DRUGS ACTING ON THE ANS Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

3 major divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic
parasympathetic
enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus, submucous plexus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sympathetic:

spinal roots of origin

A

T1-T12
L1-L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

parasympathetic:

spinal roots of origin

A

CN 3, 7, 9, 10
sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sympathetic:

location of ganglia

A

paravertebral chains of spinal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

parasympathetic:

location of ganglia

A

organs innervated, more distant from spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sympathetic:

preganglionic and postganglionic fibers

A

short, long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

parasympathetic:

preganglionic and postganglionic fibers

A

long, short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

primary transmitter at the sympathetic postganglionic neuron-effector cell synapses in most tissues

A

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

exceptions of norepinephrine

A

eccrine sweat glands
vasodilator in the sympathetic fibers of skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

primary transmitter in all autonomic ganglia and at the synapses between parasympathetic postganglionic neurons and their effector cells

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

primary transmitter at the somatic skeletal muscle neurotransmitter junction

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • direct activation of adrenoceptors
  • indirect activation by increasing concentration of available catecholamines in the synapse
A

sympathominetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

contraction of MOST vascular smooth muscle

A

alpha-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver

A

alpha-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

stimulates aggregation of platelets

A

alpha-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

contraction of pupillary dilator muscle (mydriasis)

A

alpha-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

inhibits transmitter release in adrenergic and cholinergic nerve terminals

A

alpha-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

inhibits insulin release of pancreatic b cells

A

alpha-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

contraction of SOME vascular smooth muscle

A

alpha-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

contraction of pilomotor smooth muscle (erects hair)

A

alpha-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

alpha-1 or alpha-2 adrenergic effect:

inhibits lipolysis of fat cells

A

alpha-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

beta-1 or beta-2 adrenergic effect:

relaxes the airway, uterine, and vascular smooth muscle

A

beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

beta-1 or beta-2 adrenergic effect:

stimulates rate and force of heart

A

beta-1 and beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

beta-1 or beta-2 adrenergic effect:

