Q

What is the treatment and prophylaxis of MAC in AIDS patients with a CD4+ < 50?

A

Macrolide (azithro or erythromycin)
Ethambutol
Rufabutin

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19
Q

What is the treatment for leprosy?

A

Dapsone
Rifampin
Clofazamine

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20
Q

Other than leprosy, what other clinical uses are there for Dapsone?

A

Prevention of pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasma in immunosuppressed patients.
Acne
IgA vasculitis
Dermatitis Herpetiformis

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21
Q

Name the metabolic modulator used in the treatment of IHD

A

Trimetazidine

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22
Q

Name the nitrates

A

Nitroglycerine
Isosorbide mononitrate
Isosorbide denitrate

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23
Q

Name the heart rate controllers used in IHD

A

Ivabradine

Ranolazine

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24
Q

What are the 3 classes of CCB?

A

Class 1 - Phenylalkilamines
Class 2 - Benzothiazepines
Class 3 - dihydropyridines

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25
Name the class 1 CCB
Gallopamil | Verapamil
26
Name the class 2 CCB
Diltiazam
27
Name the class 3 CCB
``` Nifedipine Nicardipine Nimodipine Nitrendipine Nisoldipine Felodipine Isradipine Amlodipine Lacidipine Lercanidipine Manidipine ```
28
Name the short acting class 3 CCB
Nifedipine Nicardipine Nimodipine
29
Name the intermediate acting class 3 CCB
Nitrendipine Nisoldipine Felodipine Isradipine
30
Name the long acting class 3 CCB
Amlodipine Lacidipine Lercanidipine Manidipine
31
Name the drugs acting on the imidazoline receptors
Moxonidine | Rilmenidine
32
Name the alpha 2 agonists
``` Clonidine Methyl-dopa Guaficine Guanabenz Tizanidine ```
33
Name the alpha 1 agonists
Phenylephrine Methoxamine Midodrine
34
Name the releasers
``` Amphetamine Tyramine Ephedrine Norpseudoephedrine Modanifil Methylfenidate Dexmethylfenidate ```
35
Name the reuptake inhibitors
Cocaine TCA SNRI/SSRI/NDRI
36
Name the non selective irreversible MAO inhibitors
Phenelzine | Tranylcypromine
37
Name the irreversible MAO-B inhibitors
Selegiline
38
Name the reversible MAO-A inhibitors
Moclobemide
39
Name the non-selective alpha receptor antagonists
Phenoxybenzamine Phentolamine Tolazoline
40
Name the selective alpha 1 receptor antagonists
``` Prazosin Doxazosin Terazosin Alfusosin Tamulosin Urapidil Labetalol Carvedilol ```
41
Name the selective alpha 2 receptor antagonists
Yohimbine | Mirtazapine
42
Name the beta blockers
``` Atenalol Acebutolol Bisprolol Betaxolol Celiprolol Esmolol Metoprolol Nebivolol Butoxamine Carvedilol Labetalol Carteolol Nadolol Penbutol Pindolol Propanalol Sotalol Timalol ```
43
Name the cardioselective (B1 selective) beta blockers
``` Atenalol Acebutolol Bisprolol Betaxolol Celiprolol Esmolol Metoprolol Nebivolol ```
44
Name the beta-2 selective beta blockers
Butoxamine
45
Name the beta blockers which also work on alpha receptors
Labetalol | Carvedilol
46
Name the non selective beta blockers
``` Carteolol Nadolol Penbutol Pindolol Propanalol Sotalol Timalol ```
47
Name the anti-pseudomonal penicillins
Ticarcillin | Piperacillin
48
Name the aminopenicillins
Ampicillin | Amoxicillin
49
Name the anti-staphylococcal penicillins
``` Methicillin Nafcillin Oxacillin Cloxacillin Dicloxacillin Flucloxacillin ```
50
Name the basic penicillin drugs
Penicillin G Penicillin V Penamecillin
51
Name the 5th generation cephalosporins
Ceftaroline
52
Name the 4th generation cephalosporins
Cefepime | Ceftolozon (+tazobactam)
53
Name the 3rd generation cephalosporins
Ceftazadine Ceftriaxone Cefotaxime Cefixime
54
Name the 2nd generation cephalosporins
Cefotetan Cefuroxime Cefoxitin Cefaclor
55
Name the 1st generation cephalosporins
Cefazolin | Cephalexin
56
Name all of the carbapenems
Ertapenem Imipenem Meropenem Doripenem
57
Name the 1st generation carbapenems
Ertapenem
58
Name the 2nd generation carbapenems
Imipenem Meropenem Doripenem
59
Name the monobactams
Aztreonam
60
Name the beta-lactamase inhibitors
Clavulanic acid Sulbactam Tazobactam
61
Name the macho antagonists used in asthma and COPD
Atropine Ipratropium Tiotropium
62
Name the xanthine that is used in COPD and asthma
Theophylline
63
Name the LABA
``` Salmeterol Formoterol Clenbuterol Bambuterol Indacaterol, olodaterol, vilanterol ```
64
Name the SABA
Albuterol Levalbuterol Terbutaline Fenoterol
65
Name the IV/oral corticosteroids used in asthma and COPD
Methylprednisolone Prednisone Prednisolone
66
Name the inhaled corticosteroids used in asthma and COPD
Beclamethasone Budesonide Fluticasone
67
Name the 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor
Zileuton
68
Name the CystLT1 antagonists
Zafirlukast | Montelukast
69
Name the anti-IgE monoclonal antibody
Omalizumab
70
Name the drug that inhibits mast cell degranulation
Cromolyn
71
Name the anti-IL5 monoclonal antibody
Reslizumab
72
Name the centrally acting antitussive drugs
``` Codeine Dihydrocodeine Narcotine Ethylmorphine Dextromethorphan ```
73
Name the peripherally acting antitussive drugs
Prenoxdiazine Levodopropizine Local anaesthetics e.g., lidocaine
74
Name the secretolytics
``` Guajacol Guaifenesin Essential oils (e.g., peppermint oil) Iodine Salts Ammonium Chloride ```
