DVT ToK Questions Flashcards by Tobryn Prior

What are suitable topical treatments for herpes labialis in adults?

Aciclovir Cream

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Before which of the following treatments should warfarinised patients have their INR checked?
a. Recording a BPE
b. Orthograde endodontics
c. Biopsy
d. Impressions for a partial denture
e. Detailed 6 point full periodontal examination
f. Supragingival scaling of calculus

c. Biopsy
e. Detailed 6 point full periodontal examination

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What should you administer if an adult patient developed anaphylaxis while in your surgery?

Adrenaline 0.5ml (1:1000) by intramuscular injection

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Each health board maintains a ‘dental list’ of those dentists providing general dental services within the board. Which of the following is true?
a. the ‘dental list’ contains the names of both individual dentists providing direct patient care as well as dental bodies corporate who may manage those providing that care.
b. a dentist can only be listed with one health board at any given time
c. a dentist can list with a health board for the provision of emergency treatment only.
d. when a dentist resigns from a ‘dental list’ their unused annual leave is taken account of when determining their final payment through their NHS schedule

A and C

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Which of the following are true in relation to employer’s liability insurance:
a. You much be covered for at least £5million
b. You may be fined £2500 for every day that you are not adequately insured
c. A hard copy must be provided to all employees
d. Certificates must be retained for 40 years
e. The policy may be purchased through an insurance broker

A, B and E

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Which of the following is not one of the five steps of a Health and Safety Risk assessment:
a. Review you assessment and update as necessary
b. Submit your risk assessments to the health board dental practice adviser (DPA)
c. Decide who might be harmed and how
d. Identify the hazards
e. Record you findings and take appropriate action
f. Evaluate the risks and decide on precautions (controls)

B. You do not need to submit your risk assessments to the health board dental practice adviser (DPA)

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When an adult does not have the capacity to consent to treatment and has no proxy, which of the following are authorised to provide treatment, subject to certain safeguards an exceptions:
a. the patient’s son or daughter
b. a certificate of incapacity by any dental practitioner on the current General Dental Council register
c. a close friend or relative with great affinity with the patient
d. a certificate of incapacity issued by the doctor primarily responsible for the patients care

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Which of the following is true. Team leading the helpers during medical emergency in the dental practice:
a. includes taking into account the abilities and physical limitations of team members.
b. requires team members communicating important observations (e.g. faulty equipment) to the leader
c. should only be done by the practice owner or principal dentist for legal reasons
d. Should always be done by the team leader actively performing a task (eg ventilation) to demonstrate their commitment
e. is not required if all members of staff are fully qualified

A and B

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When designing a risk assessment for your workplace you must:
a, Copy the standard template provided by the Health and Safety Executive
b. Look at what you are currently doing to control the risk
c. Identify what further action you need to take to control the risk
d. Identify who might be harmed and why

B, C, D

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Select all that apply, Transmission Based Precautions are categorised into:
a. Aerosol
b. Droplet
c. Airborne
d. Contact

B, C, D

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If a patient regains consciousness following administration of glucagon, they should also be given 10-20 grams of oral glucose. True or False?

True

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A radiographic report for a patient undergoing periodontal assessment should include:
a. The presence of any furcation defects
b. The degree of bone loss
c. Location of maxillary sinuses
d. The type of bone loss - horizontal or angular
e. Presence of sub-gingival calculus

A, B, D, E

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If a patient requiring defibrillation is lying on a wet surface:
a. No shock should be delivered until the patient has been lifted and the area dried.
b. The rescuer should hold the patient’s arm using a rubber glove in order to earth the current.
c. All rescuers must stand up when a shock is being delivered
d. Oxygen should remain attached to the patient while the shock is delivered.
e. Defibrillation is safe so long as the rescuer is not in contact with the patient.

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An unregistered patient with toothache makes an appointment and subsequently comes into the surgery and sits down in the dental chair when called. What treatment can you carry out without obtaining further consent?:
a. Scale and Polish
b. Extraction
c. Root treatment
d. Examination of the teeth and oral soft tissues
e. Dressing tooth
f. Taking X-ray

D only

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The dental nurse you have just interviewed and appointed then informs you that she is 2 months pregnant. What should you do?
a. Provide them with a written contract within the normal time frame.
b. Offer the newly appointed nurse a written contract of employment after the birth of their baby.
c. Contact your second choice candidate from your list and offer them the job instead.
d. Inform the unsuccessful candidates that you appreciated their attendance at interview but that they were unfortunately unsuccessful.
e. Inform the newly appointed nurse that you cannot guarantee their Health and Safety during their pregnancy and allow them to reconsider their acceptance of the job offer.

A and D

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A patient attends a scheduled appointment to complete the planned root treatment of an upper incisor tooth. The patient has mild symptoms of periapical periodontitis associated with this tooth, but the tooth is not broken. You decide to complete the treatment as planned. As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are claimable within this visit?
a. Item 3(f) – Endodontic Treatment ( Incisor/Canine/Lower Premolar)
b. Item 1(d) – Intra-oral Radiograph
c. Item 1(b) - Review Examination
d. Item 1(c) – Unscheduled Assessment and Treatment

A and B

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According to the SDR, a permanent fixed bridge would not normally be provided until which of the following post-extraction periods has elapsed?

6 Months

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When should midazolam be administered during a suspected epileptic fit?
a. After 10 min continuous fitting
b. As soon as possible
c. After 5 min continuous fitting
d. When the ambulance arrives

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The GDC has identified a number of areas which “are highly recommended to do as part of the minimum verifiable CPD requirement” What are these areas?
a. Oral cancer: improving and early detection
b. Risk management
c. Complaint handling
d. Legal and ethical issues
e. Medical emergencies
f. Disinfection and decontamination
g. Radiography and radiation protection

E, F, G

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Following a reaction to the administration of local anaesthetic, anaphylaxis can be excluded if there is no visible rash. True or false?

False

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The hygienist at the practice is able to carry out normal day to day activities, but suffers from a mental impairment. This is defined as a disability under the Equality Act 2010. True or False

False

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Which of the following is/are true regarding sterilisation of dental instruments?
a. An N type autoclave assures sterilisation of handpieces
b. When purchasing new handpieces you should ensure that they can withstand thermal disinfection and steam sterilisation
c. Automated handpiece cleaning machines are an effective means of disinfecting handpieces.

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Which of the following are true regarding patients taking Clopidogrel requiring an extraction of two adjacent upper premolar teeth
a. Stop medication on day of Extraction
b. Perform extraction as normal with extra haemostatic precautions
c. Expect prolonged bleeding
d. Stop medication 2 days before planned extraction

B and C

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Cardiac compressions during CPR in an adult, should be interrupted every 4 minutes to check for signs of life. True or false?

False

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You need to recruit a replacement dental nurse. The previous employee had multiple absences leading to a disruption in the service the practice provides and so you wish to avoid a recurrence. As a preventative measure and to improve the service the practice provides you ask questions about the applicants’ health and absences from work. This is: a. Acceptable b. Illegal under the Equality Act 2010

What is/are the correct procedure(s) for dealing with a needlestick/sharps injury? a. Apply a tourniquet b. Contact your local Occupational Health Service (OHS) to discuss the incident and, where necessary, ask them for appropriate advice and follow up. c. Suck the wound d. Wash with warm water and soap e. Record incident in accident book f. Encourage bleeding

b, d, e, f

A claim for orthodontic assessment should be written on which form?

GP17 (O)

A dental patient with no cardiovascular medical history suddenly complains of chest pain. Anxiety of the patient can have adverse physiological effects. True or False?

True

A patient undergoes a dental procedure during which local anaesthetic is used. Shortly afterwards he complains of difficulty in breathing with an audible wheeze and a swollen tongue. He is sweaty, the pulse rate is 110’ (regular), capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Salbutamol is the first-line drug in this situation. True or false?

False

If patients are taking oral bisphosphonate a. You should prescribe 0.2% Chlorhexidine mouthwash to be used three times daily for 7 days following extraction b. Following an extraction, if the socket is not healed at 3 weeks it should be referred to an oral surgery specialist as per local protocols c. Straight forward extractions should be performed in primary care d. Patients should be prescribed an antibiotic before any extractions e. If you suspect a patient has spontaneous MRONJ it should be reviewed for 3 months before being referred to a specialist

Which of the following are appropriate short term interventions for painful oral ulceration? a. Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in an adult b. Application of an aspirin tablet dissolved slowly at the ulceration site c. Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in a child under 6 years old d. Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in a child under 12 years old e. Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in an adult f. Application of a paste made from equal parts of an aspirin and a paracetamol tablet, dissolved slowly at the ulceration site

A and E

How frequently should members of the dental team familiarise themselves with the local rules? a. on starting employment b. every 2 years c. 6 monthly d. Annually

A and D

As an employer, PAYE and NI records for staff should be retained for how long after the end of the tax year they relate to? a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 9 years d. 11 years e. Indefinately

Which antimicrobial would you NOT prescribe to a 9 year old child? a. Amoxicillin b. Erythromycin c. Doxycycline d. Metronidazole e. Phenoxymethylpenicillin

c. Doxycycline

You wish to prescribe miconazole for a patient with angular cheilitis. This may be contraindicated in patients who are also taking which of the following? a. Statins b. Warfarin c. Penicillin d. Aspirin e. Oral Contraceptives

A and B - statins and warfarin

In a healthy adult patient with a localised dental abscess with no evidence of spreading infection or systemic involvement, which of the following is appropriate first line treatment? a. drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals and prescribe amoxicillin b. Prescribe amoxicillin c. drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals d. Prescribe Pen V e. drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals and prescribe Pen V

C. drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals

How should amalgam waste be disposed of? a. posted to a recycling centre for refining b. put into a sharps box c. put into medical waste container d. uplifted by a recognised waste collector e. bury underground

d. Uplifted by a recognised waste collector

Which statement is FALSE? In the situation where there is a known cardiac arrest: a. under no circumstances should you leave the patient alone b. the compression to ventilation ratio in an adult is 15:2 c. with an adult patient, a lone helper should prioritise calling 999 ahead of starting chest compressions d. compressions may need to be interrupted briefly to apply an external defibrillator e. effective chest compressions may lead to rib fractures

