dsd Flashcards

(139 cards)

1
Q

What is management described as?

A

An art, both science and art, a science, neither art nor science

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2
Q

How is engineering defined?

A

Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery and money

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a function of an engineer?

A

Physical education

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4
Q

What function of an engineer involves learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories?

A

Research

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5
Q

What function of an engineer turns a product concept into a finished physical term?

A

Manufacturing

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6
Q

What function of an engineer tests new products or parts for workability?

A

Testing

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7
Q

What function of an engineer involves being in charge of production personnel?

A

Manufacturing

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8
Q

What function of an engineer is related to managing construction personnel?

A

Construction

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9
Q

Which function assists customers to meet their needs requiring technical expertise?

A

Consulting

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10
Q

What role involves working as a consultant for individuals or organizations?

A

Consulting

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11
Q

What function allows an engineer to work in government regulating activities?

A

Government

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12
Q

What function involves teaching engineering courses?

A

Teaching

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13
Q

What function involves managing groups of people performing specific tasks?

A

Management

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14
Q

Engineers can become good managers only through _______.

A

[Experience, taking a master’s degree in management, effective career planning, trainings]

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15
Q

If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what should you do?

A

Develop new talents, acquire new values, broaden your point of view, all of the above

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16
Q

What is a common problem engineers face when entering management?

A

Learning to trust others

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17
Q

What planning activity is undertaken at the middle management level?

A

Intermediate planning

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18
Q

Strategic planning is undertaken at which management level?

A

Top management level

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19
Q

What management function anticipates problems and determines actions to achieve goals?

A

Planning

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20
Q

What refers to establishing interrelationships to achieve company goals?

A

Organizing

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21
Q

What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?

A

Staffing

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22
Q

What management function involves orienting personnel and channeling resources?

A

Directing

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23
Q

What action is taken when actual performance deviates from the original plan?

A

Controlling

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24
Q

What management function encourages others to follow an example with commitment?