75
Name the mucolytics
Bromhexine Acetylcysteine Dornase alpha
76
Name the short acting tetracyclins
Tetracycline | Oxytetracycline
77
Name the long acting tetracyclins
Lymecycline Minocyline Doxycycline
78
Name the glycylcyclins
Tigecycline
79
Name all of the aminoglycosides
``` Streptomycin Neomycin Amikacin Kanamycin Spectinomycin Gegntamicin Tobramycin Netilmicin ```
80
Which aminoglycosides are 2nd line agents for the treatment of TB?
Amikain | Kanamycin
81
Name the ketolides
Telithromycin
82
Name the macroclides
``` Erythromycin Roxithromycin Clarithromycin Azithromycin Spiramycin ```
83
Name the anti fungal drugs used for systemic infections
Amphotericin B | Liposomal Amphotericin B
84
Name the anti-fungal antimetabolites
5-flucytosine
85
Name the imidazoles
Clotrimazole | Ketoconazole
86
Name the 1st generation triazoles
Fluconazole | itraconazole
87
Name the 2nd generation triazoles
Voriconazole
88
Name the echinocandins
Capsofungin Micafungin Anidulafungin
89
Name the systemic anti fungal drugs for mucocutaneous infections
Terbinafine | Griseofulvin
90
Name the local anti fungal drug (polyene macrolide antibiotic)
Nystatin
91
Name the lincosamide antibiotic
Clindamycin
92
Name the antibiotics that work by inhibiting the 50s ribosomal subunit
Clindamycin Macrolides Cloramphenicol
93
Name streptogramin A and B
A: Quinupristin B: Dalfopristin
94
Name the oxazolidinone
Linezolid
95
Name the nitroimidazoles
Metronidazole | Tinidazole
96
Name the macrocyclic
Findaxomycine
97
Name the Rifamicins
Rifaximin
98
Name the 1st generation fluoroquinolones
Norfloxacin
99
Name the 2nd generation fluoroquinolones
Pefloxacin Ofloxacin Ciprofloxacin
100
Name the 3rd generation fluoroquinolones
Levofloxacin
101
Name the 4th generation fluoroquinolones
Moxifloxacin
102
Name the non-fluorinated quinolines
Nalidixic acid
103
Name the centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants (spasmolytics)
Baclofen Diazepam Tizanidine Tolperisone
104
Name the drugs used for acute muscle spasm (unknown mechanism)
Mephenesin | Guaiphenesin
105
Name the non-depolarising (competitive) skeletal muscle relaxants
``` D-tubocurarine Mivacurium Cistracurium Atracurium Doxacurium Vecuronium Rocuronium Pancuronium Pipecuronium ```
106
Name the non-depolarising (competitive) skeletal muscle relaxants (ISOQUINOLINES)
``` D-tubocurarine Mivacurium Cistracurium Atracurium Doxacurium ```
107
Name the non-depolarising (competitive) skeletal muscle relaxants (STEROIDS)
Vecuronium Rocuronium Pancuronium Pipecuronium
108
What AchEI is used to terminate the effect of the non depolarising competitive skeletal muscle relaxants
Neostigmine (distigmine) | Coadministered with Atropine in order to antagonise their PSY effect
109
Name the depolarising non-competitive skeletal muscle relaxant
Succinylcholine
110
Name the drugs used for heart failure
Digoxin | Digitoxin
111
Name the drug used in heart failure which inhibits PDE
Milrinone
112
Name the class Ia antiarrythmics
Procainamide Qunidine Disopyramide
113
Name the class Ib antiarrythmics
Phenytoin Lidocaine Mexilitine
114
Name the class Ic antiarrythmics
Propafenone | Flecainide
115
Name the class II antiarrythmics
Metoprolol Propanolol Esmolol Sotalol
116
Name the class III antiarrythmics
Amiodarone Sotalol Dofetilide Ibutilide
117
Name the class IV antiarythmics
Verapamil | Diltiazam
118
Name the 'other' antiarrythmics
Adenosine Mg sulfate Digoxin
119
Name all of the K+ sparing diuretics
``` Spirinolactone Eplerenone Triamterene Amiloride Li salts Demeclocycline Conivaptan Tolvaptan ```
120
Name the ADH antagonists
Li+ salts Demeclocycline Conivaptan Tolvaptan
121
Name the inhibitors of ENaC
Amiloride | Triamterene
122
Name the aldosterone inhibitors
Spirinolactone | Eplerenone
123
Name the osmotic diuretics
Mannitol Glycerol Isosorbide Urea
124
Name the natural opiates
Morphine | Codeine
125
Name the thienopyridines
``` Ticlopidine Clopidogrel Prasugrel Ticagrelor Cangrelor ```
126
Name the PAR1 receptor antagonist
Vorapaxar
127
Name the Gp IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists
Abciximab Tirofiban Eptifibatide
128
Name the PDE inhibitors used for anti-platelet purposes
Cilostazol | Dipyridamole
129
Name the cytotoxic immunosuppressive drugs
``` Methotrexate Azathioprine Leflunomide Cyclophosphamide Myclophenolate Mofetil Cyclosporine A Tacrolimus ```
130
Name the drugs which inhibit signalling of cell proliferation
Sirolimus Everolimus Temsirolimus
131
The monoclonal recombinant murine Ab against CD3 coreceptor of TCR
Muromonab-CD3
132
Monoclonal antibody against IL-2 receptor
Basiliximab | Daclizumab
133
Monoclonal antibody against CD20 of B cells
Rituximab | Ocrelizumab
134
Monoclonal antibody against CD52
Alemtuzumab
135
Where is CD52 present?
B, T, NK cells and macrophages
136
Name the antibodies against TNFa
``` Adalimumamb Certolizumab peg Etanercept Golimumab Infliximab ```
137
IL-1 receptor antagonist
Anakinra
138
Anti-IL1beta antibody
Canakinumab | Rilonacept
139
Anti-IL-5 antibody
Reslizumab
140
Anti-IL-6 receptor antibody
Tocilizumab | Sarilumab
141
Anti-IL-17 antibody
Secukinumab Izekizumab Brodalumab
142
Anti-IL 12/23 antibody
Ustekinumab
143
Anti-IL-23 Antibody
Guselkumab
144
Anti-B lymphocyte stimulator protein antibody
Belimumab
145
Anti-alpha-4 integrin antibody