Which of the following antimicrobials is known to have a profound interaction with alcohol? a. Erythromycin b. Metronidazole c. Amoxicillin d. Co-amoxiclav e. Phenoxymethylpenicillin

B. Metronidazole

A 54 year old patient attends who is very anxious about dental treatment and asks if it's possible to prescribe something to manage their anxiety. After discussing it with the patient you decide that you are going to prescribe Diazepam. You should a. Only prescribe the minimum number required b. Advise the patient to take 5mg 2 hours before the procedure c. Advise the patient that it's OK to drive to the appointment if they don't feel drowsy after taking the medication d. Double up the dose if they are having an extraction e. Advise the patient to take 5mg 1 hour before the procedure f. Start them with a 10mg dose and increase or decrease depending on how they feel

A and B a. Only prescribe the minimum number required b. Advise the patient to take 5mg 2 hours before the procedure

In patients with severe pericoronitis, including persistent swelling or systemic involvement, an appropriate first line antibiotic is a. Phenoxymethyl penicillin 500mg four times daily for 3 days b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin 500mg, four times daily for 5 days c. Metronidazole 400mg three times daily for 3 days d. Metronidazole tablets 400mg three times daily for 5 days

C. Metronidazole 400mg three times daily for 3 days

Under the Data Protection Act 2018, which of the following may be found liable for a breach of confidentiality in relation to the inappropriate disclosure of a patient’s records? a. Dental Nurse b. Dental Receptionist c. Dental Hygienist d. Dentist

All are correct

Which of the following statements is or are true about verifiable CPD from the 1st of January 2018? a. Registered Dental Technicians do not have to do any verifiable CPD. b. Dentists are required to undertake a minimum of 100 hours in the 5 year cycle. c. The principle of the following cycle underpins the GDC's recommended approach to CPD: "Plan, do, reflect record." d. CPD should meet one or more of the GDC's specified "development outcomes". e. Dental Therapists and Dental Hygienists require to do a minimum of 80 Hours verifiable CPD in their GDC 5 year cycle.

B, C, D

If a retiring NHS GDP cannot find another dentist to take on patients, what happens? a. A locum GDP has to be found b. It is the patient's responsibility to find themselves a new dentist. c. Health Board takes over responsibility d. Retiring GDP has to stay on and provide cover

For consent to be obtained from an NHS registered patient, you need to ensure that: a. Only options available under NHS regulations are discussed. b. You do not pressurise the patient into making a decision. c. The patient has obtained independent advice before proceeding. d. All reasonable treatment options have been discussed. e. The patient understands the likely outcome of all options proposed.

B, D, E

A ‘domiciliary care dentist’ is eligible for payments for all treatments they provide in their assigned care home, in addition to a Care and Treatment Allowance, Equipment Allowance and payments under SDR item 8 'Domiciliary Visit and Recalled Attendance', true or false?

True

When recording consent, which of the following statements should always apply? a. Any antisocial habits be noted b. The records should include medical history, any radiographs taken c. Accurate and legible records be kept d. Notes on patient discussions should be made

B, C, D

You are left with a half used cartridge of local anaesthetic after a procedure. What should you do? a. Dispose of it down the sink b. Put it into the special waste container c. Place it carefully in the general waste container d. Dispose of in a rigid "yellow stream" container with a blue lid e. Use it for the next patient

Under the Equality Act 2010, age is protected characteristic only for those over 75. True or false?

False

A patient has verbally threatened members of staff, the police have been involved, and you no longer want to see them at the practice. What notice must be given to the Health Board for termination of the continuing care arrangement? a. 3 month's verbal notice only b. 1 month's written notice, followed up in writing within 3 months c. 1 month's verbal notice only d. Immediate verbal notice only e. Verbal notice at time of incident followed up in writing within 7 days f. 3 month's written notice

A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. Cyanosis may be seen, even if the patient has no underlying respiratory disease. True or false?

True

Which of the following authorities are allowed to routinely inspect NHS patients of GDS and PDS dentists and report on the standard of clinical treatment which has been provided? a. The Health Board Dental Practice Adviser b. The Scottish Dental Reference Service c. Representatives of a defence union d. Health Inspectorate Scotland e. Dental Hospital consultants on referral only

Following a needlestick injury, what is the first thing that should be done? a. Tell the patient b. Tell the principal / VT Trainer c.Put pressure on the wound to stop the bleeding d. Clean the wound with alcohol gel e. Encourage bleeding by squeezing above the wound and wash injury thoroughly with warm water and soap

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, is there an upper age restriction on the application of fluoride varnish?

Which of the following are required to be registered with the GDC a. Qualified dental nurse b. LDU technician c. Clinical dental technician d. Trainee dental nurse e. Practice manager

A and C

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, what is the maximum number of additional periodontal visits claimable under item 2(e) in any single course of treatment? a. 4 b. 1 c. 3 d. 2

C. 3

You are half way through a root treatment and the patient wishes to stop due to it being very painful. You are aware that it would be beneficial for the patient to complete the treatment. Should you: a. Stop immediately and make an appointment for the extraction b. Insist the patient completes the treatment c. Document all discussions in the patients notes d. Stop treatment, but explain the possible risks and consequences of not continuing treatment and highlight that the patient is responsible for future problems

C and D

At what point should waste be segregated? a. The disposal contractor will segregate the waste b. At the end of the session c. Immediately before waste containers are sealed d. The point at which it is generated

D. the point at which it is generated

The GDC requires which insurance for dentists to practice? a. Public Liability Insurance b. Professional Indemnity Insurance c. Employers Liability Insurance d. Life assurance e. Accident and Sickness Insurance

According to the NHS GDS 2010 Regulations how many hours of quality improvement activities must a dentist working within the NHS GDS do in a three-year period? a. None b. 3 hours c. 15 hours d. 25 hours

C. 15 hours

Following treatment by a dentist, the person responsible for the recording of treatment undertaken on that visit is: a. The Receptionist b. The Practice Manager c. The Dental Nurse d. The Dentist who performed the procedure e. Any of the above

D. The dentist who performed the procedure

Who has primary responsibility for a VDP's dental notes being written up correctly? a. Trainer b. Practice Principal c. Practice Manager d. VDP e. Dental Nurse

D. VDP

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, amalgam should normally be provided for the restoration of retained deciduous molar teeth. True or false?

False

The subscription fee to some Professional Indemnity Organisations...?: a. Cost can vary according to the type of treatment provided b. Is cheaper after the age of 55 c. Is included in your registration with the General Dental Council d. Is free for the first year post Vocational Training e. Is allowable as an expense for tax purposes

A and E

How often can adrenaline be administered to a patient in anaphylaxis? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 2 minutes c. Every ten minutes d. Every 20 minutes

A. Every 5 minutes

A child does not want orthodontic treatment. His parents or legal guardians want their child to have straight teeth and a perfect smile and insist he is treated. You have...? a. Consent to provide all orthodontic treatment agreed with parents b. Consent to provide orthodontic treatment with removable appliances only c. No consent to provide orthodontic treatment for him d. Consent to extract teeth to provide space but not to proceed to appliance therapy

C. No consent

You have a patient who requests the provision of a porcelain veneer for a discoloured upper incisor tooth. No other treatment is needed. Which of the following is is the correct way to proceed according to the SDR? a. Write referral letter for consultant opinion to support your NHS treatment plan b. Arrange an appointment for preparation c. Explain to the patient that this cannot be provided under NHS arrangements d. Consider all upper anterior teeth for veneers e. Seek Prior Approval for this restoration

Automated external defibrillation use in dental practice should be administered, if possible, by trained staff and usually requires removal of patient's clothing. True or false?

True

Which of the following are true of NHS assistant dentists? Assistants: a. Agree their basic terms and conditions with the dentist for whom they are contracted including hours of work and rates of pay. b. Must have all treatment planned and prescribed by another dentist. c. Providing NHS care do so under an NHS list number attributed to another dentist. d. Cannot provide treatment under sedation. e. Enjoy the same range of employment rights as an employee.

A, C, E

With appropriate training, which of the following roles can dental nurses undertake under IR(ME)R 2017? a. Referrer b. Operator c. Organiser d. Prescriber

A patient is 15 years of age with no special medical or dental needs, and requires a DO restoration in a lower first molar. It would be appropriate to provide a composite restoration under NHS regulations: True or False?

False

According to the most recently updated maternity legislation which of the following are true for pregnant employees? a. Staff members on returning to work must return to the same job with the same pay and working hours. b. All pregnant staff members are entitled to 52 weeks paid maternity leave. c. Undertaking any work related activity during maternity leave will automatically forfeit maternity pay. d. To qualify for maternity pay a pregnant staff member must tell her employer by the 15th week before the expected week of childbirth that she is pregnant.

D. To qualify for maternity pay a pregnant staff member must tell her employer by the 15th week before the expected week of childbirth that she is pregnant.

Which statements are true regarding the situation below? Select those that apply: A patient is about to have a dental procedure. When getting up from the chair in the waiting room they collapse. a. It may be appropriate not to call an ambulance if the collapse is brief (less than 1 minute) and the patient fully recovers b. Adrenaline i.m. should be given immediately c. The collapse may have been caused by sudden drop in cerebral perfusion d. Elevating the legs of the patient may be appropriate e. There are no safety considerations for the helpers in this situation

A, C, D

Routine management of patients at increased risk but who do not require antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infective endocarditis should include: a. Removal of all teeth of poor prognosis b. Going against the advice of the patient's cardiologist who recommends providing antibiotic prophylaxis as they won't have read the SDCEP guidance. c. Ensuring the patient and/or carer is aware of the risk of developing infective endocarditis d. Avoiding carrying out BPEs e. Oral hygiene instruction

C and E

Patients who are exempt from payment of NHS Charges include patients who: a. all patients with a certified diagnosis of diabetes. b. are under 26 years old. c. are over 65 years old. d. are pregnant or nursing mothers until their baby is 12 months old. e. have certified exemption from payment because of low income.