A

Leading

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25
What principal function of lower management instills commitment in the workforce?
Motivating
26
What is the collection of tools and techniques used to produce predefined outputs?
Project management
27
Which is NOT an element of the project management process?
Search and development
28
What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
Leadership
29
What model provides effective means of monitoring a project at each stage?
Life cycle model
30
What project life cycle model is most relevant for information technology projects?
Waterfall model
31
In project management, R & D stands for _______.
[Research and development]
32
In project management, O & M stands for _______.
[Operation and maintenance]
33
A project manager must be very good in which skills?
Communication skills, human relationship skills, leadership skills, all of the above
34
Project integration management involves which processes?
Project plan development, project plan execution, integrated change control
35
Which process does project quality management NOT involve?
Quality feature
36
What organizational structure specializes in specific functional areas?
Functional organization
37
What type of organization assigns each project to a single organizational unit?
Product organization
38
What organizational structure balances the use of human resources and skills?
Matrix organization
39
In which organization can the 'dual boss' phenomenon occur?
Matrix organization
40
What is an advantage of a matrix organization?
Adaptation to changing environment
41
What is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
Conflicts between project and functional managers
42
What is an advantage of a projectized organization?
Single point for customer contact
43
What is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
Uncertain technical direction
44
What is an advantage of a functional organization?
Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
45
What is a disadvantage of a functional organization?
Weaker customer interface
46
In what type of organization is the project manager responsible for project completion?
Projectized organization
47
Which of the following is NOT a factor in selecting an organizational structure?
Customer relation
48
Who is responsible for ensuring successful project completion?
Project manager
49
Who is responsible for running a department efficiently?
Functional manager
50
What does CPM stand for in network techniques?
Critical path method
51
What does PERT stand for in network techniques?
Program evaluation review technique
52
What network model uses only one time factor per activity?
Critical path method
53
What network model uses three time estimates for each activity?
Program evaluation review technique
54
What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM in project management?
They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project
55
Which of the following is NOT a measure of effectiveness of a safety program?
HAZOP
56
How do toxicants enter organisms?
Ingestion, injection, inhalation, all of the above
57
The lowest value on the response vs dose curve is called _______.
[Threshold limit value]
58
Identification, evaluation and control are phases of _______.
[Safety program]
59
What is fire defined as?
Rapid oxidation of ignited fuel
60
What is a rapid increase in volume and release of energy called?
Explosion
61
What is the lowest temperature that vapors of a material will ignite?
Flash point
62
What type of explosion occurs within a vessel or building?
Confined explosion
63
What causes overpressure?
Both ambient heat and valve failures
64
Which statement about material handling is wrong?
Environmental risk assessments should not be available
65
Who is responsible for ensuring workers have a safe working environment?
OSHA
66
What does PHA stand for?
Process hazard analysis
67
Which of the following is NOT a guide word of HAZOP?
NAND
68
What does HAZAN study involve?
All of the above
69
What is the process of adding inert gas to a combustible mixture called?
Inerting
70
What determines whether exposure to a chemical increases adverse health effects?
Hazard identification
71
What does hazard define?
The probability of suffering harm or loss
72
What occurs when a tank containing liquid above its boiling point ruptures?
Boiling-liquid expanding-vapor explosion
73
What is the speed of the reaction front in deflagration?
Less than the speed of sound
74
What does MIE depend on?
All of the above
75
What explosion results from sudden failure of a vessel containing high-pressure gas?
Mechanical explosion
76
What are the essential elements for fire?
Fuel, oxidizer, ignition source
77
What is toxicity equivalence factor?
Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical chosen as a reference
78
What does OSHA ensure for employees?
Safe workplace
79
What does ED stand for?
Effective dose
80
Eco-toxicology is based on the _______ of chemicals.
[Toxicological]
81
During which phase are existing control measures studied?
Evaluation
82
What establishes the relationship between contaminants and the receptor?
Risk characterization
83
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hazardous waste?
Leakage
84
What is known as the results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical?
Chronic toxicity
85
What chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from the Bhopal gas tragedy?
Methylisocyanate
86
Heavy metals like arsenic and cadmium affect the _______.
[Nervous system]
87
What represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object?
Exposure
88
Under the OSH Act, employees are responsible for providing _______.
[Safe workplace]
89
What was the purpose of OSHA?
Reduce hazards
90
How is sensitivity analyzed in risk estimation?
By critical assumptions
91
Metals come under which class of fire?
Class D
92
An incident is called hazardous when it _______.
[Has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems]
93
What is the purpose of ventilation in a hazardous environment?
To dilute toxic vapors with air
94
How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation?
By critical assumptions ## Footnote This refers to evaluating the impact of key assumptions on risk outcomes.
95
Metals come under which class of fire?
class D ## Footnote Class D fires involve combustible metals.
96
An incident can be called hazardous only when?
stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems ## Footnote This emphasizes the need for potential harm for classification as hazardous.
97
The purpose of ventilation is to dilute the _______ with air to prevent explosion and to confine the _______ mixtures.
toxic vapors; flammable ## Footnote Proper ventilation is crucial for safety in environments with hazardous chemicals.
98
Each chemical family should be separated from all other chemical families by an approved non-combustible partition or by distance of _______ ft.
Twenty ## Footnote This is a standard safety measure in chemical storage.
99
While storing chemicals in store rooms the care must be taken for the leaks, spills and _______.