Natalizumab
146
Anti-alpha4b7 integrin antibody
Vedolizumab
147
Antibody against FCepsilon of IgE
Omalizumab
148
Antibody against complement factor 5
Eculizumab
149
CTLA-4/Fc fusion protein
Abatacept
150
Name the semisynthetic compounds with mild/moderate analgesic effect (phenantrenes)
Ethylmorphine Dihydrocodeine Hydrocodone
151
Name the semisynthetic compounds with strong analgesic effect (phenantrenes)
Heroin Hydromorphone Oxymorphone Oxycodone
152
Name the mixed mu antagonists/ kappa agonist compounds
Nalpuphine
153
Name the mixed mu partial agonist/kappa antagonist
Buprenorphine
154
Name the mu antagonists
Naloxone | Naltrexone
155
Name the synthetic compounds (diphenylheptans)
Methadone
156
Name the synthetic compounds (Phenylpiperdines)
``` Meperidine Fentanyl Alfentanil Sulfentanil Remifentanil Diphenoxylate Loperamide ```
157
Name the mixed mu partial agonists / Kappa agonist
Butorphanol | Pentazocine
158
Name the 'other' synthetic analgesics
Tramadol | Tapentadol
159
Name the natural opiates
Morphine | Codeine
160
Name the first generation antihistamines
``` Dimetindene Diphenhydramine Chloropyramine Promethazine Cyproheptadine ```
161
Name the systemic second generation anti histamines
``` Cetirizine Levocetirizine Loratidine Deloratidine Fexofenadine ```
162
Name the topical second generation anti-histimines
``` Azelastin Na-chromoglycate Lodoxamide Ketotifen Emedastine Olopatadine ```
163
Name the short acting synthetic systemic glucocorticoids
Hydrocortisone Cortisone Fludrocortisone
164
Name the intermediate acting synthetic systemic glucocorticoids
Prednisone Prednisolone Methylprednisolone Triamcinolone
165
Name the long acting synthetic systemic glucocorticoids
Betamethasone | Dexamethasone
166
Name the mineralcorticoids
Aldosterone Deoxycorticosterone Fludrocortisone
167
Name the topically applied (aerosol) glucocorticoids used in bronchial asthma
``` Beclomethasone Fluticasone Mometasone Budesonide Flunisolide ```
168
Name the topically applied (nasal spray) glucocorticoids used in allergic rhinitis
Beclamethasone Triamcinalone Budesonide Flunisolide
169
Name the topically applied (ointments) glucocorticoids used in dermatology
Triamcinolone
170
Name the fibrinolytic agents
``` Streptokinase Anistreplase Staphylokinase Urokinase tPA Alteplase Reteplase Tenecteplase ```
171
Name the heparins
UFH LMWH Fondaparinux Danaparoid
172
Name the direct thrombin inhibitors
Hirudin Bivalirudin Argatroban Dabigatran
173
Name the direct factor Xa inhibitors
Rivaroxaban Apixaban Edoxaban
174
Name the antifolate chemotherapeutic drugs (antimetabolites)
Methotrexate Raltitrexed Pemetrexed
175
Name the antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drugs that are pyrimidine analogues
``` 5-flurouracil Tegafur Capecitabine Trifluridine Tipiracil ```
176
Name the antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drugs that are purine analogues
6-Mercaptopurine 6-Thioguanine Fludrabine Nelarabine
177
Name the antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drugs that are deoxycytidine analogues
Cytarabine Gemcitabine Cladribine
178
Name the nitrogen mustard derivatives used in chemotherapy
Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Melphalan Thiotepa
179
Name the nitrosureas used in chemotherapy
Carmustine | Lomustine
180
Name the platinum analogs/derivatives used in chemotherapy
Cisplatin Carboplatin Oxaliplatin
181
Name the antibiotics that are also used as chemotherapeutic agents
Bleomycin Mitomycin Actinomycin D
182
Name the mTOR inhibitors
Everolimus | Temsirolimus
183
Name the TK inhibitors that inhibit ABL, C-KIT and PDGFR
``` Imatinib Dasatinib Nilotinib Dasatinib Ponatinib ```
184
Name the TK inhibitors that inhibit HER2 and EGFR (dual) antagonists
Lapatinib
185
Name the selective EGFR antagonists
Erlotinib Gefitinib Afatinib
186
Name the Bruton's tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Ibrutinib
187
Name the EGFR, PDGFR and VEGFR antagonists
Sunitinib Sorafenib Pazopanib
188
Name the selective VEGFR 1, 2 and 3 antagonists
Axitinib
189
Name the VEGFR and FGFR inhibitors
Lenvantinib | Vandetanib
190
Name the multiple tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Regorafenib
191
Name the BRAF kinase inhibitor
Vemurafenib | Dabrafenib
192
Name the MAP kinase inhibitor
Trametinib
193
Name the ALK inhibitor (anapaestic lymphoma kinase)
Crizotinib | Certinib
194
Name the JAK1/JAK2 inhibitors
Ruxolitinib
195
Name the PI3 kinase inhibitors
Idelalisib
196
Name the RET kinase inhibitors
Cobazantinib | Vandetanib
197
Name the inhibitors of androgen signal transduction, androgen nuclear translocation and androgen receptor binding
Enzylutamid
198
Name the proteasome inhibitors
Bortezomib Carfilzomib Ixazomib
199
Name the BCL-2 protein inhibitor
Venetoclax
200
Name the HDAC inhibitors (histone deacetylase inhibitors)
Panobinostat | Vorinostat
201
Name the hedgehog inhibitors
Vismodegib
202
Name the monoclonal antibody against CD20 of B cells
Rituximab | Ofatumumab
203
Name the anti-EGFR mAb
Cetuximab | Panitumumab
204
Name the anti-CD52 mAb on B and T lymphocytes
Alemtuzumab
205
name the anti-HER2 (EGFR2) mAb
Trastuzumab | Pertuzumab
206
Name the anti-CD38 mAb
Daratumumab
207
Name the enzyme that depletes serum asparagine
L-Asparaginase
208
Name the anti-IL2 mAb
Aldesleukin
209
