Drugs for Parathyroid Disorders Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

what is pagets disease

A

A bone disorder, of unknown origin, characterized by excessive bone destruction and disorganized repair. Complications include skeletal deformity, musculoskeletal pain, kidney stones, and organ dysfunction secondary to pressure from bony overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is rickets

A

The same as osteomalacia, but occurs in the growing skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nonhormonal regulators of bone mineral homeostasis

A
  • bisphosphonates
    -fluoride
    -calcmimetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nonhormonal regulators of bone mineral homeostasis

A
  • bisphosphonates
    -fluoride
    -calcmimetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PTH and 1,25(OH)2D ______ the input of calcium and phosphorus from bone into the serum and stimulate bone formation.
1,25(OH)2D also ________calcium and phosphate absorption from the gut.
In the kidney, 1,25(OH)2D _____ excretion of both calcium and phosphorus, whereas PTH _______ calcium but _______ phosphorus excretion.
FGF23 stimulates renal excretion of phosphate.
Calcitonin (CT) is a less critical regulator of calcium homeostasis, but in pharmacologic concentrations can reduce serum calcium and phosphorus by ______bone resorption and stimulating their renal excretion.

A

increase
increases
decreases
reduces
increases
inhibiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are 3 regulations of PTH hormone

A
  1. Serum calcium feeds back to parathyroid gland
  2. High calcium
    -Stimulates calcium-sensitive protease in gland
    -Stimulates calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR)
  3. Vitamin D
    -Suppresses PTH production
    -Induces CaSR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does parathyroid control LOW serum calcium

A

Parathyroid releases PTH
Stimulates bone resorption
Increases calcium uptake from GI tract
Increases calcium reabsorption, hydroxylation of vitamin D by kidney
Decreases phosphate reabsorption by renal tubules ↑ Serum Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how does THYROID control LOW serum calcium

A

Thyroid decreases release of calcitonin
Decreased bone formation
Increased calcium uptake from GI tract
Increased calcium reabsorption by kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PTH effects on bone

A

Net effect of PTH favors bone resorption by osteoclasts
Low, intermittent doses favor bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the MOA of Terparatide

A

1-34 active segment of human PTH
-Acts through PTH receptors to produce a net increase in bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the MOA of Natpara

A

Genetic engineered full-length (1-84) human PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

list 2 drugs that are PTH preparations

A

teriparatide
Natpara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe the short-term process of PTH preparations

A

Short-term, intermittent –> Increased osteoblast number and function –> increased bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the long-term process of PTH preparations

A

Long-term, continuous –> Increased osteoclast function —> increased bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the uses for PTH preparations

A

Osteoporosis in postmenopausal women & hypogonadal men
Other osteoporosis in patients at high risk of fracture
Severe osteoporosis not responsive to other drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the contraindications for PTH preparations

A

Patients at increased risk of bone tumors [osteosarcoma]
Paget’s disease of bone, elevated alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the Adverse effects for PTH preparations

A

Carcinogenesis (osteosarcoma)
Orthostatic hypotension
Kidney stones (assoc. with elevated serum calcium]
Diarrhea, nausea
GERD
Muscle cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the uses of Terparatide

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the adverse effects of Terparatide

A

Hypercalcemia, Hypercalciuria, Osteosarcoma in animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How Does Teriparatide Useful in the Treatment of Osteoporosis?

A

Increases bone formation
Cessation associated with rapid bone loss
-Follow treatment with bisphosphonate or other anti-
resorptive agent
Especially useful in:
-Post-menopausal women with high fracture risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

