DT & OSU Flashcards by Kylie Tabone

What is part of the Tactical Operations Model?

a. Tactical disengagement
b. Special Operations Group
c. Critical Incident Response Team
d. Riot Squad

A - Tactical disengagement

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What does the HEAR principle stand for?
A. Help, Empathise, Actively Listen, Respond
B. Help, Empathise, Actively Listen, Rapport
C. Hear them out, Empathise, Actively Listen, Rapport
D. Help, Empathise, Appreciate, Rapport

B. Help, Empathise, Actively Listen, Rapport

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What are the two kinds of offenders that Victoria Police deal with? (Select Multiple)

a. Cooperative
b. Apparently Cooperative
c. Uncooperative
d. Apparently Uncooperative

b. Apparently Cooperative
c. Uncooperative

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What are some behavioural warning signs? (Select Multiple)

a. Shrugging the shoulders
b. Standing tall
c. Accelerate breathing
d. Head dropping to protect the throat

B
C

Others include:
- subject intentionally ignoring police
- displays of excessive emotion
- exaggerated movements
- subject appears drunk or drug affected
- general level of agitation

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What below are pre-attack indicators? (Select Multiple)

a. Taking up a bladed position
b. Clenching the fists
c. Direct prolonged eye contact
d. Flaring of nostrils

A
B

Others include:
- shoulder shift
- facial wipe
- head drops down
- growl
- rocking forward and back

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What does CATCOC stand for with relation to the Effective Contacts Framework?

a. Contact, Authority, Topic, Core Dialogue, Outcome, Complete
b. Communicate, Authority, Topic, Core Dialogue, Outcome, Conclusion
c. Contact, Authority, Topic, Core Dialogue, Outcome, Conclusion
d. Contact, Authority, Talking, Core Dialogue, Outcome, Conclusion

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What are general functions of Victoria Police? (Select Multiple)
a. Preserve the peace
b. Prevent the commission of offences
c. Detect and apprehend offenders
d. Punish offenders

A
B
C

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Fill in the blanks: The operational response principle is: ? + Safety = ? Minimisation
a. Service, Harm
b. Service, Attack
c. Service, Damage
d. Service, Threat

A - Service, Harm

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What does the E in S.A.F.E. T.A.C.T.I.C.S. stand for?
a. Evaluate your escape
b. Evaluate your plan
c. Evaluate your options
d. Evaluate your team

C. Evaluate your options

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As part of the Incident Management Model, what does the R in I.C.E.N.C.I.R. stand for?
a. Report
b. Reason
c. Reconcile
d. Rehabilitate

D. Rehabilitate

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What does the RC in the HI.AR.RC. incident model stand for?

a. Risk Cordon
b. Risk Control
c. Risk Caution
d. Risk Communication

B. Risk Control

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Fill in the blank: ‘A person may use such force not______to the objective as he believes on ______grounds to be necessary to prevent the _____, continuance or completion of an______offence or to effect or assist in effecting the lawful arrest of a person _________ or suspected of committing any offence.’

a. proportionate, reasonable, commission, summary, committing
b. proportionate, reasonable, commission, indictable, committing
c. disproportionate, reasonable, commission, summary, committing
d. disproportionate, reasonable, commission, indictable, committing

B. proportionate, reasonable, commission, indictable, committing

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What below are factors affecting the level of force?

a. Age
b. Distance to offender
c. Gender
d. Prior history

A. Age
C. Gender

Others include:
Size
Fatigue
Multiple offenders
Multiple officers
Special skill
Ground position

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What does the C in R.I.S.C. stand for with regards to Use of Force Success Factors?

a. Conclusion
b. Competence
c. Caution
d. Continuation

B. Competence

R - Rapid
I - Intensity
S - Specific
C - Competency

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What below are States of Mental Awareness?

a. Condition Panic
b. Condition Complicated
c. Condition Alert
d. Condition Return

A. Condition Panic
C. Condition Alert

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What is the recommended minimum Subject Control Distance for an offender that is apparently unarmed?

a. As far as possible
b. 8 metres
c. 6 metres
d. 2 metres

D. 2 metres

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At what times would you use Field Interview Stance? (Select Multiple)

a. When dealing with an armed offender
b. When requesting an apparently cooperative suspect for identification
c. When an uncooperative offender has become aggressive
d. When assisting an elderly citizen with a request

B.
D.

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When would you use Defensive Stance? (Select Multiple)

a. When approaching a business that’s called the police in relation to a theft
b. When assisting a young child to find their parents
c. When an uncooperative offender becomes abusive and begins to approach
d. When an apparently cooperative suspect begins to approach slowly with their hands obscured behind their body

C.
D.

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What is the purpose of a front kick to the abdomen? (Select Multiple)

a. To interrupt the subjects respiration
b. To decentralise the subject
c. To cause them severe pain
d. To stop the subject’s forward momentum

A. To interrupt the subjects respiration
B. To decentralise the subject
C. To stop the subject’s forward momentum

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Place the parts of the baton in order from top to bottom as if it was on your operation belt in its scabbard.