Name the monoclonal antibody which binds CTLA-4
Ipilimumab
210
Name the monoclonal antibody which binds PD-1
Pembrolizumab
211
Name the human IgG4 mab which binds PD-1
Nivolumab
212
Name the anti-VEGF-A antibody
Bevacizumab
213
Name the anti-VEGR-2 antibody
Ramucirumab
214
Name the fusion protein binding VEGF A and B as a fake receptor
Aflibercept
215
Name the ultra short acting insulin preparations
Lispro Aspart Glulisine
216
Name the short acting insulin analogue
Regular human insulin
217
Name the intermediate acting insulin
NPH
218
Name the ultra long acting insulins
Degludec Determir Glargine
219
Name the GLP1 agonists
``` Exenatide Lixisenatide Liraglutide Albiglutide Dulaglutide ```
220
Name the amylin analogue
Pramlinitide
221
Name the 1st generation sulfonylureas
Tolbutamide Tolazamide Chlorpropamide
222
Name the 2nd generation sulfonylureas
Glyburide Gliclazide Glipizide Glimepiride
223
Name the meglitinides
Repaglinide | Nateglinide
224
Name the biguanides
Metformin
225
Name the thiazolidenediones
Pioglitazone | Rosiglitazone
226
Name the DPP-4 inhibitors
``` Alogliptin Linagliptin Sitagliptin Vildagliptin Saxagliptin ```
227
Name the alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Acarbose | Miglitol
228
Name the SGLT-2 inhibitors
Dapagliflozin | Canagliflozin
229
Name the inhaled anaesthetics
``` Halothane Enflurane Isoflurane Desflurane Sevoflurane Nitrous Oxide ```
230
Name the BARBITURATES used as IV anaesthetics
Thiopental | Methohexital
231
Name the benzodiazepines used in IV anaesthesia
Midazolam Lorazepam Diazepam
232
Name the synthetic opioids used in IV anaesthesia
Fentanyl Alfentanil Remifentanil Sulfentanil
233
Name the alpha 2 agonists used in IV anasthesia
Clonidine
234
Name the main IV anaesthetics
Etomidate Propofol Ketamine
235
Name the 1st generation antipsychotics
``` Fluphenazine Chlorpromazine Thiothixene Flupenthixol Haloperidol Droperidol ```
236
Name the 2nd generation antipsychotics
``` Clozapine Olanzapine Quetiapine Risperidone Paliperidone Ziprasidone Lurasidone Sertindole Iloperidone Aripiprazole Cariprazine Sulpiride Tiapride Amisulpiride ```
237
Name the TCAs
``` Trimipramine Clomipramine Desipramine Imipramine Amitryptyline Amitryptyline ```
238
Name the MAO inhibitors
Phenelezine Tranylcypromine Selegiline Moclobemide
239
Name the 5-HT3 receptor antagonists
Ondansetron Granisetron Dolasetron Palonosetron
240
Name the D2 receptor antagonists
``` Chlorpromaize Prochlorperazine Promethazine Thiethylperazine Haloperidol Droperidol Metoclopramide Domperidone ```
241
Name the cannabinoids
Dronabinol | Nabilone
242
Name the colloidal laxatives
``` Methylcellulose Gummi arabicum Psyllium Tragacantha Dried Fruits ```
243
Name the osmotic laxatives
``` Mg-Sulfate Na-sulfate Na-phosphate Lactulose Sorbitol Mannitol Glycerin ```
244
Name the laxative softening the stool (lubricants)
Paraffin oil | Docusate
245
Name the opioid antagonists used in constipation
Methylnaltrexone | Alvimopan
246
Name the laxatives that irritate/stimulate the intestinal wall
``` Emodins Castor oil Phenolphtalein Bisacodyl Na-picosulphate ```
247
Name the chloride channel activators
Lubiprostone | Linaclotide
248
Name the opioid agents that decreased intestinal motility
Diphenoxylate Loperamide Atropine
249
Name the antidiarrheal agents (adsorbing and astringent materials)
Activated charcoal Tannic acid Bolus alba Bismuth subgallate
250
Name the enkephalinase inhibitors
Racekadotril
251
Name the hepatoprotective agents
Sylmarine | Silibiline
252
Name the agents decreasing the ammonia level
Rifaximin Lactulose Neomycin
253
Name the SSRIs
``` Sertraline Fluoxetine Citalopram Fluvoxamine Paroxetine ```
254
Name the SSNRIs
Venlafaxin Desvenlafaxin Duloxetine Milnaciprine
255
Name the SNRIs
Reboxetine | Atomoxetine
256
What is the spectrum of action anti staph penicillins
Narrow spectrum, beta lactamase resistant
257
What is the spectrum of action of aminopenicillins
Broad spectrum, beta lactamase sensitive
258
Which penicillin penetrates the billiary tract?
Ampicillin
259
How can we categorise the anti-psudomonnal penicillins
Carboxypenicillins - ticeracillin (Pseudomonnas only) | Ureidopenicllins - piperacillin (Pseudomonnas and Kleibsiella)
260
What are the indications for anti-pseudomonnal penicillins
Sever pneumonia | Complicated urinary tract, intra-abdominal and skin and soft tissue infections
261
Penicillins are synergistic with which antibiotics
Aminoglycosides: increased activity against pneumococcus and enterococcus
262
How are penicillins eliminated
Kidney; tubular elimination. this is blocked by probenicid
263
What is the spectrum of action of the basic penicillins
narrow spectrum, beta lactamase sensitive
264
Which cephalosporin is eliminated in the bile?
Ceftriaxone
265
How are cefuroxime, cefotetan and cefoxitin administered?
Parenterally
266
Which second generation cephalosporin enters the CNS
Cefuroxime
267
Name the parenteral 3rd generation cephalosporins
Ceftriaxone Ceftazadine Cefotaxime
268
Name the oral 3rd generation cephalosporins
Cefixime
269
Name the oral 2nd generation cephalosporin
Cefaclor
270
What drugs are in the 1st and 2nd subtype of 3rd generation cephalosporins
1st stubtype: cefotaxime, ceftriaxone | 2ns subtype: ceftazadine
271
How are carbapenems administered?
Only parenterally
272
What is the half life of Ertapenem and Imipenem?