B, D, E

Which of the following options are suitable to treat a 13-year-old child presenting with mild to moderate toothache? a. Paracetamol tablets (500mg), 2 tablets four times daily b. Paracetamol tablets (500mg), 1 tablets four times daily c. Dihydrocodeine tablets (30mg), 2 tablets four times daily d. Aspirin dispersible tablets (300mg), 2 tablets four times daily e. Ibuprofen oral suspension (100mg/5ml), 100mg (5ml) four times daily f. Ibuprofen oral suspension (100mg/5ml), 300mg (15ml) four times daily

B and E

What advice would you give a patient with mucosal ulceration to whom you have prescribed chlorhexidine mouthwash? a. Spit out after rinsing b. Use twice daily c. Use directly after toothbrushing d. Use until lesions have resolved

A and B

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is / are true about fissure sealants? a. Fissure sealants must be placed using a clear unfilled resin b. Fissure sealants should be maintained to ensure their integrity c. Fissure sealants can only ever be placed within two years of eruption of a molar, or hypoplastic premolar tooth d. A claim may be made for replacement of a failed fissure sealant if 23 months have elapsed since the last claim and the patient has special care needs

A and D

Some complaints require relatively little investigation. You should aim to complete such an Early Stage resolution within: a. 2 working days b. 14 working days c. 5 working days d. 7 working days

C. 5 working days

Which of the following procedures can a Dental Therapist carry out either directly or under the prescription of a Dentist? a. Carry out oral cancer screening b. Place preformed crowns on deciduous teeth c. Prescribe radiographs d. Administer infiltration and inferior dental block anaesthesia e. Carry out simple (non surgical) extractions on adults

A, B, C, D

Which of the following is true when assessing if a patient is at risk of MRONJ a. The risk is reduced if the patient is taking Alendronic Acid with Prednisolone b. There is no evidence that MRONJ risk will be reduced if the patient permanently stops taking bisphosphonate drugs prior to invasive dental procedures c. Patients taking Zoledronic acid for treatment of cancer are at higher risk d. If the patient is currently taking Denosumab they are at increased risk. e. Anti-angiogenic drugs are not thought to remain in the body for extended periods of time

B, C, D

What must be provided in terms of first aid in every dental practice? a. An appropriate first aid box b. An appointed person c. Adrenaline and Salbutamol Inhalers for treatment of allergic response d. Details and location of local A+E department. e. Paracetamol tablets

A and B

When should each Dental Unit Water Line be flushed? a. Only at the beginning of each clinical session. b. Only at the beginning and end of each working day. c. Following an Aerosol Generating Procedure only. d. At the start and the end of each working day and between patients.

D. At the start and the end of each working day (for 2-4 mins) and between patients (for 30 secs)

Which of the following are GDC registered dentists required to do annually?: a. Make an indemnity declaration b. Attend practice meetings c. Pay the ARF by 31st Dec d. Complete a CPD statement e. Complete appraisal

A, C, D

Which of these dental procedures is/are at low-risk of post-operative bleeding complications? a. Direct restorations with subgingival margins b. Simple extractions (1-3 teeth with restricted wound size) c. Periodontal surgery d. Root surface debridement and subgingival scaling

A, B, D

Miconazole cream 2% for angular chelitis can: a. be applied twice daily to the angles of the mouth b. be given to patients on statins c. be given to patients on warfarin d. be prescribed to children

A and D

Which of the following have anti-fungal properties? a Fluconazole b. Miconazole c. Nystatin d. Metronidazole e. Chlorhexidine

A, B, C, E

A patient attends for the provision of F/F dentures but does not return after the try-in stage. What is the minimum number of complete calendar months from when the patient last attended that you should wait before claiming your fee? a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months e. 12 months

B - 2 complete calendar months

According to SDCEP, which of the following dental procedures carry a higher risk of bleeding complications? a. Root surface debridement b. Periradicular surgery c. Dental implant surgery d. Extraction of 2 incisor teeth e. Inferior dental block administration

B, C

An appropriate prescribing regime for a patient with angular cheilitis is? a. Aciclovir 800mg tablets should be prescribed 5 times a day for 7 days b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin 250mg x2 QID c. Miconazole cream 2% applied to the angles of the mouth twice daily d. Sodium fusidate ointment 2% apply to angles of mouth 4 times daily

C and D

Which of these is appropriate treatment of mucosal ulceration in a 10-year-old: a. Benzydamine Oromucosal Spray 0.15%. 4 sprays onto affected area every 1 ½ hours b. Doxycycline Dispersible Tablets. One tablet dissolved in water and rinsed around the mouth for 2 minutes four times daily for three days c. Benzydamine Mouthwash 0.15%. Rinse or gargle using 15ml every 1 ½ hours as required d. Betamethasone Soluble Tablets 500microgramms. I tablet dissolved in 10ml water as a mouthwash four times daily e. Clenil Modulite, 50 micrograms/ metered inhalation (beclomethasone pressurised inhalation, CFC free). 1-2 puffs directed onto ulcers twice daily

A and E

In patients with severe pericoronitis, including persistent swelling or systemic involvement, an appropriate first line antibiotic is a. Metronidazole 400mg three times daily for 3 days b. Metronidazole tablets 400mg three times daily for 5 days c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin 500mg, four times daily for 5 days d. Phenoxymethyl penicillin 500mg four times daily for 3 days

A. Metronidazole 400mg three times daily for 3 days

In a 23 year old patient with severe ANUG a. An appropriate drug regimen would be Metronidazole tablets 400mg, three times daily for 3 days b. You should ensure you and your nurse wear an FFP3 mask due to possible inhalation of Fusobacteria c. An appropriate drug regimen would be Metronidazole tablets 400mg, three times daily for 5 days d. Metronidazole should only be prescribed if the patient has underlying immunodeficiencies e. You should avoid ultrasonic scaling as it may be too painful

a. An appropriate drug regimen would be Metronidazole tablets 400mg, three times daily for 3 days

Which of the following is an appropriate antifungal medication for a patient taking warfarin? a. Penicillin b. Metronidazole c. Miconazole d. Fluconazole e. Nystatin

E. Nystatin

Which of the following financial allowances may a dentist working within the NHS GDS claim? a. Pressure vessel insurance. b. Quality improvement c. CPDA at approved courses. d. Staff sick pay. e. Practice insurance.

B and C

A contract to provide NHS dentistry between a patient and a dentist may be terminated in which of the following circumstances?: a. By immediate de-registration because patient violent (with police involvement) b. When the patient changes their address c. By dentist giving Health Board 3 months notice d. When transferring patient to another dentist

A, C, D

The GDC website lists the circumstances under which registrants are exempt from declaring that they have indemnity or insurance. True or False?

False

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, if a patient fails to return for treatment where a laboratory made appliance such as a crown or denture has been started but not fitted, how long must the appliance be kept beyond the date of payment of the incomplete fee? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 24 months d. 3 months

B. 12 Months

Sharps boxes must: a. Be disposed of when the manufacturers’ fill line is reached or following 6 months of assembly (whichever is first) b. Have a temporary closure mechanism, which must be employed when the box is not in use c. Be labelled with date of assembly, point of origin and date of closure. d. Be disposed of immediately if it contains a needle which was used on a carrier of Hepatitis B e. Be disposed of when the manufacturer’s fill line is reached

B, C, E

A Provisional Crown may only be claimed under item 4(a), as defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, as a necessary palliative treatment where a patient attends for unscheduled care with a broken tooth, a lost filling, or a lost crown. True or False?

True

GDPR gives data subjects which of the following a. the right to complain to the Information Commissioner b. the right to object to processing in certain circumstances c. the right to restrict processing in certain circumstances d. the right to withdraw consent at any time (where relevant) e. the opportunity to access limited information belonging to others upon payment of an appropriate fee

A, B, C, D

Which statements are true? Select those that apply: A patient undergoes a dental procedure during which local anaesthetic is used. Shortly afterwards he complains of difficulty in breathing with an audible wheeze and a swollen tongue. He is sweaty, the pulse rate is 110' (regular), capillary refill time is 4 seconds. a. Anaphylaxis can be excluded is if there no visible rash b. Chlorphenamine is the first-line drug in this situation c. Salbutamol is the first-line drug in this situation d. The A-E approach should be followed e. Cardiac arrest may occur and the dental team should prepare for this

D and E

Under current NHS regulations, what percentage of the gross NHS fee (below the maximum patient charge) do non-exempt adult patients have to pay for a simple extraction?

80%

A valid claim for treatment under item 2(a) Enhanced preventive advice and treatment ( including Childsmile ) must include: a. Alcohol and smoking cessation advice b. Oral hygiene demonstration c. Dietary advice d. PMPR

Which of the following statements are correct? To successfully make a claim for maternity payments within the SDR a dentist must:- a. Complete a GP203 form b. Transfer registration of their patients to another dentist c. Only be taking a maximum of 6 months maternity leave d. Have been included on a dental list in Scotland for at least 2 years e. Be working full time

A, B, D

Which of the following is/are true of the Health and Safety at Work Act (HSW act)? a. Self employed contractors excluded from the terms of the act whilst on the premises b. Employees of utility companies or suppliers are covered by the act whilst on the premises c. All employed staff are covered by the act whilst on the practice premises d. The practice owner can claim exemption from the terms of the act e. Clinical treatment of patients is covered under the terms of the act

B, C

Under the Public Services Reform (the Scottish Public Services Ombudsman) Healthcare and Whistleblowing Order 2020, who can raise a concern about NHS services a. Current NHS employees b. Trainees and students c. Former NHS employees d. Current employees in a private healthcare setting e. NHS volunteers

A, B, C, E

The maximum duration for a certificate of incapacity is: a. 4 years depending on the nature of the treatment. b. 1 year depending on the nature of the treatment. c. 3 years depending on the nature of the illness. d. 1 year depending on the nature of the illness.

