Drugs Flashcards

(71 cards)

0
Q

Following spinal anesthesia, what should you do if a Pt complains of a HA?

A

Lay hob FLAT, NO pillows

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1
Q

What drug would likely be administered with fentanyl for conscious sedation and amnesia?

A

Midazolam

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2
Q

If following spinal anesthesia, a Pt becomes hypotension, what should you do?

A

Elevate hob

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3
Q

What drug is likely to be administered for induction of anesthesia, maintenance of anesthesia, or sedation for mechanical ventilation?

A

Propofol

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4
Q

How do thiopental and Propofol differ in terms of onset and duration?

A

Thiopental-onset within seconds, duration 10-20 min.

Propofol-duration is even shorter..3-5 min.

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5
Q

What drug can prolong the effects of IV lidocaine?

A

Epinephrine

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6
Q

What four things does nitroglycerin decrease by vasodilation?

A

1) decrease venous return (preload)
2) decrease ventricular filling
3) decrease wall tension
4) decrease O2 demand

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7
Q

What 2 drugs would be contraindicated with nitrates?

A

1) hypotension drugs

2) phosphodiesterase inhibitors (ED Rx)

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9
Q

What are the two main AE of Nitroglycerin?

A

1) Hypotension

2) reflex tachycardia

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10
Q

What would be an example of protecting from “unintentional harm”, in a patient receiving IV lidocaine?

A

Making sure the pt’s gag reflex is intact is an example of unintentional harm.

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11
Q

What non-anesthetic adjunct often given for pain , is given 30 minutes prior to the OR, and exhibits anticholinergic effects? (what are anticholinergic effects?)

A

Morphine.

Anticholinergic effects: decreases r/f decreased HR and dry secretions by vasodilation.

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12
Q

The nurse knows that in large doses, Diazepam (valium) will result in…

A

loss of consciousness

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13
Q

Antianginal drugs work by what 3 factors?

A

1) Restore supply&demand of O2
- Improve blood oxygen delivery to the heart by
2) dilating vessels and..
3) decreased work load of the heart

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14
Q

Why is nitroglycerin not given PO often?

A

because of the first pass effect; heavily metabolized by the liver. Doses must be large, and are given prophylactically for angina.

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15
Q

Lidocaine is a local anesthetic, as well as an antiarrhythmic drug. What anti arrhythmic properties does it have, and what is it indicated for?

A

Lidocaine IM or IV is indicated for SHORT-TERM Tx of Ventricular Dysrhythmias.

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16
Q

What potential side effect does the nurse know can occur when giving high doses of lidocaine?

A
  • Dizziness
  • Resp. Depression
  • Paresthesias**
  • Seizure**
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17
Q

List the four prototype anti arrhythmic drugs according to their class.

A

Class I–Na+ channel blocker–Lidocaine
Class II–B-Blocker–Propanolol
Class III–K+ channel blocker– Amiodarone
Class IV–Ca2+ channel blocker–Verapamil

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18
Q

Beta 1 receptors innervate the __________.

Beta 2 receptors innervate the __________.

A

Beta 1–heart

Beta 2–bronchioles

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19
Q

What can be given IV to treat hypokalemia? Are there special NIs to note?

A

KCL–MUST be diluted to <40mEq/L, and NO FASTER than 10 mEq/hr

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20
Q

What may be given to treat hyperkalemia?

A

Glucose and insulin infusion, calcium gluconate (for cardiac effects), kayexelate (PO, rectal), and if life threatening, hemodialysis

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21
Q

What IV solution may be given to treat hypocalcemia?Are there special NIs to note? (rate? monitoring? administration?)

A

IV calcium gluconate

  • MUST GIVE SLOWLY–0.6-2 mL/min
  • Dedicated IV line
  • Cardiac monitoring
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22
Q

What may be given to treat hypercalcemia? What non-pharmaceutical interventions can you instruct the pt to do?

A
  • Rx: loop diuretic

- Teach pt: adequate hydration to promote excretion, and mobilization to promote reabsorp. to bone

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23
Q

____calcemia is associated with hyperactive reflexes.

____calcemia is associated with muscle twitching.

A

Hypocalcemia is associated with hyperactive reflexes

Hypercalcemia is associated w/ muscle twitching.

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24
Q

What are the most important AEs to monitor for in a hypokalemia?