Ertapenem - long: 1 day | Imipenem - short: 3/4 times daily
273
Which carbapenem works against E. fecalis?
Imipenem
274
How is aztreonam administered?
Parenteral
275
Name the oral absorbable sulphonamides
Sulfamethoxazole Sulfadiazine Sulfadoxine
276
Name the oral non-absorbable sulphonamides
Sulfasalazine
277
Name the topical sulfonamides
Sulfacetamine Silver sulfadiazine Sulfafadimidine
278
Name the polymyxins
Polymyxin B and E | Polymyxin E = Colistin
279
How is tigecycline eliminated?
Biliary tract
280
What antibiotic are aminoglycosdies synergistic with and why?
B lactamases (or vancomycin) as they penetrate the cell wall of gram negative aerobes
281
Which aminoglycosides are 2nd line agents for TB
Amikacin Streptomycin Kanamycin
282
Name the quinolones (non-fluronated)
Nalidixic acid
283
Name the macrocyclics
Fidaxomycine
284
Name the rifamicins
Rifampin Rifabutin Rifaximin
285
Name the NRTI that causes nephrotoxicity
Tenofovir
286
Name the NRTI (Thymidine analogs)
Zidovudine | Stavudine
287
Name the NRTI (Cytidine analogs)
Emtricitabine | Lamivudine
288
Name the NTRI (Purine analogs)
Abcavir | Tenofovir
289
Name the 1st generation NNRTI
Nevirapin Efavirenz Delavirdine
290
Name the 2nd generation NNRTI
Etravirin | Rilpivirin
291
Name the protease inhibitors
``` Ritonavir Tipranavir Lopinavir Darunavir Atazanavir Indinavir ```
292
Name the entry inhibitor
Maraviroc
293
Name the fusion inhibitors
Enfuvirtide Sifuvirtide Ibalizumab
294
Name the pg41 inhibitor
Enfuvirtide | Sifuvirtide
295
Name the CCR5 inhibitor
Maraviroc
296
Name the integrase inhibitors
Raltegravir Elvitegravir Dolutegravir
297
Name the blood schizonticides
``` Chloroquine Quinine Quinidine Mefloquine Halofantrine Luemefantrine Artemisinin ```
298
Name the tissue schizonticides
Primaquine
299
What drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase thymidylate synthase
Proguanil
300
What does proguanil inhibit
Dihydroreductase thymidylate synthase
301
Which folate synthesis inhibitors are used in the treatment of malaria
Pyrimethamine/Sulfadiazine | Proguanil
302
Name the drugs used in E. histolytica infections
Idoquinol Diloxanid Furoat Nitroimidazoles (metronidazole, tinidazole) Paromycin
303
What is the mechanism of action of idoquinol and diloxanid furoat? What are the SEs?
Unknown | GI related
304
What is the 1st line therapy for giardiasis?
Metronidazole | Nitazoxanid
305
What is the mechaism of action of Nitazoxanid?
Unclear mechanism
306
What is the 2nd line therapy for giardiasis?
Paromycin Nitrofuran Quinacrin
307
What are the SEs of nitroguran and quinacrin? (2nd line agents for Giardiasis)
GI side effects
308
What is the therapy of throchomonas vaginalis?
Metronidazole, tinidazole
309
What is the 1st line treatment for toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?
Spiramycin
310
What is the 1st line treatment for toxoplasmosis?
Trimethaprim/Sulfamethoxazole | Pyrimethamine/Clindamycin/Folinic acid
311
What are the alternative treatments for toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine/Sulfadiazine/Folinic acid
312
What is the first line treatment for pneumocystis jirovecii?
Trimethaprim/Sulfamethoxazole
313
What are the alternative drugs used in PJP infection?
Pentamidine or clindamycin + Primaquine or atovaquone
314
What are the drugs used in visceral leishmaniasis?
Amphtericin B Miltefosine Pentamidine
315
What are the drugs used in cutaneous leishmaniasis?
Pentamidine | Ketoconazole
316
What are the drugs used in mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?
Sodium stibogluconate | Meglumin antimoniat
317
What are the african trypanosomas?
T. Brucei T. bruce gambiense T. bruce rhodesiense
318
What are the american trypanosomas?
T. cruzi
319
What does T. brucei cause?
Sleeping sickness
320
What does T. Cruzi cause?
Chagas disease
321
What are the drugs used in the treatment of african trypanosomiasis?
Eflornithine Melarsoprol Pentamidine Suramin
322
What is Eflornithine mechanism of action?
Ornithine decarboxylase inhibitor
323
What are the drugs used in the treatment of American trypanosomas infections?
Nifurtimox | Benznidazole
324
What is the mechanism of action of nifurtimox
Generation of IC free radicals
325
What is the mechanism of action of benznidazole?
inhibits protein synthesis and RNA synthesis
326
Name the benzimidazoles (anti-helminthic drugs)
Albendazole Mebendazole Tiabendazole
327
What is the mechanism of action of benzimidazoles?
they inhibit the polymerization of microtubules causing paralysis
328
What is the mechanism of action of ivermectin?
Enhances GABA effect resulting in paralysis
329
What is the mechanism of action of Levamisol?
Causes depolarising neuromuscular blockade resulting in paralysis
330
What is the mechanism of action of pyrantel pamoate?
Release of Ach, AChE inhibition, depolarization blockage, spastic paralysis
331
What is the mechanism of action of praziquantel?
Increase in Ca2+ permeability leading to spastic paralysis
332
What is the mechanism of action of niclosamide?
inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
333
What is the mechanism of action of bithionol?
Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation
334
Name the NRTIs used in the treatment of HBV?
Lamivudine Tenofovir Emtricitabine
335
Name the AMP analog used in the treatment of HBV