What is the minimum number of staff working in a practice (including associates and DCPs) for it to have to undertake a written Health and Safety Policy? c. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 e. 50

A. 5

According to SDCEP guidance, which of the following are indications for giving midazolam in the event of an epileptic seizure (select all that apply) a. The seizures recur in quick succession b. The patient appears "floppy" after a seizure c. The patient appears cyanosed during the seizure d. The patient appears confused following the seizure e. The convulsive seizures last longer than 5 minutes

A and E

When considering apportionment of fees in an associate agreement, a ‘sliding scale’: a. is defined, monitored and regulated by the BDA. b. may be renegotiated by mutual consent. c. allows the principal, at the start of each month, to determine the percentage of the fees given to the associate. d. is illegal under NHS regulations. e. allows the associate, at the start of each month to determine the percentage of the fees given to the principal. f. is agreed between the associate and the principal at the start of the term of the Associate Agreement.

B and F

If antibiotics are indicated to treat a spreading infection due to pericoronitis in an adult patient, which is the preferred first line antibiotic? a. Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. b. Metronidazole tablets 400mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days c. Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. d. Metronidazole tablets 200mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days e. Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days f. Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days

For a patient who has suffered a shock-able arrest, five minutes delay before defibrillation reduces the chances of survival: a. Not all at provided effective chest compressions and 15l/min oxygen via an Ambu bag are given b. by approximately 50% c. Not at all provided effective chest compressions are given d. by approximately 5% e. by approximately 10%

If a patient is hypoglycaemic and becomes unconscious or uncooperative, which of the following are indicated a. i.v. glucagon b. i.m adrenaline c. i.m. glucagon

C. IM glucagon

The following measures are recommended to minimise the risk of osteonecrosis in patients who take bisphosphonate drugs undergoing invasive dental procedures: a. Ask the patient to temporarily stop taking bisphosphonates b. Ask the patient to permanently stop taking bisphosphonates c. Give the patient an antibiotic to take 24 hours before the procedure d. Give the patient an antibiotic to take 24 hours before and for three days following the procedure e. None of the above

E. None of the above

For which of the following proposed dental treatments is written consent necessary according to GDC regulations? a. Toothbrushing instruction and polish b. Endodontic treatment under dental dam c. Extractions under inhalation sedation d. Fillings under local analgesia e. Simple extractions under local analgesia f. Fillings under inhalation sedation g. Fillings and extractions under general anaesthesia

C, F, G

Who has responsibility for explaining the risks of a general anaesthetic for dental treatment to a patient or parent?: a. The Hospital/Community Dentist who assesses the patient b. The treating Dentist c. The referring GDP d. The Dental Nurse e. The receptionist

A, B, C

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, claims for the replacement of failed fissure sealants for patients with special care needs can only be made where the patient is under 18 years of age. True or False?

a. True b. False

Following a DRO examination of an NHS dental patient, a code 4 or D would indicate which of the following? a. The Dental Reference Officer has concerns relating to the clinical care provided or proposed that are of such concern that the matter should be discussed with/referred to the Health Board b. There are some areas of concern about the clinical care but Practitioner Services are satisfied the treatment was satisfactory. c. The treatment is considered to be of such a complicated nature the opinion of a consultant should be sought before the report can be completed appropriately. d. The treatment was considered to be of a high standard.

NDAC recommend that the following emergency drugs are available at all times (tick all that apply). a. Midazolam buccal liquid (10 mg/ml), or Midazolam injection (as hydrochloride) (5 mg/ml 2 ml ampoules) for topical buccal administration b. Beclometasone Dipropionate Inhaler c. Oral glucose/sugar d. Glyceryl trinitrate spray (400 µg per metered dose) e. Atropine Sulfate Injection 600mcg in 1ml.

A, C, D

A nine-year-old child presents at your practice with pain and spreading swelling from a dental abscess. The child is not amenable to local anaesthesia, and you wish to refer. The child is also allergic to penicillin. Which of the following regimens are recommended in the SDCEP guidance on prescribing? a. Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) 125mg/5ml. Two 5ml spoonfuls four times a day for 5 days b. Metronidazole 100mg. One to be taken 3 times a day for 5 days c. Doxycycline 100mg. Two capsules to be taken on day 1, then one capsule to be taken daily for 6 days d. Metronidazole 200mg. One to be taken 3 times a day for 5 days

You have taken a crown impression that involved going subgingivally, with some blood present. Before sending it to the lab do you?: a. Run it under cold water until visibly clean and then immerse it in a suitable disinfectant b. Wipe it with a tissue c. Run it under a tap only d. Spray it with alcohol e. Let it air dry f. Let the lab disinfect it

For a patient’s consent to be valid, which of the following must apply? a. You have to believe they are able to understand what is involved in a procedure. b. Consent must be written. c. The patient must be informed of the risks involved in a procedure. d. The patient must take your advice. e. A witness must be present.

A, C

Which of the following are considered drugs for emergency use? a. Adrenaline b. Paracetamol c. Midazolam buccal liquid d. Aspirin e. Oral glucose

A, C, D, E

The maximum daily dose of ibuprofen for an adult is? a. 2.4g b. 3.4g c. 1.4g d. 0.4g

A. 2.4g

The current recommended drugs for use in medical emergencies in general practice include which of the following? a. Adrenaline b. Glyceryl trinitrate c. Aspirin d. Glucagon e. Fluconazole

A, B, C, D

The Practice Support Manual produced by SDCEP recommend that an SEA should be undertaken after every medical emergency? True or False

True

What is the advised flow rate of oxygen for a conscious patient with a suspected MI? a. Not advised b. 4 l/min c. 10 l/min d. 15 l/min

D. 15 l/min

If antibiotics are indicated to treat a spreading infection due to pericoronitis in an adult patient, which is the preferred first line antibiotic? a. Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days b. Metronidazole tablets 200mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days c. Metronidazole tablets 400mg. One tablet three times daily for 3 days d. Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. e. Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days f. Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days.

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, valid claims under item 2(a) Enhanced Preventive Advice and Treatment must include PMPR. True or false?

False

What criteria should be considered where there is a foreseeable risk of legionella within a workplace? a. Are there deposits that support bacterial growth visible (e.g. biofilm)? b. Is water stored or recirculated as part of the system? c. Water pipes are a mixture of copper and plastic d. Water is used to make hot drinks for staff e. Is the water temperature in all or part of the system between 20°C and 45°C? f. Can water droplets be produced and dispersed (e.g. aerosols)?

A, B, E, F

In order to fulfil their terms of service in Scotland, a dentist must a. Complete more than one type of QI in the QI cycle b. Carry out a minimum of 15 hours of approved QI activity in each 3 year cycle c. Complete at least one approved project each year during the QI cycle

Natural Rubber Latex (NRL) is a potent allergen and is still widely used in dentistry. Which of the following apply to NRL? a. if a staff member is proven NRL allergic, the practice should carry out a risk assessment and switch to non-latex products if appropriate to reduce risk to the individual. b. Suspected cases of NRL allergy should be investigated by the General Medical Practitioner or Occupational Health Service. c. Individuals with a history of asthma, hayfever or flexural eczema have a higher incidence of allergy to NRL. d. Staff members with an allergy to NRL are unable to work in a clinical environment.

A, B, C

Which of the following are acceptable methods of disposing of paper patient records? a. In general office waste b. In clinical waste bags which will be incinerated c. As part of waste paper collection for recycling d. Cross-shredded as part of office waste e. Defaced and added to general waste

Which of the following items should be included in Infection Control Policies? a. Immunisation of staff b. Hand Hygiene c. Compressor maintenance log book d. Personal protective equipment e. Waste Management

A, B, D, E

When applying GDPR, a data protection officer must: a. have knowledge of the data protection law b. be registered with the GDC c. Be a lawyer d. Be a member of staff

Regulations exist governing the disposal of waste from Dental Practices. Which of the following are true? a. All waste can be uplifted by the council as long as prior arrangements have been made. b. Records relating to the collection of special (Orange, Yellow and Red stream) waste should be kept for 5 years. c. Records relating to the collection of special (Orange, Yellow and Red stream) waste should be kept for 3 years. d. Waste containers are colour coded for the different waste streams. e. Waste disposal firms in Scotland that uplift special waste must be registered with the Scottish Environmental Protection Agency. f. Special waste containers should be filled as full as possible to prevent movement of the clinical waste in transit.

C, D, E

You add a clasp to an existing denture (8 months old) to aid retention. Which of the following are correct? a. You cannot claim an NHS fee as it forms part of the original claim b. You can claim an NHS fee for the clasp and an impression c. You can claim an NHS fee for the clasp d. You can only charge the patient privately for this

GDPR applies to a. Controllers and Processors b. Processors only c. Only Scottish businesses d. Controllers only

You are treating a carious tooth on the NHS and consent has previously been obtained for an amalgam restoration only. A large carious exposure becomes apparent during treatment. Which of the following would be appropriate in relation to consent?: a. Proceeding immediately with endodontic treatment as consent for a course of treatment is regarded by the NHS as a one-off process b. Recording the minimum information feasible to avoid issues relating to GDPR c. Tailoring the way you obtain consent to the individual patient's needs d. Discussing the cost of the various treatment options. e. Explaining your recommended option f. Fully documenting the discussions which took place which led to the patient's decision

C, D, E, F

The registration arrangements between a patient and dentist will come to an end in which of the following circumstances? a. The patient registers with another NHS dentist in Scotland b. The patient dies c. The patient is de registered by the dentist d. After 48 months e. The patient is referred to a specialist service as they are unsuitable for treatment in the general practice setting

A, B, C

Complaints received from which of the following sources should be recorded in your practice's complaints log?: a. A complaint from the Primary Care Trust about your out-of-hours answering machine message b. A complaint from a team member about your unpleasant manner towards a patient attending late for their appointment c. A complaint from a concerned relative about treatment you provided to their loved one d. An anonymous complaint e. A complaint from a patient about treatment you have provided

C, D, E

According to IRMER regulations, the employer is responsible for?: a. Appointing a Radiation Supervisor b. Assuming the role of Radiation Protection Adviser c. Organising Staff Training d. Written procedures and protocols for operators e. Assuming the role of Medical Physics Expert

A, C, D

Once a patient has been accepted onto an NHS GDPs list in Scotland their registration period with that dentist is: a. For life and cannot be terminated by the dentist b. For 36 months c. For 48 months d. For 24 months e. Non time limited

The definition of a person's race includes? a. Accent b. Nationality c. Colour d. Ethnic origin

B, C, D

Select all that apply. Fire Safety – The practice must provide a. a minimum of annual training for all employees to know how to use escape routes b. a sprinkler system c. written records of the fire risk assessment if more than five staff members d. adequate fire detectors e. enough exits and routes for all to escape

A, C, D, E

Which of the following items should be disposed of as orange healthcare (clinical) waste? a. Extracted teeth with amalgam b. Gloves c. Face masks d. Instrument packaging opened during treatment e. Cotton wool rolls

B, C, D, E

While chatting to a patient, your nurse asks if her husband's new dentures are still giving him problems. Is this? a. No breach of confidentiality b. Good practice as it shows concern c. A breach of confidentiality

GDC registrants who would like to retain their registration must complete the Annual Renewal (AR) process each year. Which of the following statements is or are true? a. The AR process involves three parts where registrants must make an Indemnity Statement, pay the annual retention fee and make a Continuing Professional Development (CPD) Statement. b. The deadline date for AR is the same for all dentists. c. The AR date for dentists is different to the other dental care professionals. d. The deadline date for all registrants is the same.