stimulates glycogenolysis of liver

A

beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
beta-1 or beta-2 adrenergic effect: causes tremors in the somatic motor neuron terminals
beta-2
26
beta-1 or beta-2 adrenergic effect: stimulates renin release from juxtaglomerular cells of kidney
beta-1
27
beta-1 or beta-2 adrenergic effect: stimulates insulin release from the pancreatic b cells
beta-2
28
6 classifications of sympathomimetics
- non-selective alpha agonist - alpha-1 selective - alpha-2 selective - non-selective beta agonist - beta-1 selective - beta-2 selective
29
- sympathomimetic (non-selective) - activates alpha and beta adrenergic receptors - for cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, asthma, copd, hemostasis SE: HTN, tachycardia, ischemia, hyperglycemia
epinephrine
30
a1: vasoconstriction, increases BP b1: increased HR, conduction and contractility b2: bronchodilation
epinephrine
31
- sympathomimetic (non-selective) - activates alpha, beta, and D1 adrenergic receptors - for cardiogenic shock and heart failure SE: cardiovascular disturbance, arrythmias
dopamine
32
a1: vasoconstriction, increases BP b1: increased HR, conduction and contractility D1: vasodilation in splanchnic and renal vessels
dopamine
33
- sympathomimetic (alpha-2 selective) - activates a2 adrenergic receptors - decreases central sympathetic outflow - for HTN, cancer pain , opioid withdrawal SE: sedation, rebound HTN, dry mouth
clonidine
34
in using clonidine, what should you do to avoid rebound hypertension
taper / gradually decrease use prior to discontinuation
35
what is the treatment for rebound HTN after using clonidine?
phentolamine
36
- sympathomimetic (alpha-2 selective) - activates a2 adrenergic receptors - decreases central sympathetic outflow - used for preeclampsia, GHTN SE: sedation, hemolytic anemia
methyldopa
37
- sympathomimetic (beta-2 selective) - activates beta 2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle causing bronchodilation - used for acute asthma attack, tocolytic for preterm labor SE: tachycardia, tremors, nervousness, restlessness, arrhythmias, loss of responsiveness
albuterol / salbutamol
38
drug choice for anaphylaxis
epinephrine
39
drug of choice for asthma attacks
albuterol / salbutamol
40
albuterol / salbutamol may precipitate ___ in patients with concurrent COPD and heart disease
arrhythmias
41
true or false: sympathomimetics are C/I in patients with cardiac dysrhythmias, narrow angle glaucoma, and cardiogenic shock
true
42
what should you monitor when administering sympathomimetics?
- VS and UO - SE: tachycardia, palpitations, tremors, dizziness, HPN
43
continuous nasal spray can cause ___
nasal congestion rebound
44
alpha blockers non-selective - irreversible
phenoxybenzamine
45
alpha blockers non-selective - reversible
phentolamine
46
alpha blockers alpha-1 selective
prazosin
47
alpha blockers alpha-2 selective
yohimbine
48
beta blockers non-selective
propranolol
49
beta blockers beta-1 selective
atenolol
50
beta blockers beta-2 selective
butoxamine
51
- adrenergic antagonist (alpha non-selective) - irreversibly blocks alpha adrenergic receptors
phenoxybenzamine
52
used for pheochromocytoma (pre-surgical) SE: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia, GI irritation, myocardial ischemia
phenoxybenzamine
53
forms covalent bond with alpha receptors = effects lasts for several days
phenoxybenzamine
54
55
- adrenergic antagonist (alpha non-selective) - reversibly blocks alpha adrenergic receptors SE: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia, GI irritation
phentolamine, tolazoline
56
- used for pheochromocytoma (pre-surgical) - antidote to a1 antagonist overdose, rebound HTN
phentolamine, tolazoline
57
- adrenergic antagonist (alpha-1 selective) - selectively blocks a1 adrenergic receptors - used for benign prostatic hyperplasia, HTN SE: 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
prazosin
58
- adrenergic antagonist (beta non-selective) - block b1 and b2 receptors - block sympathetic effects on heart and BP - reduce renin release
propranolol
59
- used for angina prophylaxis, HTN, arrhythmias, migraine, performance anxiety, hyperthyroidism SE: bronchospasm, AV block, heart failure, CNS sedation, erectile dysfunction
propranolol
60
- may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia in diabetics - carvedilol and labetalol has combines alpha and beta blockade (may be used for pheochromocytoma)
propranolol
61
- adrenergic antagonist (beta 1 selective) - selectively block b1 receptors - blocks sympathetic effects on heart and BP - used for angina, HTN, heart failure SE: bronchospasm, AV block, heart failure, CNS sedation, erectile dysfunction
atenolol
62
when administering adrenoceptor blockers, you should monitor?
VS, BP, and HR
63
when administering adrenoceptor blockers, report any complaint of ___
stuffy nose
64
when administering adrenoceptor blockers: for clients with DM, have ___ available and follow adjustment of insulin dose as ordered
glucagon
65
true or false: when administering adrenoceptor blockers, quickly rise from supine to sitting / standing position
false - slowly rise
66
- not very useful for systemic therapy because their effects are not sufficiently selective - parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia and somatic junctions all may be blocked
cholinergic drugs
67
location of M1 cholinoreceptor
nerve endings
68
location of M2 cholinoreceptor
heart, some nerve endings
69
location of M3 cholinoreceptor
effector cells, smooth muscle glands, endothelium
70
location of Nn cholinoreceptor
ANS ganglia
71
location of Nm cholinoreceptor
neuromuscular end plate
72
- cholinergic (direct-acting) - similar to carbachol - active muscarinic receptors - act on M receptor only
betanechol
73
- used for bladder and bowel atony (post-surgery or spinal cord injury) - SE: cyclospasm, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, reflex tachycardia, sweating
betanechol
74
- cholinomimetic (direct-acting) - activates M3 receptors in ciliary muscle and salivary glands - used for glaucoma, sjogren syndrome - SE: miosis, blurring of vision
pilocarpine
75
autoimmune disorder characterized by triad of: - xerostomia (dry mouth) - xerophthalmia (dry eyes) - rheumatoid arthritis
sjogren syndrome
76
- cholinomimetic (direct-acting) - activates nicotinic ACH receptors (Nn and Nm) - used for smoking cessation - SE: generalized ganglionic stimulation
nicotine
77
nicotine overdose leads to?
convulsion, paralysis, coma
78
- CNS stimulation - eye: miosis, spasm of accommodation - lungs: bronchoconstriction - GIT/GUT: excessive smooth muscle actiivity - increased secretory activity - vasodilation
muscarinic toxicity
79
- ganglionic stimulation - blockade of neuromuscular end plate depolarization - fasciculation and paralysis - CNS toxicity: stimulation (convulsions) followed by CNS depression
nicotinic toxicity
80
- bind to cholinesterase and undergo prompt hydrolysis - alcohol portion is released - acidic portion is retained and release slowly
indirect-acting cholinomimetics
81
- prevents the binding and hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine - amplify acetylcholine effects wherever ACH is released
indirect-acting cholinomimetics
82
- cholinomimetic (indirect-acting) - inhibits acetylcholinesterase, amplifies endogenously released acetylcholine - used for myasthenia gravis, differentiation of cholinergic crisis and myasthenic crisis - SE: miosis, salivation, NV, diarrhea, bradycardia
edrophonium
83
true or false: edrophonium is known to be very short acting upon IV administration
true
84
how is myasthenia gravis diagnosed?
tensilon test
85
- cholinomimetic (indirect-acting) - inhibits acetylcholinesterase, amplifies endogenously released acetylcholine - used for myasthenia gravis, reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade, glaucoma - SE: miosis, salivation, NV, diarrhea, bradycardia
neostigmine
86
muscarinic effects caused by neostigmine are blocked by ___
atropine
87
autoimmune destruction of nictonic ACH receptors characterized by: - fluctuating muscle weakness - ocular symptoms - bulbar symptoms - proximal muscle weakness
myasthenia gravis
88
acute worsening of symptoms due to infection, stress or undermedication
myasthenic crisis
89
excessive activation of cholinoreceptors (skeletal muscle weakness and parasympathetic signs) due to overmedication
cholinergic crisis
90
how does edrophonium differentiate myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis?
myasthenic - IMPROVES muscle strength cholinergic - WEAKENSS muscle strength
91
- prototype non-selective muscarinic blocker - found in atropa belladona - tertiary amine that readily crosses membrane barriers
atropine
92
- cholinergic antagonist - competitively blocks all muscarinic receptors - used for mydriatic, cycloplegic, antidote for organophosphate poisoning, bradycardia, hypersalivation - SE: tachycardia, mydriasis, cycloplegia, skin flushing, delirium, hallucination
atropine
93
drug of choice for organophosphate poisoning
atropine
94
these can cause what? malathion and parathion (insecticide) sarin, tabun, soman: nerve gases
organophosphate poisoning
95
signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning DUMBBELSS
diarrhea urination miosis bronchospasm bradycardia excitation lacrimation sweating salivation
96
- atropine fever - atropine flush - decreased secretion - tachycardia - arrhythmias - constipation - blurred vision - CNS toxicity
atropine toxicity
97
- use cautiously in infants, may cause hyperthermia - C/I: acute angle-closure glaucoma, benign prostatic hyperplasia
muscarinic blockers