Drugs all Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

4 Hemostatic Agents

A

1) Vitamin K
2) Protamine Sulfate
3) Epsilon Aminocaproic Acid (EACA)/Tranexmil Acid (TXA)
4) Desmopressin Acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Protamine sulfate is DOC for…

A

Tx of hemorrhage secondary to Heparin OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Anti fibrinolytic agent

A

Epsilon Aminocaproic Acid (EACA)/Tranexmil Acid (TXA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Desmopressin Acetate is DOC for…

A

Tx bleeding due to VWD dz and tx central diabetes insipidus
(+ asparin tox in dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Desmopressin MOA

A

Cause dose dependent increase in plasma factor VIII and plasminogen factor (supports primary hemostasis -> platelet fxn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2 Antithrombotic drugs

A

1) Aspirin
2) Clopidogrel Bisulfate (Plavix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[High or Low] aspirin dose is preferred when using it as an antithrombotic

A

Low dose preferred because high dose can cause increase in platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clopidogrel MOA

A

Reduce platelet aggregation by selectively inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 Anticoagulant drugs

A

1) Unfractionated Heparin
2) Low molecular weight heparin
3) Warfarin Sodium
4) Rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is risk of bleeding higher for anticoagulants or antithrombotics?

A

Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What drug do you need to monitor aPTT

A

Unfractionated Heparain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Unfractionated heparin + Low molecular weight heparin MOA

A

Binds to antithrombin III to inactivate coagulation factor Xa and prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Warfarin Sodium MOA (imp)

A

Inhibit Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase, which interferes with action of Vit K bc Vit K synthesizes coag factors II, VII, IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drug do you have to monitor PT clotting time

A

Warfarin Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug is a direct factor Xa inhibitor

A

Rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Of the two thrombolytics, which is fibrin clot SPECIFIC?

A

tissue plasminogen activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2 thrombolytic drugs + MOA + Precaution

A

1) Streptokinase/Urokinase
2) Tissue Plasminogen Activator (t-PA)
MOA: activate plasminogen to breakdown existing clots -> thrombolysis
Precaution: life threatening hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Three (behavior modifying) drugs that increase serotonin levels in the brain

A

Buspirone, Fluoxetine, Trazadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drug to tx feather plucking in birds

A

Clomipramide (TCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SRRI, inhibit neuronal reputake of serotonin and upregulate GABA receptors
Use: separation anxiety, dominance agression, acral lick granuloma….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reserpine

A

Indirect acting sympatholytic
MOA: blocks NE uptake into vesicles to reduce storage and release of NE
Long acting tranquilizing agent in horses (ie long term stall rest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clomipramide precaution

A

Narrow therapeutic index; cats more sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Buspirone

A

Partial serotonin agonist
MOA: increase serotonin levles in brain
DOC: cats for urinary marking, spraying behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difference between first and second generation H1 Antagonists

A

H1: cross BBB, drowsy
H2: non-drowsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
H1 (4)
1) Proinflammatory 2) Bronchoconstriction 3) Vasodilation 4) Mediate signs of urticarial + pruritis
18
H2 (2)
1) Increase gastric acid secretion 2) Vascular SM relaxation
19
Consideration for Lokivetmab
USDA biological agent (not FDA approved drug)
20
Oclacitinib
Apoquel JAK-1 and 3 inhibitor Inhibits pro-inflam cytokines Inhibits IL-31 Tx allergic dermatopathy in dogs
21
Lokivetmab MOA
Contains canonized monoclonal Abs shown to neutralize IL-31 Side effect: persistent ABs may reduce effects
22
DOC and MOA of drug to tx long term feline hyperthyroidism
Methimazole Inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis (reversible) Stop if: facial excoriation
23
Hyperthyroid tx that is irreversible
Radioactive Iodine (+ tx functional extra-thyroid tissue
24
Tx for acute vs chronic Hypocalcemia
Acute: calcium gluconate Chronic: Calcitriol (Vit D)
25
Pamidronate Disodium
MOA: inhibit bone resorption (to tx HyperCa) Slow onset of action, NOT for emergency tx HyperCa Main use: severe hyperCa usually due to malignancy (ie osteosarcoma)
26
Drug for medical management of insulinoma (chronic hypoglycemia) in small animals
Diazoxide (not emergency drug) Oral formulation
27
Tx for hypoglycemic crisis
50% dextrose DILUTE w crystalloid
28
Which is the only type of insulin that can be given IV
short acting: regular/lispro
29
DOC diabetes mellitus
Insulin
30
Long acting insulin drugs (3) + Which has the highest potency in dogs?
Glargine Detemir (4x potency in dogs) Protamine Zinc
31
2 oral drugs to tx diabetes mellitus + MOA
Bexaglifozin + Velagliflozin MOA: SGLT2 inhibitor
32
Glucocorticoid dose to tx Addisons
0.2-0.3 mg/kg/day
33
Glucocorticoid dose for anti inflammatory
0.5-1 mg/kg/day
34
Glucocorticoid dose for immunsupressive therapy
2-4 mg/kg/day
35
2 drugs that inhibit glucocorticoid production (to tx cushings), and which is more common?
Trilostaine (more common) + Ketoconazole
36
What enzyme does Trilostane inhibit, and is it reversible or irreversible?
3b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase; reversible
37
Pergolide
Dopamine agonist PPID in horses
38
2 mineralcorticoids and what should you monitor when using?
DOCP + Fludrocortisone Monitor K/Na
39
DOC addisons
DOCP + Fludrocortisone
40
Acetaminophen MOA
Does not inhibit COX, but interferes with conversion of endoperodixases to other prostaglandins
41
Drug for feline osteothritis and route of administration
Frunevetmab (solensia); once monthly injectable
42
Amantadine classification and MOA
Antiviral with NMDA receptor antagonism (analgesic effects)
43
Large animal triple dip
Guaifenesin, xylazine, ketamine
44
Kitty magic (anesthesia induction)
Ketamine, Dexmedetomidine, Buprenorophine
45
Adjunct anesthesia (FLK and MLK)
Fentanyl, lidocaine, ketamine Morphine, lidocaine, ketamine
46
Which non-barbituate induction agent is best to use for patients with CV dz
Etomidate (less severe CV effects than other IV anesthetics)
47
Rank respiratory and CV depression of non-barbituates most to least
Propofol>Alfaxalone>Etomidate
48
3 non barbituate drugs and MOA
Propofol, Alfaxalone, Etomidate GABA agonist
49
DOC for tetatnus, intoxication that causes tremors, and use of wrong flea/tick product
Methocarbamol
50
Drug for medical management of insulinoma vs acute treatment for insulinoma
Management: Diazoxide Acute tx: Glucagon
51
Dopamine causes at: 1) Low dose 2) Low-medium dose 3) Medium dose 4) High dose
Low dose: D receptors -> renal vasodilation Low-medium dose: B1 -> Positive inotrope Medium dose: B1 -> Positive chronotrope High dose: A1 -> Vasoconstriction
52