A, B, C

Prior approval regulations apply to? a. Capitation patients only b. Continuing care patients only c. All NHS patients d. All patients

When taking a dental radiograph, the operator must be able to? a. Observe the exposure from within the controlled area b. Observe the x-ray warning light only c. Observe the x-ray warning lights and audible exposure and ensure the exposure terminates d. Observe the exposure while holding the x-ray tube head in position if the patient is nervous.

A patient undergoes a dental procedure during which local anaesthetic is used. Shortly afterwards he complains of difficulty in breathing with an audible wheeze and a swollen tongue. He is sweaty, the pulse rate is 110’ (regular), capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Chlorphenamine is the first-line drug in this situation. True or False?

False

Which of the following pieces of information might help a patient to make a decision when consenting to a course of treatment? a. The consequences, risks and benefits of the treatment proposed b. Why you think a particular treatment is necessary and appropriate for the patient c. Promoting the simplest option for the dentist to perform d. Whether treatment is guaranteed, and any exclusions that might apply

A, B, D

Who has responsibility for Health and Safety in your dental practice? a. Cleaners b. Visiting sales representatives c. The Principal Dentist d. Assistants e. Nurses f. Associates

A, C, D, E, F

If a patient has been violent and abusive which of the following actions are appropriate? a. Inform the Health Board b. Complete any outstanding treatment for the patient, where this is possible c. De-register the patient immediately d. Inform the police

A, C, D

A registered NHS patient attends concerned about the appearance of their upper lateral incisor. This tooth has become discoloured following root treatment. As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following NHS options are available to treat this problem? a. Provision of a composite filling b. Provision of a crown c. Provision of internal bleaching d. Provision of a porcelain veneer

A, B, C

A 54 year old patient attends who is very anxious about dental treatment and asks if it's possible to prescribe something to manage their anxiety. After discussing it with the patient you decide that you are going to prescribe Diazepam. You should: a. Start them with a 10mg dose and increase or decrease depending on how they feel b. Advise the patient to take 5mg 1 hour before the procedure c. Only prescribe the minimum number required d. Advise the patient that it's OK to drive to the appointment if they don't feel drowsy after taking the medication e. Advise the patient to take 5mg 2 hours before the procedure f. Double up the dose if they are having an extraction

C, E

What treatment would you give to a conscious 22 year old known diabetic patient who shows signs of hypoglycaemia? a. Glyceryl trinitrate b. Oxygen c. Salbutamol d. Adrenaline e. Oral glucose

B and E

When prescribing Nystatin what instructions should be given to the patient a. Remove dentures before using the drug b. Rinse suspension around the mouth then retain suspension near the lesion for 5 minutes before swallowing c. Rinse suspension around the mouth for 2 minutes then retain suspension near the lesion for 2 minutes before swallowing d. Rinse suspension around the mouth for 2 minutes then retain suspension near the lesion for 2 minutes before spitting out e. Rinse suspension around the mouth then retain suspension near the lesion for 5 minutes before spitting out f. Stop use as soon as the lesions have healed

A and B

The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for an adult is? a. 6g b. 8g c. 2g d. 4g

D. 4g

If an adult patient collapses in the dental practice, head-tilt and chin-lift should be used to open the airway and may relieve airway obstruction. True or false?

True

Which of the following are appropriate short term interventions for painful oral ulceration? a. Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in a child under 12 years old b. Application of a paste made from equal parts of an aspirin and a paracetamol tablet, dissolved slowly at the ulceration site c. Use of a benzydamine mouthwash using 15ml every hour and a half in an adult d. Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in an adult e. Application of an aspirin tablet dissolved slowly at the ulceration site f. Use of benzydamine oromucosal spray, 4 sprays onto affected area every hour and half in a child under 6 years old

C and D

You place an advert on-line for a new trainee dental nurse (male or female) to join a progressive, young and dynamic team. This would be discriminatory on the grounds of a. Sex b. Age c. Disability / physical ability d. All of the above

B. Age

If the conduct of a dental receptionist falls below the expected standard in the workplace the employing dentist could be held responsible. True or False

True

If an adult patient collapses in the dental practice, you should check for responsiveness before opening the airway. True or false

True

How often should routine testing be carried out on a hand-held x-ray equipment?

Annually

You are carrying out root surface instrumentation on a patient with BPEs of 4 in all sextants and the patient is taking Aspirin, which of the following should you consider? a. Limiting the initial treatment area b. Use local haemostatic measures to achieve haemostasis c. Carry out treatments in a staged manner d. Carry out as much treatment as possible on the first visit

A, B, C

A patient informs you that they have changed their name and/or sex when they chose to live in a changed gender and that they have had their CHI number changed via their GP. How can you ensure their records remain up to date? a. Ensure their name and/or sex on the practice management software is changed b. Request a new CHI match using CHI lookup and submit a claim as usual c. Send PSD a Patient Detail Amendment form (dental 287 form) before submitting a claim with the patient's new details

A and C

Under normal circumstances your local Health Board has a responsibility to investigate in the event a patient makes a complaint directly to them about your service. True or False?

False

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, a fee may be claimed under item 1(f) Study Models where models are recorded in a digital only format. True or False?

True

By law, Civil Partnership is a protected characteristic, but marriage is not. True or false?

False

Which of the following is/are true of the Health and Safety at Work Act (HSW act)? a, All employed staff are covered by the act whilst on the practice premises b. Employees of utility companies or suppliers are covered by the act whilst on the premises c. Clinical treatment of patients is covered under the terms of the act d. The practice owner can claim exemption from the terms of the act e. Self employed contractors excluded from the terms of the act whilst on the premises

A and B

According to the SDCEP guidelines: a. 5% Sodium Fluoride varnish should not be reapplied to a child’s teeth within 48 hours of a previous application b. If 5% Sodium Fluoride Varnish is applied before 10am, teeth should be brushed that evening before going to bed c. The correct dose of a varnish containing 22,600ppm Fluoride is 0.25ml for a child between 2 and 5 years d. If a child is at increased risk of dental caries they should have 5% Sodium Fluoride varnish applications 4 times per year e. A child with mild asthma should not receive more than 2 applications of 5% Sodium Fluoride per year

C, D

Which statement is true? A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. a. Prolonged seizures (>5min) should be treated with subcutaneous injections of Midazolam b. Convulsive movements should not be restrained c. Oxygen should only be given if there is underlying respiratory disease d. During convulsions the patient’s airway must be protected with the jaw-thrust manoeuvre

Scottish Government defines the three "Quality Ambitions" for the NHS as: a. Safe, effective, person-centred b. Caring, compassionate, collaborative c. Equitable, efficient, timely

Which of the following are GDC registered dentists required to do annually?: a. Attend practice meetings b. Pay the ARF by 31st Dec c. Make an indemnity declaration d. Complete a CPD statement e. Complete appraisal

B, C, D

Which statement is true? During a cardiac arrest in a dental practice a. a team leader is of no advantage if all helpers have up-to-date CPR training b. the helper performing chest compressions should be changed every 15 minutes c. oxygen should be attached to the ventilation device if possible d. which occurs in a waiting room, the patient should be moved to a clean, well lit clinical area as soon as enough staff are available to lift the patient safely e. physical limitations of a helper (eg back injury) must never prevent them from performing chest compressions if these are required

Which of the following is/ are true of patients taking Rivaroxaban? a. Inferior dental blocks are unlikely to cause bleeding b. Vitamin K can be used as a reversal agent c. The INR must be checked within 72 hours of the procedure d. In complex extractions, that day's doses should be taken at the normal time

An 'HC1' form is used... a. To explain all the help that a patient may be able to get with health costs b. To apply for help under the NHS Low Income Scheme c. To claim refund of NHS Charges d. To certify that a patient qualifies for full help with payment of dental charges

When offering an apology as part of your duty of candour: a. The language should be clear, plain and direct b. The apology should only be offered after a full investigation and it has been established that you are in the wrong c. Responsibility for the apology rests with the ‘responsible person’ d. Be cautious offering an apology, as this is an admission of negligence or a breach of statutory duty

A, C

The GDC highly recommends that dentists should address certain topics within their verifiable CPD. Some of these topics are: a. Financial Management b. Medical Emergencies c. Endodontics d. Dental Materials e. Child Protection f. Disinfection And Decontamination

B, F

Which of the following must be undertaken to satisfy the requirements outlined within the Statement of dental Remuneration for a claim made under item 2(c) where a patient has sextants with BPE codes 3 or 4? a. Recording of plaque and bleeding scores b. Recording of risk factors pertinent to periodontal disease c. Pocket depth charting of affected sextants d. PMPR e. BMI recording

A, B, C

SDCEP guidance recommends calling an ambulance for a patient who has had an epileptic seizure in which of the following circumstances (select all that apply) a. Cyanosis was apparent during the seizure b. If this was the first episode of epilepsy for the patient c. The seizure lasts for 5 minutes or longer d. The patient displays frothing from the mouth

B, C

For routine crown preparation, what is the fee for a temporary crown? a. No fee b. £12.25 c. £25.00 d. £46.50

A. No Fee

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, amalgam fillings may be placed in incisor or canine teeth under NHS arrangements with the informed consent of the patient. True or False?