calcitonin is secreted by

A

parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

calcitonin mediates____________ effects of PTH

A

OPPOSITE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

calcitonin mediates____________ effects of PTH

A

OPPOSITE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MOA of calcitonin

A

Inhibits bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
uses of calcitonin
Osteoporosis
25
adverse effects of calcitonin
rhinitis
26
MOA for calcium & phosphate
Bone mineralization
27
uses for calcium & phosphate
Osteoporosis, osteomalacia, Ca & P deficiencies
28
adverse effects for calcium & phosphate
constipation
28
adverse effects for calcium & phosphate
constipation
29
MOA for Cholecalciferol [D], Ergocalciferol, Calcitriol [active D]
Regulates gene transcription via the vitamin D receptor to produce the effects
30
USES for Cholecalciferol [D], Ergocalciferol, Calcitriol [active D]
prophylaxiss & Rx. Vitamin D deficiency, Osteoporosis, Osteomalacia, Psoriasis, calcium def. (renal insufficiency (must use calcitriol)
31
adverse effects for Cholecalciferol [D], Ergocalciferol, Calcitriol [active D]
Hypercalcemia Hypercalciuria (kidney stones) Cholestyramine inhibits absorption Phenytoin and barbiturates increase metabolism
32
MOA of Alendronate [Bisphosphonate]
Inhibition of osteoclast mediated bone resorption
33
uses of Alendronate [Bisphosphonate]
Osteoporosis, Paget’s disease
34
adverse effects of Alendronate [Bisphosphonate]
Esophageal irritation, osteonecrosis of the jaw
35
adverse effects of Denosumab
Osteonecrosis of the jaw, risk of infection
36
uses of Denosumab
osteoporosis
37
MOA of Denosumab
Immunoglobulin G2 monoclonal antibody against RANKL Prevents RANK activation of NF-𝜅B Inhibits gene expression for formation of osteoclasts Inhibits osteoclast function Mimics osteoprotegerin [OPG] Increases osteoclast apoptosis
38
MOA of Raloxifene
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modifier - SERM Estrogen agonist effect in bone + antagonist in breast and endometrium
39
uses of Raloxifene
Osteoporosis in postmenopausal women
40
adverse effects of Raloxifene
Hot flashes, thromboembolism Menopausal symptoms Increased risk of stroke, PE, DVT
41
MOA of Cinacalcet
Increases sensitivity of calcium sensing receptor (CaSR) of parathyroid gland ↓PTH for a given level of serum calcium (reduced sensitivity) ↓ PTH & serum calcium
42
uses of Cinacalcet
Hyperparathyroidism
43
adverse effects of Cinacalcet
Hypocalcemia
44
vit D2
ergocalciferol , plant source
45
cholecalciiferol
Vit D3
46
1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D
calcitrol
47
________ stimulates the renal alpha 1 hydroxylation of vit. D
PTH
48
Calcium carbonate & Calcium citrate drug interactions:
Decrease the absorption of ciprofloxacin, fluoride, phenytoin, levothyroxine, and tetracycline, so calcium supplements should be taken at least 2 hours before or after taking these drugs.
49
1st/ 2nd or 3rd gen Etidronate
First Generation (least potent)
50
1st/ 2nd or 3rd gen: Alendronate Pamidronate Risedronate Tiludronate
Second Generation (~100X more potent)
51
1st/ 2nd or 3rd gen: Ibandronate Zoledronic Acid
Third Generation (~1000X more potent)
52
MOA for Tiludronate
Causes osteoclast to detach from bone by inhibiting tyrosine phosphatase Reduces proton pump activity
53
Bisphosphonates (Inhibit Osteoclast Activity) SIDE EFFECTS (5)
1. Esophageal erosion - Remain upright after ingestion 2. GI distress - Pamidronate most common, alendronate, risedronate least 3. Atypical femur fractures with long-term use - Preceded by dull, aching pain in thigh or groin 4. Osteonecrosis of jaw - High doses and poor oral health 5. Calcium supplements and antacids decrease absorption - 2-hour rule
54
MOA of sodium fluoride
Increases bone crystal size and makes more resistant to resorption Increases bone formation Limited use Tends to cause osteosclerosis No effect on osteoporotic fractures
55
MOA of sodium fluoride
Increases bone crystal size and makes more resistant to resorption Increases bone formation Limited use Tends to cause osteosclerosis No effect on osteoporotic fractures
56
what drug : Antagonizing vitamin D-stimulated intestinal calcium transport - Osteoporosis
glucocorticoids
57
what drug : Promotes osteoclast apoptosis and increases bone formation
Strontium Ranelate
58
Gallium Nitrate MOA
Managing the hypercalcemia in malignancies and Paget’s disease. It acts by inhibiting bone resorption. Adverse effect: Nephrotoxicity
59
Plicamycin (mithramycin -uses)
Used to reduce serum calcium and bone resorption in Paget’s disease and hypercalcemia Adverse effects: Thrombocytopenia, hemorrhage, hepatic and renal damage
60
what is the function of Sevelamer
The phosphate-binding gel is used in combination with calcium supplements and dietary phosphate restriction to treat hyperphosphatemia, a common complication of renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, and vitamin D intoxication.