Footnote

Threaded Handle
Tip
Shaft composed of Mid-Section and End-Section
Retaining Spring
Threaded Butt Cap

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

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What is the correct description of the Loaded Position?

The baton is held in the weapon hand at the point of the shoulder. The reaction hand is up, ready to redirect an assault. The baton may be opened or closed.

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What is not an Expandable Baton Strike?
a. Weapon strike
b. Straight strike
c. Curved strike
d. Reaction strike

B. Straight strike
D. Reaction Strike

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What is NOT a Firearm Safety Principle?
a. Never let your muzzle cross anything you aren’t willing to destroy
b. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
c. Ensure you treat all firearms with respect
d. Keep your finger off the trigger until you have formed the intention to fire
e. Be sure of your target and what is beyond it.

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What conditions must be met in order to consider a firearm unloaded?
a. There must be no magazine in the firearm
b. There must be no round in the chamber
c. A chamber safety flag must be in the weapon
d. A chamber safety flag must be in the weapon and protruding from the barrel

A
B
D.

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What is the verbal command used when drawing your firearm? A. Stop! Police! B. Get down on the Ground! C. Police Don’t Move! D. Stop or I’ll Shoot!

C. Police Don't Move!

What is the operational ammunition that Victoria Police uses? a. Fully Jacketed Projectile (FMJ) b. Jacketed Bullet Projectile (FBP) c. Jacketed Hollow Point (JHP) d. Fully Hollow Point (FHP)

c. Jacketed Hollow Point (JHP) HST3 is the only approved ammunition.

What are the three types of OC Aerosol used by Victoria Police? (Select Multiple) a. MK-3 Stream b. MK-9 Foam c. MK-6 Stream d. MK-3 Foam

a. MK-3 Stream b. MK-9 Foam d. MK-3 Foam

What is the minimum recommended distance for the MK-3 aerosols? a. 0.5 metres b. 1 metre c. 1.5 metres d. 2 metres

b. 1 metre

What is the minimum recommended distance for the MK-9 aerosols? a. 0.8 metres b. 1.3 metres c. 1.8 metres d. 2.3 metres

c. 1.8 metres

What is the maximum effective range for the MK-3 aerosols? a. 2 to 2.5 metres b. 2.5 to 3 metres c. 3 to 3.5 metres d. 3.5 to 4 metres

c. 3 to 3.5 metres

What is the maximum effective range for the MK-9 aerosols? a. 4.5 to 6 metres b. 5.6.5 metres c. 5.5 to 7 metres d. 6 to 7.5 metres

a. 4.5 to 6 metres

What below is not a consideration when checking canisters on issue? a. Unit is not damaged b. Weight of the canister is correct for aerosol c. Correct warning labels have been applied d. Contents are verified

c. Correct warning labels have been applied

For indoor use of the OC Aerosol, what factors need to be considered? a. Room size b. Exits c. Air condition d. Ceiling height

A B C

For outdoor use of OC Aerosol, what factors need to be considered? a. Entrances b. Wind c. Terrain d. Bystanders

B C D

What is a question you must ask of all persons affected by OC Aerosols? a. Do you wear contact lenses? b. Are you having any respiration issues? c. Do you have asthma? d. Do you require water to assist with the pain?