False

Which of the following are true when selling a dental practice? a. The dental practice may be sold but the owner may still keep the property by agreement with the purchaser. b. The outgoing practice owner will require to make the staff redundant before the incoming owner can hire them under new contracts. c. The price that can be achieved reflects solely the value of the property, equipment and stock. d. You must give notice of a TUPE transfer.

A. D

Each Health Board maintains a ‘dental list’ of those dentists providing general dental services within the board. Which of the following is true? a. A dentist can list with a Health Board for the provision of emergency treatment only. b. The ‘dental list’ contains the names of both individual dentists providing direct patient care as well as Dental Bodies Corporate who may manage those providing that care c. A dentist can only be listed with one Health Board at any given time. d. When a dentist resigns from a ‘dental list’ their unused annual leave is taken account of when determining their final payment through their NHS schedule

A and B

Which of the following qualify as Red Stream special waste? a. Scalpel blades b. Dressings and swabs c. Amalgam d. Filters for dental aspirating systems e. Extracted teeth without amalgam

C, D

Routine testing and maintenance of the x-ray unit a. Should be carried out as part of your practice’s quality assurance programme and following any major maintenance. b. Should be recorded and contained in the Radiation Protection File c. Is the responsibility of the practice manager d. Should be carried out after a grade 3 is given for two successive intra-oral radiographs

A, B

Under prescription, which of the following treatments can be carried out by therapists? a. Extractions of permanent teeth b. Extractions of primary teeth c. Pulpotomies on primary teeth d. Single surface fillings in any tooth e. Root surface debridement

B, C, D, E

Self-employed associates in the GDS may be entitled to...? a. Public holiday payments b. Annual leave payments c. Adoptive leave payments d. Paternity payments e. Maternity payments

C, D, E

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is true about the use of composite resin restorations? a. They may be placed in anterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances b. They may be placed in posterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances c. Composite resin fillings may not be placed in posterior teeth unless the patient is under 15 years of age

Which of the following are true in relation to employer's liability insurance: a. You must be covered for at least £5 million b. You may be fined £2500 for every day that you are not adequately insured c. A hard copy must be provided to all employees d. Certificates must be retained for 40 years e. The policy may be purchased through an insurance broker

A, B, E

Which of the following statements are correct? To successfully make a claim for maternity payments within the SDR a dentist must:- a. Only be taking a maximum of 6 months maternity leave b. Complete a GP203 form c. Transfer registration of their patients to another dentist d. Be working full time e. Have been included on a dental list in Scotland for at least 2 years

B, C, E

You want to change the pay rates in your newly acquired dental practice and so you arrange private meetings with each individual team employee to discuss their personal circumstances and due to the sensitivity of this matter insist on confidentiality. This is: a. Illegal under the Equality Act 2010 b. Acceptable

A. Illegal under the Equality Act 2010

With the introduction of Direct Access in May 2013, dental hygienists and therapists can diagnose and treat patients within their scope of practice, without a prescription from a dentist. True or False?

True

Which of the following will minimise the risks associated with mercury in amalgam fillings? a. Pre-encapsulated amalgam mixing systems b. Storage of waste amalgam under water c. Mercury spillage kits available in the practice d. Carpet flooring in the surgery e. High volume aspiration when removing amalgams

A, C, E

Which of the following statements are true? a. The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for a 5 year old child is 900mg b. The maximum daily dose of diclofenac for an adult is 300mg. c. The maximum daily dose of ibuprofen for an adult is 2.4g. d. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given alternately to children provided the maximum recommended dose for each drug is not exceeded. e. The maximum daily dose of paracetamol for an adult is 4g.

C, D, E

If drug treatment is required to treat a dental abscess in an adult patient who is allergic to penicillin, which drug is recommended as an appropriate first-line alternative? a. Erythromycin b. Metronidazole c. Amoxicillin d. Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) e. Clindamycin

B. Metronidazole

A dentate patient, not taking any other medication, presents with Angular Cheilitis. Which is the most appropriate first line treatment?: a. Miconazole (1%) and Hydrocortisone (1%) Cream b. Miconazole (2%) Cream c. Miconazole (2%) and Hydrocortisone (1%) Ointment d. Miconazole (1%) Cream

B. Miconazole Cream

A fit and healthy 24-year-old patient has the prodromal symptoms of a cold sore on the lower lip. What would be most appropriate to prescribe? a. Miconazole gel b. Aciclovir tablets c. Lidocaine ointment d. Aciclovir cream e. Topical anaesthetic cream f. Carbamazepine tablets

D. Aciclovir Cream

Which of the following should be advised for an adult patient who presents in good health but has a mild early herpes labialis? a. Amphotericin lozenges 10mg 4 times a day for 10 days b. Aciclovir cream 5% five times a day for 5 days c. Metronidazole tablets 200mg three times a day for 5 days d. Aciclovir tablets 200mg five times a day for 5 days

B. Aciclovir Cream 5%

1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste is indicated for use in? a. patients 12 yrs and over b. patients 15 yrs and over c. patients 16 yrs and over d. patients 10 yrs and over

C. Patients 16 years and over

It is recommended that the quality ratings of radiographs are regularly analysed to determine the percentage of the total images produced that are categorised as A or N. The target percentages of images rated as diagnostically acceptable for digital images is?

Not less than 95%

Which of the following are required in order to have obtained informed consent? a. Patient understands proposed treatment b. Patient understands why proposed treatment is needed c. Patient understands consequences of not undergoing treatment d. Patient understands potential risks of treatment e. Patient understands alternative treatments f. Patient understands risks of alternative treatments

All of them

The definition of a person's race includes? a. Colour b. Ethnic origin c. Accent d. Nationality

A, B, D

The acronym COSHH stands for..? a. Committee on Sources of Health Hazards b. Control of Substances Hazardous to Health c. Committee on Safety, Health and Hygiene d. Committee for Oral Standards of Health and Hygiene

A patient arrives at the practice requiring a prescription. The patient is registered with another dentist at the practice who is on holiday for two weeks. How should you proceed? a. Refer the patient to a pharmacist b. Write an appropriate private prescription for the patient c. Ask the patient to refer to their own dentist when he/she returns from holiday d. Refer the patient to their general medical practitioner e. Write an appropriate NHS prescription for the patient

Reducing the dose of ionising radiation delivered to the patient can be achieved by the use of which of the following?: a. Digital sensors / plates in preference to film b. Rectangular collimation c. Plasterboard walls d. Beam aiming devices

A, B, D

Which of the following is/are true regarding SDR Item 1(c) Unscheduled care assessment and treatment? a. Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item item 1(d) Intraoral Radiograph b. Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item 7(e) when repairing a broken denture. c. Item 1(c) may be added to any routine course of treatment claim when in connection with unscheduled care you have provided. d. Item 1(c) may be claimed in the same course of treatment as item item 8 Domiciliary visit and recalled attendance

A and D

Which of these is defined as a protected characteristic within employment legislation? a. Marriage and Civil Partnership b. Age c. Sex d. Being left handed

A, B, C

As an employer, PAYE and NI records for staff should be retained for how long after the end of the tax year they relate to?

3 Years

If a retiring NHS GDP cannot find another dentist to take on patients, what happens? a. Retiring GDP has to stay on and provide cover b. It is the patient's responsibility to find themselves a new dentist. c. A locum GDP has to be found d. Health Board takes over responsibility

Following a DRO examination of an NHS dental patient, a code 4 or D would indicate which of the following? a. There are some areas of concern about the clinical care but Practitioner Services are satisfied the treatment was satisfactory. b. The treatment is considered to be of such a complicated nature the opinion of a consultant should be sought before the report can be completed appropriately. c. The treatment was considered to be of a high standard. d. The Dental Reference Officer has concerns relating to the clinical care provided or proposed that are of such concern that the matter should be discussed with/referred to the Health Board

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, what is the maximum number of radiographs that may be claimed within a single course of treatment? a. 8 b. 16 c. 12 d. No maximum stated e. 10

D. No Maximum Stated

Which of the following MUST be included in an NHS prescription?: a. Date prescription was written b. Patient's gender c. Patient's address d. Patient's age if under 12 years e. Duration of course of medication f. Date prescription drug course should finish g. Dentist's telephone number h. Patient's full name i. Dentist's stamp

A, C, D, E, H, I

Where should waste amalgam be stored in the dental surgery? a. In your wheelie bin b. In x-ray developer c. In a specific controlled waste container, lined with Mercury-absorbing foam d. In a yellow clinical waste bag e. In a plastic bag filled with water f. In a sealed box, containing hypochlorite g. It should not be stored

According to the GDC Standards on Consent, which of the following are "things that patients might want to know" before consenting to treatment: a. The treatment available in the UK b. The cross-infection control procedures routinely used in the practice c. Whether the treatment is guaranteed, how long it is guaranteed for and any exclusions that apply d. The cost of proposed treatment e. The likely prognosis f. Options for treatment, their risks and potential benefits

C, D, E, F

Your patient, for whom you are providing a denture, fails to return for his bite registration. What is the fee that may be claimed from the work undertaken? a. 0% of gross fee b. 70% of gross fee c. 33% of gross fee d. 50% of gross fee

For which of the following proposed dental treatments is written consent necessary according to GDC regulations? a. Fillings and extractions under general anaesthesia b. Toothbrushing instruction and polish c. Simple extractions under local analgesia d. Fillings under inhalation sedation e. Extractions under inhalation sedation f. Fillings under local analgesia g. Endodontic treatment under dental dam

A, D, E

Which type of insurance is essential for a dental practice compressor unit and autoclaves? a. Professional Indemnity Insurance b. Pressure Vessel Insurance c. Sickness and Accident Insurance d. Third party liability insurance

B and D

How often can adrenaline be administered to a patient in anaphylaxis? a. Every ten minutes b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 5 minutes d. Every 20 minutes

A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. Cyanosis may be seen, even if the patient has no underlying respiratory disease. True or False?