Adefovir
336
What is Adefovir?
AMP analogue used in the treatment of HBV
337
What is Entecavir?
Guanosine analogue
338
Name the guanosine analogue used in the treatment of HBV?
Entecavir
339
What is Telbivudine?
Thymidine analog
340
Name the Thymidine analogue used in the treatment of HBV
Telbivudine
341
What is the name of the guanosine analogue used in HCV treatment?
Ribavirin
342
What is the mechanism of action of Ribavirin?
Guanosine analogue
343
What is the NS5B polymerase inhibitor?
Sofosbuvir
344
What is the non-nucleoside NS5B polymerase inhibitor?
Dasabuvir
345
Name the protease inhibitor (NS3/4A) used in HCV treatment?
Simeprevir Boceprevir Paritaprevir Grazoprevir
346
Name the NS5A transcription complex inhibitors used in HCV treatment?
``` Daclatasvir Ledipasvir Ombitasvir Elbasvir Velpatasvir Pibrentasvir ```
347
What was the original treatment of HCV?
Ribavirin and peglyated IFN-alpha
348
Name the glycopeptide antibiotics
Vancomycin Teicoplanin Dalbavancin Telavancin
349
Name the urinary antiseptics
Phosphomycin | Nitrofuran
350
Name the agents used for HSV1, HSV2 and VZV
Acyclovir Valcyclovir Penciclovir Famciclovir
351
Name the agents used for CMV
Ganciclovir Valganciclovir Foscarnet Cidofovir
352
Name the agents used for RSV
Ribavirin | Palivizumab
353
Name the anti-influenza agents
Zanamivir Oseltamivir Amantadine
354
Name the salicylates (NSAIDs with analgesic and marked anti-inflammatory effect)
``` Acetylsalicyclic acid Sodium salicylate Magnesium salicylate Sodium thiosalicylate Diflunisal Salicyclic acid Methyl salicylate ```
355
Name the acetic acid derivatives (NSAIDs with analgesic and marked anti-inflammatory effect)
``` Indomethacin Diclofenac Sulindac Tolmetin Bromfenac ```
356
Name the Enol acids (Oxicams)
Piroxicam Tenoxicam Lornoxicam Meloxicam
357
Name the Pyrazolones
Phenylbutazone Aminophenazone Metamizole
358
Name the propionic acids (NSAIDs with analgesic and mild/moderate anti-inflammatory effects)
``` Ibuprofen Naproxen Fenoprofen Ketoprofen Ketorolac tromethamine Flurbiprofen Oxaprozin ```
359
Name the Fenamates
Mefanamic acid Fludenamic acid Niflumic acid
360
Name the 'other' compounds used in analgesia
Nabumetone | Nimesulide
361
Name the drugs with analgesic effect and no anti-inflammatory effects
Paracetamol (acetaminophen) Celecoxib Etoricoxib Parecoxib
362
Name the selective COX2 inhibitors (Coxims)
Celecoxib Etoricoxib Parecoxib
363
Name the drugs used in acute gout attacks
``` Cochicine Oral steroids (Prednisone) Indomethacine ```
364
What does ASA do at high doses
Prevents the reabsorption of Uric Acid
365
What does ASA do at low doses
Prevents the excretion of Uric acid
366
Name the agents used in chronic gout treatment
``` Allopurinol Febuxostat Pegloticase Rasburicase Probenecid Sulfinpyrazone Lesinurad ```
367
Name the Xanthine Oxidase non-competitive inhibitors
Allopurinol | Febuxostate
368
Name the biological agents used in chronic gout treatment that inactivate UA by converting it to the more hydrophilic/water soluble, allantoin
Pegloticase | Rasburicase
369
Name the URAT1 and OAT4 inhibitor
Lesinurad
370
Name the 1st generation retinoids
Tretinoin Isotretinoin Alitretinoin
371
Name the 2nd generation retinoids
Acitretin
372
Name the 3rd generation retinoids
Bexarotene Adaplene Tazarotene
373
Name the calcineurin inhibitors (inhibitors of cytokine gene expression)
Cyclosporine A | Tacrolimus
374
Name the inhibitors of cell proliferation
Sirolimus Everolimus Temsirolimus
375
Name the JAK kinase inhibitors
Tofacitinib | Baricitinib
376
Name the 5-ASA = mesalazazine derivatives
Sulphasalazine Olsalazine Balsalazide
377
Which drug increases the pH of lysosomes
Chloroquine hydroxycholoroquine
378
Name the S1PR receptor modulator
Fingolimod
379
Name the drug which activates NrF2 (Nuclear factor like 2) and reduces oxidative stress
Dimethyl-fumarate
380
Which drug is administered with cisplatin to prevent nephrotoxicity?
Amifostine
381
What is the mechanism of action of Amifostine?
It deactivates the free radicals in the kidneys responsible for cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity
382
Name the 2nd generation mixed D2 antagonists/5-HT antagonists that are Tricyclic compounds
Clozapines Olanzapine Quetiapine
383
Name the 2nd generation mixed D2 antagonists/5-HT antagonists that are heterocyclic compounds
``` Risperidone Paliperidone Ziprasidone Lurasidone Sertindole Iloperidone ```
384
Name the mixed 2nd generation D2 partial agonists/ 5-HT2A inverse agonist
Aripiprazole
385
Name the mixed 2nd generation D3/D2 partial agonists
Cariprazine
386
Name the selective 2nd generation D2/D3 antagonist
Sulpiride Tiapride Amisulpiride
387
Name the barbiturates used in IV anaesthesia
Thiopental | Methohexital
388
Name the benzodiazepines used in IV anaesthesia
Midazolam Lorazepam Diazepam
389
Name the synthetic opioids used in IV anaesthesia
Fentanyl Alfentanil Sulfentanil Remifentanil
390
Name the alpha 2 agonist used in IV anaesthesia
Clonidine
391
Name the IV anasthetics with short recovery time
Propofol Ketamine Etomidate
392
Name the try-cyclic antidepressants
``` Trimipramine Clomipramine Desipramine Imipramine Amitriptyline Nortryptiline ```
393
Name the tretracyclic antidepressants
Maprotiline | Amoxapine
394
Name the unicyclic antidepressants
Bupropion
395