drips ## Footnote Monitoring for drips is essential to prevent contamination and hazards.
100
Prevent chemicals from running down sink, flow or _______.
storm water drains ## Footnote This is important to prevent environmental contamination.
101
An inerting system is required to maintain an inert atmosphere in the _______ above the liquid.
vapour space ## Footnote Inerting systems help prevent reactions that could lead to explosions.
102
Vacuum purging is a common procedure for which of the following?
Storage vessels ## Footnote Vacuum purging is used to remove gases and vapors from storage.
103
Probability of the event that might occur X severity of the event if it occurs = _______.
Risk ## Footnote This formula is fundamental in risk assessment.
104
Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of _______.
Men, machine, work area, tools ## Footnote This is crucial for ensuring safety in the workplace.
105
Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
courtesy ## Footnote The foundation of ethics includes honesty, justice, and integrity.
106
What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods and services?
contract ## Footnote A contract outlines the terms agreed upon by the parties involved.
107
What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in engineering practice and research?
engineering ethics ## Footnote Engineering ethics addresses moral issues in the engineering profession.
108
What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the application of moral values is problematic?
moral dilemmas ## Footnote Moral dilemmas challenge individuals to weigh conflicting ethical principles.
109
What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as represented by a professional society?
code of ethics ## Footnote The code of ethics guides professional conduct in engineering.
110
A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?
all of the above ## Footnote Reasons include death of a party, failure of consideration, and mutual agreement.
111
What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is made?
a representation ## Footnote This can influence the decision to enter into a contract.
112
What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract?
condition ## Footnote Conditions are essential for the contract's enforceability.
113
What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property, emotional well-being or reputation?
tort ## Footnote Tort law addresses civil wrongs and provides remedies.
114
It is copying of one’s written research without acknowledging the author.
plagiarism ## Footnote Plagiarism is a serious ethical violation in academia.
115
It is also known as the Toxic Substances and Hazardous Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990 is also known as _______.
RA 6969 ## Footnote This act regulates hazardous substances in the Philippines.
116
Meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render.
contract ## Footnote This is a fundamental concept in contract law.
117
Initial step in the formation of a contract.
offer ## Footnote An offer is a proposal to enter into a contract.
118
The person who uses an invention for profit without the permission of the inventor is known as _______.
infringer ## Footnote Infringers violate intellectual property rights.
119
What government agency supervises the Bureau of Patents, Trademarks and Technology transfer?
DTI ## Footnote The Department of Trade and Industry oversees intellectual property matters.
120
What is an Order or Writ to secure the attendance of witnesses in connection with any administrative case before the Board of Chemical Engineering?
subpoena ## Footnote A subpoena compels witnesses to testify.
121
What is the existing integrated and accredited national organization of registered Chemical Engineers?
Philippine Institution of Chemical Engineers, Inc. ## Footnote This organization represents the profession in the Philippines.
122
This document may be issued by the Board of Chemical Engineering to a person for advanced studies and major accomplishments in research in chemical engineering.
certificate of recognition ## Footnote Recognition certificates acknowledge professional achievements.
123
An industrial plant may be considered as _______.
any entity that utilizes unit processes and unit operations ## Footnote This definition encompasses various types of industrial facilities.
124
An integrated national professional organization that is duly accredited and recognized by the corresponding Board and the PRC is referred to as _______.
Accredited Professional Organization ## Footnote Such organizations are vital for professional standards.
125
Which of the following is not included in the powers and duties of the Board of Chemical Engineering?
issue warrant of arrest for violators of RA 9297 ## Footnote The Board focuses on regulation and oversight rather than law enforcement.
126
The Board of Chemical Engineering shall complete the correction of examination papers within _______ days from the last day of examination.
20 ## Footnote Timely correction ensures fairness in the examination process.
127
It refers to that field of chemistry dealing with the synthesis, processing and use of chemicals that reduce the risks to humans and the environment.
Green Chemistry ## Footnote Green chemistry aims to minimize harmful impacts on health and the environment.
128
Vibration and radiations come under _______.
physical hazards ## Footnote Physical hazards pose risks to safety and health.
129
The warning sign below represents _______.
risk of fire ## Footnote Warning signs are crucial for safety awareness.
130
The shape of warning sign is _______.
triangular ## Footnote Triangular signs typically indicate warnings or hazards.
131
Prohibition signs are made in _______ shape.
circular ## Footnote Circular signs indicate prohibitions.
132
Which type of hard hat would provide the most protection from electrical hazards?
class E ## Footnote Class E hard hats are designed for electrical protection.
133
The type of eye protection that should be used to guard against dust particles is:
Goggles ## Footnote Goggles provide a secure fit and protect against dust and debris.
134
The class of hard hat that provides no voltage protection is:
Class C ## Footnote Class C hard hats are not rated for electrical protection.
135
Which of the following is not a hazard symbol pictogram?
Question Mark ## Footnote Hazard symbols are standardized for safety communication.
136
Class C fire extinguishers are for:
Electrical fire ## Footnote Class C extinguishers are specifically designed for electrical fires.
137
PASS stands for _______.
Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep ## Footnote This acronym is used for fire extinguisher operation.
138
The color used in construction safety signs usually is _______.
Orange ## Footnote Orange is commonly used for caution in construction zones.
139
Which one if right for fire extinguisher inspection?
All of the above ## Footnote Regular inspections ensure fire extinguishers are functional and safe.