A C

For persons affected by OC Aerosol Medical attention must be provided if: a. The persons affected complain about pain b. The persons affected do not recover within a reasonable time c. The persons affected ask for medical attention d. The persons affected complain of a medical condition

B C D

When restraining persons affected by OC Aerosol, should they be left lying face down? True or False

False

What form are Victoria Police members required to fill out when reporting use of force? a. Self Defence Form b. Use of Powers Form c. Use of Force Form d. Reasonable Use of Form Form

C. Use of Force Form (VP Form 237)

How long should it take for the effects of OC Aerosol to wear off? a. 15 mins b. 30 mins c. 45 mins d. 60 mins

C. 45 mins

What is Positional Asphyxia most simply defined as: "When the position of a person's body interferes with respiration, resulting in death from asphyxia or suffocating.” True or False

True

What are some of the risk factors of Positional Asphyxia? a. Obesity b. Level of Fitness c. Psychosis d. Multiple Offenders

A C

What is the optimal position for a cooperative person's hands when placing handcuffs? a. On their head with fingers interlaced b. Behind their back with fingers interlaced c. Behind their back with palms together d. Behind their back with palms facing out

D. Palms facing out

What is one alternative position for handcuffing a cooperative person?

Behind their back with palms facing out

What is another alternative position for handcuffing a cooperative person?

On their head with fingers interlaced

What is a less common position for handcuffing a cooperative person?

Behind their back with fingers interlaced

The purpose of Defence Tactics training is to develop skills and knowledge in members that will enable them to:

- avoid physical conflict - resolve physical conflict - defend themselves and others against attack - act in accordance with both statutory and departmental requirements

Crimes Act 1958 - Section 322K refers to what?

Self defence legislation. A person is not guilty of an offence if the person carries out the conduct constituting the offence in self defence. Only applies in the case of murder or necessary to defend from the infliction of death or really serious injury.

Crimes Act 1958 - 463B refers to what?

Prevention of suicide. Every person is justified in using such force as may be reasonably necessary to prevent commission of suicide.

S.A.F.E. T.A.C.T.I.C.S - Describe this operational safety tool

S - slow down A - assess risks F - formulate a plan E - evaluate your options T - take charge A - apply relevant legislation and policy C - create a safe working environment T - tactical options I - information gathering C - communicate S - support

What are 3 available tactical options available to members to help resolve physical conflict?

- effective comms - team tactics - restraint and control techniques - ASP Baton - firearm - oleoresin capsicum aerosol tactics - unarmed impact techniques

Safe Tactics - Turn an unplanned incident into a planned response. What does HI AR RC stand for?

HI - Hazard Identification AR - Assess Risk RC - Risk Control

The Tactical Options Model (TOM) supports MOPF in their decision making process. The inner circle relates to which 2 tactical options:

Safety first Assess and reassess

How far is the danger zone of assault / control distances for: a. Apparently unarmed b. Edged weapon or club

a. 2 meters or more b. 6 meters or more

What are the 3 holster types?

Hip Drop shank Thigh

Members are to locate, face and state ‘safe direction’ every time they draw a firearm. True or False?

True

List 3 major safety breaches when using a firearm during training:

- unauthorised discharge of a firearm against procedure - throwing a loaded firearm - intentionally pointing a weapon at another person loaded or not

What are the below characteristics of operational ammunition: Max effective range Max lethal range Projectile weight Ammunition rotation

Magazine capacity - 15 rounds (and 15 on your belt) Max effective range - 50 metres Max lethal range - less than 1km Projectile weight - 165 grams Ammunition rotation - every 12 mths

What are the three V’s in effective communication?

Verbal (words) Visual (body language) Vocal (tone of voice)

There are 4 verbal techniques to assist in defusing a conflict. 1. Pace 2. Volume ? ?

Pitch Tone

The HEAR principle = active listening. What is it?

Help Empathise Actively Listen Rapport

In the 8 step tactical comms process what is the dialogue if the offender has a weapon?

Show me your hands / Drop your weapon!

In the 8 step tactical comms process what is the first step / how do we get offenders attention?

Police! Don’t move!

What does Crimes Act 322K refer to?

Self defence

What does Crimes Act 463B refer to?

Prevention of suicide

What does Crimes Act 462A refer to?

Use of force

Upon arrival at a scene there are four things that ensure safety - Threat / Time / Distance and ?

Cover

Tactical Options Model (TOM) is to assist members in choosing the right tactical option. Name 4 tactical options available:

Cordon and manage Presence OC Aerosols Baton Tactical disengagement Forearm Negotiation Empty hand tactics Other weapons

Lost 3 factors that affect level of force used:

Size Age Gender Multiple offenders Multiple police Fatigue Proximity of offender to firearm Special knowledge Special skill

What is the Contact in Contact and Cover?

The Contact member interacts with the primary subject.

Baton areas to avoid. Name 3:

Face Head Throat Abdomen Kidney region Spleen region Groin Joints

DT & OSU Flashcards

(70 cards)