What are the SSRI (Serotonin Flies into Cleft to Feel Pleasure)
``` Sertraline Fluoxetine Citalopram Fluvoxamine Paroxetine ```
396
Name the SSNRIs
Venlafaxin Desvenlafaxin Duloxetine Milnaciprine
397
Name the SNRIs
Reboxetine | Atomoxetine
398
Name the SRI + 5-HT2A receptor antagonist
Trazodone
399
Name the SRI + 5-HT1A partial agonist
Vilazodone
400
Name the SRI + 5-HT3A, 5-HT7 antagonist + 5-HT1A, 1B partial agonist
Vortioxetine
401
Name the NERI + 5-HT2,3 + alpha 2 receptor antagonist
Mirtazapine
402
Name the (melatonin) MT1 and MT2 agonist + 5-HT2C receptor antagonist
Agomelatine
403
Name the drug which enhances the 5-HT reuptake
Tianeptine
404
Name the 5-HT3 receptor antagonists used in antiemesis
Ondansetron Granisetron Dolasetron Palonosetron
405
Name the D2 receptor antagonists used in antiemesis
1. Phenothiazines: Chlorpromazine, Prochlorperazine, Promethazine, Thiethylperazine 2. Butyrophenones: Haloperidol, Droperidol 3. Metoclopramide 4. Domperidone
406
Name the corticosteroids used in antiemesis
Dexamethasone | Methylprednisolone
407
Name the NK1 receptor antagonists
Aprepitan | Fosaprepitan
408
Name the Cannabinoids used in antiemesis
Dronabinol | Nabilone
409
Name the H1 receptor antagonists used in vestibular vomiting prophylaxis
Diphenydramine Meclizine Promethazine
410
Name the antimuscarinic agents used in vestibular vomiting prophylaxis
Scopolamine
411
Name the benzodiazepines used before chemotherapy to induce and antiemetic effect
Lorazepam | Alprazolam
412
Name the laxatives that enhance the bulk of the stool (colloidal laxatives)
``` Methylcellulose Dried fruites Tragacantha Psyllium Gumma arabicum ```
413
Name the osmotic laxatives 1. Inorganic salts 2. non absorbing carbohydrates
1. Mg S, Na S, Na P | 2. Lactulose, sorbitol, glycerin, Mannitol
414
Name the laxatives which soften the stool (Lubricants)
Paraffin oil | Docusate
415
Name the laxatives which irritate/stimulate the intestinal wall
``` Natural compounds: 1. Emodins e.g., Senna, Aloe, Rhubarb 2. Castor oil Synthetic drugs: 1. Phenolphtalein, Bisacodul, Na-picosulphate ```
416
Name the opioid antagonists used constipation
Methylnaltrexone | Alvimopan
417
Name the chloride channel activators used in constipation
Lubiprostone | Linaclotide
418
Name the adsorbing and astringent antidiarrheal drugs
``` Adsorbing: Activated charcoal Tannic acid Bolus alba Astringent: Bismuth subgallate ```
419
Name the agents the mu receipt agonist decreasing motility in diarrhoea therapy
Diphenoxylate (can cause addiction at higher doses so give with atropine to prevent euphoric effects) Loperamide (is not addictive)
420
Name the parasympatholytics that decrease motility used in antidiarrheal therapy
Atropine
421
Name the enkephalinase inhibitors which are used in antidiarrheal therapy
Racekadotril
422
Name the 'other' antidiarrheal agents
Octreotide | Crofelemer
423
Name the drugs that decrease ammonia level
Rifaximin (eliminates the nitrogen producing bacteria in the intestine) Lactulose Neomycin
424
Name the hepatoprotective agents
Sylmarine | Silibiline
425
Name the primary bile acids
Cholic acid | Chenodeoxycholic acid
426
Name the secondary bile acids
Deoxycholic acid | Ursodeoxycholic acid
427
Name the anxiolytics (Benzodiazapines)
``` Oxazepam Clonazepam Alprazolam Lorazepam Diazepam Chlordiazepoxide ```
428
Name the hypnotics (Benzodiazepines)
``` Midazolam Triazolam Nitrazepam Temazepam Lorazepam Flunitrazepam ```
429
Name the central muscle relaxants (Benzodiazepines)
Diazepam | Tetrazepam
430
Name the acute and chronic anti epileptics (Benzodiazepines)
Acute: Lorazepam, Diazepam Chronic: Clonazepam
431
Name the benzodiazepine that is used for the induction of general anaesthesia
Midazolam
432
Name the benzodiazepine that is used as premedication before general anaesthesia
Diazepam
433
Name the BZ GABAa receptor antagonist
Flumazenil
434
Name the ultra short acting barbiturates
Thiopental Methohexital Hexobarbital
435
Name the medium and short acting barbiturates
Cyclobarbital | Amobarbital
436
Name the long acting barbiturates
Phenobarbitals
437
name the non-benzodiazepine hypnotics
Zolpidem Zaleplon Eszopiclone
438
Name the non-GABAergic hypnotics (MT1 and MT2 receptor agonists)
Ramelteon
439
Name the Orexin antagonist
Suvorexant
440
Name the drugs acting on voltage gated Na+ channels that are used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures (narrow spectrum)
``` Phenytoin Fosphenytoin Carbamazepine Oxcarbazepine Eslicarbazepine ```
441
Name the drug which induced GABA mediated hyperpolarization that is used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures (narrow spectrum)
Phenobarbital
442
Name the barbiturate that is used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures (Narrow spectrum)
Primidone
443
Name the selective irreversible GABA transaminase inhibitor used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures
Vigabatrin
444
Name the inhibitor of GABA uptake used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures
Tiagabine
445
Name drugs used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures that work by inhibiting voltage gated calcium channels
Gabapentin Pregabaline Felbamate
446
Name the prodrug that is converted to dopamine by DOPA decarboxylase
Levodopa
447
Name the COMT inhibitors
Tolcapone | Entacapone
448