A
  • ECG changes
  • Postural hypotension
  • Bradycardia
  • Digitalis tox.
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25
How will hypophosphatemia be treated? (Mild, and severe?)
Mild--PO | Severe--IV sodium phosphate
26
How will hyperphosphatemia be treated?
Treatment is aimed at the underlying cause. | --Phosphate binding gels and adequate hydration
27
What are normal Electrolyte values of calcium, sodium, potassium, phosphate, and magnesium?
``` Calcium: 9-11 mg/dL Mg: 1.5-2.5 mEq/L Phosphate: 2.5-3.5 mEq/L Potassium: 3.5-5 mEq/L Sodium: 135-145 mEq/L ```
28
Are are normal arterial values for pH, PaCO2, and HCO3-?
pH: 7.35-7.45 PaCO2: 38-44 mmHg HCO3-: 22-25 mEq/mL
29
List whether pH, PaCO2, and HCO3- increases/decreases in the following conditions: 1) respiratory acidosis 2) resp. alkalosis 3) Metabolic acidosis 4) Respiratory alkalosis
1) Resp. acid.: pH down, PaCO2 up, HCO3- normal/up 2) Resp. alka.: pH up, PaCO2 down, HCO3 normal/down 3) Meta. acid.: pH down, PaCO2 normal/down, HCO3- down 4) Meta alka.: pH up, PaCO2 normal/up, HCO3- up
30
What are potential AE for propranolol?
- Heart, AV block - HF, Hypotension - Bronchospasm (asthma)--beta 2 receptors
31
Amiodarone is a ______-channel blocker. | It is indicated for.......
Potassium channel blocker. | Indicated for life-threatening dysrhythmias.
32
What functional test is important to monitor with amiodarone? Why?
LFTs!!!!! - Must have baseline--if it increases 3x the drug must be discontinued!! - Highly lipid soluble - Accumulates in the tissues, esp. in liver and lungs. - Prolonged half life (25-100days!)
33
A patient asks why he must continue monitoring for toxicity in amiodarone when he is no longer taking it anymore. How does the nurse respond?
Amiodarone has a prolonged half life of 25-100 days, where toxicity can continue for weeks after d/c.
34
What 4 organs do you watch for AEs/Toxicities in when taking amiodarone?
- Pulmonary toxicity - Cardiotoxicity - Corneal microdeposits--Eye - Optic neuropathy--Eye - Liver toxicity
35
What AE do you watch out for in Verapamil? | What is a common SE in PO forms of Verapamil?
-Bradycardia -Hypotension, Vasodilation AV block, HF -Peripheral edema -Constipation (PO common)
36
T/F | Beta2 receptors exert the same effects as Ca2+ receptors.
FALSE. | Beta1 and Ca2+ receptors exert the same effects.
37
___________ pressure is controlled by plasma proteins
colloidal
38
___________= sequestering of a fluid in space that does not participate in extracellular exchange
third space losses
39
Abnormalities in intracellular regulation of enzymes is associated with which electrolyte?
Phosphate
40
Shift in K+ b/w intra and extracellular components to prevent large changes in extracellular potassium is accompanied by changes in ________ ion concentration.
Hydrogen
41
Is hypo or hypermagnesemia associated w/ muscle twitching?
HYPOmagnesemia
42
A person on tube feedings following a stroke is most likely at risk for what electrolyte imbalance?
Hypernatremia
43
The most important factor for determining pH is the ratio of _____ to _______ (20:1)
bicarbonate to carbonic acid
44
Vomiting is associated with what type of acid-base imbalance?
Metabolic acidosis b/c you're losing acids and salt.
45
In a pt with fluid volume deficit, what do do you infuse first, then thereafter?
NS friefly to treat deficit, THEN hypotonic solution for maintainence
46
What common IV solution is contraindicated for metabolic alkalosis?
LR. converted into bicarb, which would further alkalize
47
A dehydrated pt is treated w/ NS, and starts to have difficultly breathing. What do you suspect and what do you do?
Suspect fl. volume overload. D/c infusion and call provider.
48
What are two common drugs that, when combined, prolong anesthesia by vasoconstriction, and reduces toxicity?
Epi + lidocaine
49
A pt taking lidocaine has a HR of 60, BP 90/60. What potential AE are you worried about?
Heart block
50
What is the most important intervention for a patient who has had spinal anesthesia?
Monitor vitals; HYPOtension is a common SE.
51
The nurse is prepping a Pt for a colonoscopy under conscious sedation. Which med does the RN expect the pt to receive?
Fentanyl + midazolam
52
What drug would be indicated for an uncomfortable, brief procedure?
Propofol
53
What type of angina is associated with a small lipid core, and a thick cap?
Stable angina
54
30-50% of pts w/ acute MI die of what kind of dysrhythmia?
Ventricular dysrhythmia
55
Troponin is detectably elevated after an MI for ____days
7-10 days
56
Following MI, scar tissue serves to...
maintain structural integrity of the heart
57
A stable pt with AF begins to develop Sx for dysrhythmia. The nurse expects the MD to prescribe an IV ________ to slow conduction thru the AV node, decreasing contractility, HR, and workload.
b blocker
58
_______ are effective in treating stable angina by dilating arterioles and decreasing afterload
Ca2+ ch blockers
59
A pt is taking amiodarone for chronic a fib. what need to be done prior to administration of this Rx?
Baseline test
60
A pt is Dx w/ STEMI, and about to undergo reperfusion Tx. What combo of Rxs do you expect to be prescribed? (what drug is always given with repercussion Tx?)
Heparin and ASA
61
Aortic regurgitation leads to a decrease in _________ perfusion.
coronary perfusion
62
What structural change is associated with aortic stenosis?
L vent. hypertrophy
63
What lab value is the best indicator of HIV Tx?
Viral load
64
What is a long-term AE of Zidovudine?
Neutropenia
65
What should you warn a pt about when taking efavirenz and its SE?
Insomnia and vivid dreams
66
A pt is on vancomycin and has a rash and decreased UO. What do you anticipate?
Holding the dose. Look at peak and trough levels, as well as Cr.
67
What lab test is most important for a pt on amphotericin B?
Cr, BUN, K+
68
What toxicity is common in gentamycin
Hearing loss/ototoxicity
69
Loss of continence, consciousness, and impaired respirations is a manifestation of what type of seizure?
Tonic-clonic
70
Pt on phenytoin has a level of 30mcg/mL, what do you do?
Hold dose, contact MD.
71
What drug is used to terminate a seizure?
lorazepam