True

When should midazolam be administered during a suspected epileptic fit? a. After 10 min continuous fitting b. As soon as possible c. After 5 min continuous fitting d. When the ambulance arrives

Mercury is a poison, but is a commonly used element in dentistry. Which of the following is/are true with regard to mercury in Dental Practice? a. COSHH regulations state that employing dentists must carry out a risk assessment for ALL employees with regard to Mercury b. Water contaminated with waste amalgam can be discharged into the normal sewer if a current Scottish Environmental Protection Agency (SEPA) licence is held c. Recycling air conditioning systems in surgeries are not recommended d. Under current regulations Practices are obliged to fit amalgam separators to suction motors e. Collection of waste Amalgam or Mercury can only be carried out by licensed persons and consignment notes must be kept for 3 years

A, C, D, E

Which of the following statements are true regarding patients taking Dabigatran (DOAC)? a. High risk extractions requires patient to miss their morning dose b. Elective surgical extractions can be carried out without any change to medication c. Simple extractions requires patient to miss their morning dose d. Low risk procedures can be carried out without any alteration to their medication regime

A and D

The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 can be applied to: a. Patients with acquired brain injury b. Patients with severe sensory impairment c. Adults only over the age of 25 d. Patients with Dementia

A, B, D

Which of the following statements are true? Select those that apply: Team leading the helpers during a medical emergency in the dental practice a. is not required if all members of staff are fully qualified b. requires team members communicating important observations (eg faulty equipment) to the leader c. should only be done by the practice owner or principal dentist for legal reasons d. includes taking into account the abilities and physical limitations of team members e. should always be done by the team leader actively performing a task (eg ventilation) to demonstrate their commitment

B, D

In Scotland, you can re-use endo files on the same patient after they have been autoclaved. True or False?

False

The dental nurse you have just interviewed and appointed then informs you that she is 2 months pregnant. What should you do? Select all that apply. a. Offer the newly appointed nurse a written contract of employment after the birth of their baby. b. Provide them with a written contract within the normal time frame. c. Inform the newly appointed nurse that you cannot guarantee their Health and Safety during their pregnancy and allow them to reconsider their acceptance of the job offer. d. Inform the unsuccessful candidates that you appreciated their attendance at interview but that they were unfortunately unsuccessful. e. Contact your second choice candidate from your list and offer them the job instead.

B, D

If an adult patient collapses in the dental practice, you should check for responsiveness before opening the airway. True or False?

True

With respect to writing-up patients' records which of the following statements are true? a. Liability rests with all partners in a partnership to ensure a system is in place b. It is good practice to delegate this task to a nurse in order to save time c. Only patient medical history needs to be recorded d. The examining/treating clinician is liable for maintaining his/her own records

Cardiac compressions during CPR in an adult, should be interrupted every 4 minutes to check for signs of life. True or False?

False

Which of the following are true? a. Under normal circumstances, patient information can be shared with their general medical practitioner without first explaining what information is being shared and why b. Under normal circumstances, patients should be allowed to withhold their information from others who will be involved in their healthcare c. Confidential information about patients may be shared freely after their death d. Talking about patients in a place where you may be overheard could constitute a breach of confidentiality

B and D

Which of the following agents have an antifungal effect? a. Nystatin b. Tetracycline c. Diclofenac d. Miconazole e. Benzydamine Hydrochloride f. Chlorhexidine g. Aciclovir

A, D, F

In a healthy adult patient with a localised dental abscess with no evidence of spreading infection or systemic involvement, which of the following is appropriate first-line treatment? a. Prescribe phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) b. Prescribe amoxicillin c. Drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals and prescribe amoxicillin d. Drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals e. drain pus in the dental abscess by extraction of the tooth or through the root canals and prescribe phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V)

You wish to prescribe miconazole for a patient with angular cheilitis. This may be contraindicated in patients who are also taking which of the following...? a. Warfarin b. Oral contraceptives c. Aspirin d. Penicillin e. Statins

A and E.

Which of the following does not carry a caution note when used in patients who receive warfarin therapy? a. Paracetamol b. Aspirin c. Metronidazole d. Ibuprofen e. Clarithromycin

A. Paracetamol

In an adult patient who has dental pain and has active peptic ulcer disease, which of following analgesics should you prescribe? a. Diclofenac b. Ibuprofen c. Carbamazapine d. Paracetamol e. Aspirin

Which statement is true? A dental patient has a generalised, tonic-clonic seizure. a. Prolonged seizures (>5min) should be treated with subcutaneous injections of Midazolam b. During convulsions the patient’s airway must be protected with the jaw-thrust manoeuvre c. Convulsive movements should not be restrained d. Oxygen should only be given if there is underlying respiratory disease

Which of the following financial allowances may a dentist working within the NHS GDS claim? a. Practice insurance. b. Pressure vessel insurance. c. Quality improvement d. Staff sick pay. e. CPDA at approved courses.

C, E

Under the NHS GDS regulations what completion date should be used in the situation where a patient has failed to attend an appointment to complete their treatment? a. The date the patient last attended surgery. b. The date the practitioner submits the claim for payment c. A date one month after the last appointment booked for the patient. d. The date of the last appointment the patient failed.

Which of the following is true regarding paracetamol? a. It is a NSAID. b. Dosage should be no greater than 4g per day in a healthy adult. c. Sugar-free paediatric oral suspensions are available. d. Recommended dose for a 3 year old is 240mg four times a day.

B, C

The subscription fee to some Professional Indemnity Organisations...?: a. Cost can vary according to the type of treatment provided b. Is free for the first year post Vocational Training c. Is cheaper after the age of 55 d. Is allowable as an expense for tax purposes e. Is included in your registration with the General Dental Council

A, D

The protocol for any proposed clinical research projects involving your NHS patients should be submitted for approval to? a. Local Postgraduate Dean b. The appropriate area Ethics Committee for Clinical Research c. The Scottish Dental Practice Board d. The Scottish Office Committee for Clinical Research

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, is there an upper age restriction on the application of fluoride varnish? Yes or No?

Members of staff who are pregnant should inform? a. Employer and Medical physics expert b. Employer and Radiation protection adviser c. Medical physics expert only d. Employer and Radiation protection supervisor

Which of the following actions are required practice when dealing with GDS complaints procedures? a. One person given responsibility for handling complaints (and a deputy) b. Substance of the complaint must be investigated thoroughly c. Records should be kept of all complaints and responses etc. d. Both the views of the patient and dentist/staff heard e. Automatically pass the complaint to the Health Board within 10 working days

A, B, C, D

How can practitioners, staff and patients best be protected from the possible effects of hazardous materials? a. Insist staff wear appropriate PPE b. Ensure patients wear safety glasses c. Identify the risks of each material d. Appropriate staff training e. Keep exposure to hazardous materials to a minimum

All answers are correct

A dental patient with no cardiovascular medical history suddenly complains of chest pain. Anxiety of the patient can have adverse physiological effects. True or False?

True

If contact with, or use of, a hazardous substance is necessary, what steps could be taken to reduce the risk of exposure to the operator?: a. Work in a well ventilated room b. Wear eye protection c. Use protective clothing d. Use gloves at all times e. Prevent inhalation (by wearing a mask) f. Ask your nurse to handle the material

A, B, C, D, E

A patient attends for unscheduled care with a lost filling. You provide and definitive filling for this tooth in that visit. You may claim item 1(c) Unscheduled care assessment and treatment along with the appropriate code and fee for the permanent filling provided. True or False?

False

Once a patient has been accepted onto an NHS GDPs list in Scotland their registration period with that dentist is: a. Non time limited b. For life and cannot be terminated by the dentist c. For 24 months d. For 36 months e. For 48 months

A. Non time limited

Which of the following pieces of information might help a patient to make a decision when consenting to a course of treatment? a. Promoting the simplest option for the dentist to perform b. Whether treatment is guaranteed, and any exclusions that might apply c. Why you think a particular treatment is necessary and appropriate for the patient d. The consequences, risks and benefits of the treatment proposed

B, C, D

While chatting to a patient, your nurse asks if her husband's new dentures are still giving him problems. Is this? a. Good practice as it shows concern b. No breach of confidentiality c. A breach of confidentiality

C. A breach of confidentiality

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is true about the use of composite resin restorations? a. They may be placed in posterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances b. They may be placed in anterior teeth for any patient in any circumstances c. Composite resin fillings may not be placed in posterior teeth unless the patient is under 15 years of age

What is the recommended procedure for laundering used clinical workwear which is not visibly contaminated with blood? a. Soak in hypochlorite disinfectant before washing b. Sterilise at 134-137○C for at least 3 minutes c. Wash with water at 95○C d. Uniform should be laundered in accordance with local laundering policy

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, crowns placed on molar teeth under NHS arrangements must always be constructed in a non-precious metal. True or false?

False

When working within the NHS, veneers: a. Can only be claimed when a veneer is being replaced b. Can be claimed on upper first premolars c. Can be claimed on lower incisors d. Cannot be claimed again by the same dentist for the same tooth within 11 complete calendar months, unless replacement is required as a result of trauma

A and D

Which of the following is true when prescribing Antibiotic prophylaxis against Infective Endocarditis for dental treatment: a. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be considered for patients who require non routine management based on their specific cardiac condition when removing sutures b. All patients at an increased risk of Infective Endocarditis require antibiotic prophylaxis c. Fatality rates for Infective Endocarditis are around 10% d. There is strong evidence that invasive dental procedures lead to Infective Endocarditis e. Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not recommended routinely for people undergoing dental procedures

The correct initial response to a patient's complaint which requires investigation is...? a. A written acknowledgement within 5 working days b. A written acknowledgement within 3 working days c. An immediate phone call by the complaints officer d. A phone call within 5 days e. A phone call by the complaints officer within 2 working days f. To ignore it and await further correspondence

The hygienist at the practice is able to carry out normal day to day activities, but suffers from a mental impairment. This is defined as a disability under the Equality Act 2010. True or False?