Name the selective irreversible MAO-B inhibitors
Selegiline | Rasagiline
449
Name the D2 receptor agonists (Ergot derivatives)
Bromocroptine Pergolide Cabergoline
450
Name the D2 receptor agonists (Non-ergot derivatives)
Pramipexol Ropinirole Apomorphine Rotigotine
451
Name the antimuscarinic agents used in the treatment of parkinsonism
Benztropine Procyclidine Biperadine Amantadine
452
Name the reversible AChE inhibitors used in Alzheimer's disease
Donepezil Tacrine Rivastigmine Galantamine
453
Name the NMDA receptor blocker used in Alzheimers
Memantine
454
Name the vasodilators used in the treatment of Dementia
Piracetam Vinpocetine Nicergoline Pentoxyfylline
455
Name the calcium channel blockers used in dementia
Nimodipine
456
Name the phosphodiesterase inhibitors that are used in spasm of GI, bile ducts and uterus
Papaverine | Drotaverine
457
Name the parasympatholytics used in GI and uterine spasm
Atropine Homatropine methylbromide Butylscopolamine Otiliniumbromide
458
Name the calcium channel blockers used in GI and uterine spasm
Pinaverine | Alverine
459
Name the non-prostaglandin agents which contract the pregnant uterus
Oxytocin | Ergotamine
460
Name the prostaglandin agents which contract the uterus
``` Dinoprostone Misoprostol Misoprostol/mifepristone Sulprostone Dinoprost ```
461
Name the agents which relax the pregnant uterus
``` Atosiban Terbutaline Progesterone Dihydroprogesterone Indomethacin Nifedipine Mg sulfate ```
462
Name the 2ng generation atypical antipsychotics
``` Clozapine Olanzapine Quetiapine Risperidone Paliperidone Ziprasidone Lurasidone Sertindole Iloperidone Aripiprazole Cariprazine Sulpiride Tiapride Amisulpiride ```
463
Name the 1st generation anti psychotics
``` Fluphenazine Chlorpromazine Thiothixene Flupenthixol Haloperidol Droperidol ```
464
Name the H2 receptor antagonists used in peptic ulcers
Cimetidine Ranitidine Nizatidine Famotidine
465
Name the PPI
``` Omeprazol Rabeprazol Pantoprazol Esomeprazol Lansoprazol ```
466
Name the M1 receptor antagonists used in peptic ulcer disease
Pirenzepine | Telenzepine
467
Name the sodium compounds (antacids)
Bicarbonate of soda | Sodium citrate
468
Name the magnesium compounds (antacids)
Magnesium hydroxide
469
Name the aluminum compounds (antacids)
Aluminium hydroxide Basic carbonate gel Aluminum phosphate gel
470
Name the calcium compounds (antacids)
Calcium carbonate
471
Name the agents used in peptic ulcer treatment which enhance the gastric mucosal defence
Bismuth Chelate Sucralfate Misoprostol
472
Name the broad spectrum anti epileptics
Valproate Lamotrigine Topiramate
473
Name the drugs used in the treatment of absence seizures
``` Clonazepam Clobazam Ethusoximide (Valproate) (Lamotrigine) ```
474
Name the topoisomerase I inhibitors
Irinotecan | Topotecan
475
Name the topoisomerase II inhibitors (Anthracyclines - antibiotics)
Doxorubicin Epirubicin Daunorubicin Idarubicin
476
Name the topoisomerase II inhibitors (Anthracenediones)
Mitoxantrone
477
Name the topoisomerase II inhibitors (Epidophyllotoxins)
Etoposide
478
Name the inhibitors of the mitotic spindle (Taxane derivatives)
Paclitaxel Docetaxel Cabazitaxel
479
Name the inhibitors of the mitotic spindle (Vinca alkaloids)
Vincristine Vinblastine Vinorelbine
480
Name the non competitive inhibitors of XO
Allopurinol | Febuxostat
481
Name the biological agents that are used in the chronic treatment of gout (they convert uric acid to the more water soluble allantoin)
Pegloticase | Rasburicase
482
Name the uricosuric agents
Probenecid | Sulfinpyrazone
483
Name the tetracyclic antidepressants
Maprotiline | Amoxapine
484
Name the unicyclic antidepressants
Bupropion
485
Name the 2nd generation anti-psychotics Tricyclic compounds (dibenzepines)
Clozapine Olanzapine Quetiapine
486
Name the 2nd generation anti-psychotics (other heterocyclic compounds)
``` Risperidone Paliperidone Ziprasidone Lurasidone Sertindole Iloperidone ```
487
Name the 2nd generation antipsychotic (D2 partial agonist, 5HT2A inverse agonist)
Aripiprazole
488
Name the 2nd generation antipsychotic (D3/D2 partial agonist)
Cariprazine
489
Name the 2nd generation antipsychotic (D2/D3 antagonists)
Sulpiride Tiapride Amisulpiride
490
Name the 5-ASA
Sulfasalazine Mesalazine Olsalazine
491
What does 5-ASA stand for
5- amino salocyclic acid
492
Name the IL12/23 antagonist
Ustekinunab
493
Name the local anaesthetics (esters)
Procoaine Cocaine Benzocaine
494
Name the general anaesthetics (amides)
``` Lidocaine Prilocaine Mepivacaine Ropivicaine Bupivacain Atricaine ```
495
Name the GLP-1 analogues
``` Exenatide Lixisenatide Liraglutide Albiglutide Dulaglutide ```
496
Name the Amylin analogue
Pramlinitide
497
Name the estrogen receptor antagonist
Fulvestrant
498
Name the SERMs
Tamaxifen Raloxifen Toremifen Clomifen
499
Name the natural oestrogen
estradiol Estrone Estriol
500
Name the synthetic steroidal oestrogen's
Ethinylestradiol
501
Name the steroidal and non-steroidal aromatise inhibitors
Steroidal: Exemestane, formestane | Non-steroidal inhibitors: anastraxole, letrozole
502
Name the CA inhibitors
Acetazolamide Dorzolamide Brinzolamide
503
Name the loop diuretics
Ethacrynic acid Furosemide Bumetanide Torsemide
504
Name the thiazides
Hydrochlorothiazide | Bendroglumethiazide

PharmaFinal (2 decks)

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