False

Which of the following groups can be entitled to take radiographs with appropriate training? a. Dental Therapists b. Dental Receptionists c. Dental Hygienists d. Registered Dental Nurses e. Clinical Dental Technicians

A, C, D, E

If antibiotics are indicated to treat a spreading dental abscess in an adult which of the following is the preferred first line antibiotic where compliance is expected to be good? a. Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. Two tablets four times daily for 5 days. b. Amoxicillin capsules 250mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days c. Phenoxymethylpenicillin tablets 250mg. One tablet four times daily for 5 days d. Amoxicillin capsules 500mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days

Mr Tsang attends his dentist, a visit instigated by his wife Mrs Tsang. Mrs Tsang is embarrassed that her husband is not tolerating his lower denture and would like the dentist to make a new denture. As a POA for Finance and Welfare, Miriam’s responsibilities do not entitle her to: a. Ensure that whatever capacity the patient has remaining is taken into account. b. Represent her husband’s previous wishes and past beliefs. c. Demand the treatment that she feels he needs is carried out. d. Consent to treatment on behalf of the granter.

You wish to employ a dental nurse for your practice. As an employer, you must give them a "Wider written statement" of employment particulars within what period of their start date? a. two months b. four months c. one month d. one week e. three months

A. Two months

In relation to dental radiography, which of the following are true a. A quality assurance system should be used to monitor the processing of exposed radiographic films b. The justification for taking a radiograph should always be recorded in the notes c. Audit should be used to monitor the quality of radiographs d. A lead apron should be used to protect the patient during bite wing radiographs

A, B, C

Natural Rubber Latex (NRL) is a potent allergen and is still widely used in dentistry. Which of the following apply to NRL? a. Suspected cases of NRL allergy should be investigated by the General Medical Practitioner or Occupational Health Service. b. Individuals with a history of asthma, hayfever or flexural eczema have a higher incidence of allergy to NRL. c. Staff members with an allergy to NRL are unable to work in a clinical environment. d. if a staff member is proven NRL allergic, the practice should carry out a risk assessment and switch to non-latex products if appropriate to reduce risk to the individual.

A, B, D

When recording consent, which of the following statements should always apply? a. Accurate and legible records be kept b. Any antisocial habits be noted c. The records should include medical history, any radiographs taken d. Notes on patient discussions should be made

A, C, D

When taking an intra oral radiograph the minimum recommended distance for the operator from the source of ionising radiation is:

1.5m

Under prescription, which of the following treatments can be carried out by therapists? a. Single surface fillings in any tooth b. Extractions of permanent teeth c. Root surface debridement d. Pulpotomies on primary teeth e. Extractions of primary teeth

A, C, D, E

Which Certificate of Insurance must be clearly displayed within a dental practice?: a. Professional Indemnity Insurance b. Building Insurance c. Sickness and Accident Insurance d. Employers Liability Insurance

You are half way through a root treatment and the patient wishes to stop due to it being very painful. You are aware that it would be beneficial for the patient to complete the treatment. Should you: a. Insist the patient completes the treatment b. Stop treatment, but explain the possible risks and consequences of not continuing treatment and highlight that the patient is responsible for future problems c. Document all discussions in the patients notes d. Stop immediately and make an appointment for the extraction

B, C

Any proposed treatment should always be discussed fully with the patient to ensure that informed consent is obtained. In addition, the GDC advises that written consent should also be obtained for which of the following procedures? a. Private treatment when the patient is registered under the NHS b. Private treatment under IV sedation c. NHS treatment requiring prior approval d. NHS treatment under general anaesthetic e. NHS orthodontic treatment f. Private treatment under general anaesthetic g. NHS treatment under inhalation sedation h. NHS treatment under IV sedation

B, D, F, G, H

Which of the following are true when selling a dental practice? a. The price that can be achieved reflects solely the value of the property, equipment and stock. b. . You must give notice of a TUPE transfer. c. . The outgoing practice owner will require to make the staff redundant before the incoming owner can hire them under new contracts. d. The dental practice may be sold but the owner may still keep the property by agreement with the purchaser.

B, D

What does a restrictive covenant clause in an Associate Agreement detail? a. Restrictions on the amount of private treatment that may be provided by the associate. b. Treating patients from the previous practice c. Restrictions placed upon an outgoing associate’s choice of their next location of practice. d. Restrictions on the laboratories that an associate may use whilst working at the practice. e. Conduct considered acceptable between an associate and the practice staff.

B, C

Paracetamol…? a. Has a maximum daily dose of 4g for an adult b. Is commonly used as an anti-inflammatory c. In anti-pyretic d. Is locally acting e. Is hepatotoxic in overdose

A, C, E

Which of the following increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin? a. Miconazole b. Fluconazole c. Metronidazole d. Aciclovir cream

A, B, C

What is a suitable supplemental analgesic for a patient who already takes Naproxen? a. Ibuprofen b. Aspirin c. Co-codamol d. Paracetamol

C, D

A patient presents to your practice with acute severe TMD. You decide that prescribing a muscle relaxant is indicated. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription to give to the patient?

Diazepam tablets 2mg. One tablet three times daily for 5 days.

When carrying out root surface instrumentation on a patient taking Warfarin, which of the following statements are true? a. Ensure that the patients' INR has been checked, ideally no more than 48 hours before the procedure b. If the patients' INR is 3 or below, delay treatment until their INR has increased c. Ensure that the patient's INR has been checked, ideally no more than 24 hours before the procedure d. If the patients' INR is 4 or above, delay treatment until their INR has been reduced

C, D

What must be provided in terms of first aid in every dental practice? a. Adrenaline and Salbutamol Inhalers for treatment of allergic response b. An appointed person c. Paracetamol tablets d. An appropriate first aid box e. Details and location of local A+E department.

B, D

NDAC recommend that the following emergency drugs are available at all times (tick all that apply). a. Atropine Sulfate Injection 600mcg in 1ml. b. Midazolam buccal liquid (10 mg/ml), or Midazolam injection (as hydrochloride) (5 mg/ml 2 ml ampoules) for topical buccal administration c. Oral glucose/sugar d. Beclometasone Dipropionate Inhaler e. Glyceryl trinitrate spray (400 µg per metered dose)

B, C, E

When applying GDPR, a data protection officer must: a. Be a member of staff b. Be a lawyer c. have knowledge of the data protection law d. be registered with the GDC

Under NHS General Dental Services Regulations all drugs used in the care and treatment of patients must be supplied on prescription using a GP14 form. True or False?

False

According to IRMER regulations, the employer is responsible for?: a. Appointing a Radiation Supervisor b. Written procedures and protocols for operators c. Assuming the role of Radiation Protection Adviser d. Organising Staff Training e. Assuming the role of Medical Physics Expert

A, B, D

The definition of “incapacity” in the Adults with Incapacity Act includes (Please select all correct options): a. Making unwise decisions b. Being incapable due to a drug addiction c. Being incapable of understanding the consequences of a decision d. Being incapable of remembering information for long enough to make a decision e. Being deaf and unable to hear when information is given

C, D

Which of the following patient groups would be exempt from paying NHS dental fees: a. Nursing mothers until their baby is 12 months old b. Those in receipt of Contributions Based Jobseeker's allowance c. Pregnant women d. Those aged under 26

A, C, D

How long is the maximum duration of a certificate of incapacity?

3 years depending on the nature of the illness.

Which of the below is NOT an indication to carry out pulp therapy on a primary molar? a. Radiographic signs of pulpal involvement b. Dental abscess c. Tooth close to exfoliation d. Irreversible pulpitis

Which of the following are correct? a. With regards to disabled access, a dental practice with fewer than 5 employees does not need to comply with the Equality Act 2010. b. It is not necessary to make reasonable adjustments if your practice is first floor or above. c. With regards to disabled access, the Equality Act 2010 only applies to physical disability. d. It is only necessary to make reasonable adjustments to meet the needs of disabled patients in response to individual requests. e. It is the responsibility of the practice to determine what reasonable adjustments are required to meet the needs of disabled patients.

Which of these dental procedures is/are at low-risk of post-operative bleeding complications? a. Periodontal surgery b. Direct restorations with subgingival margins c. Simple extractions (1-3 teeth with restricted wound size) d. Root surface debridement and subgingival scaling

B, C, D

2 Months

The registration arrangements between a patient and dentist will come to an end in which of the following circumstances? a. The patient is referred to a specialist service as they are unsuitable for treatment in the general practice setting b. The patient dies c. After 48 months d. The patient is de registered by the dentist e. The patient registers with another NHS dentist in Scotland

B, D, E

As defined in the Statement of Dental Remuneration, which of the following is/are true of item 3(i) Pulpotomy? a. This item is only available to be provided to patients under 15 years of age b. This item must be accompanied by appropriate radiographs c. This item may be provided on permanent incisors and canines d. This item may be provided on any deciduous tooth

Which statement is correct, regarding the use of Hand rubs? a. Hand rubs can only be used if hands are visibly soiled or dirty b. Hand rubs can only be used during treatment on the same patient c. Hand rubs can only be applied up to a maximum of four times, then hands must be washed d. Hand rubs can only be used on visibly clean hands e. Hand rubs can only be used after performing hand-washing with liquid soap and water first

On which of these materials should you carry out a written COSHH assessment?: a. Only those containing acids b. Only those used in the patient's mouth c. Only cleaning agents d. All materials used e. Those with warning labels on bottles

What NHS form is used to prescribe medication to an NHS patient?

GP14

According to SDCEP, which of these dental procedures carry a higher risk of bleeding complications? a. Periradicular surgery b. Dental implant surgery c. Extraction of 2 incisor teeth d. Root surface debridement e. Inferior dental block administration

A, B

Your patient, a nine year old boy, requires an extraction but is not in pain. He is accompanied by an adult relative who does not have parental responsibility. To follow legal best practice, how should you proceed? a. Delay treatment until parental consent is obtained b. Obtain consent from child and proceed with treatment c. Obtain consent from relative and proceed with treatment d. Proceed with treatment to reduce the risk of a complaint.

Which of the following will minimise the risks associated with mercury in amalgam fillings? a. Storage of waste amalgam under water b. Carpet flooring in the surgery c. High volume aspiration when removing amalgams d. Mercury spillage kits available in the practice e. Pre-encapsulated amalgam mixing systems

C, D, E

Resin-retained bridge under the NHS: a. Can be used to replace molar teeth to aid chewing b. Can normally only be provided in patients 17 years and over at the start of treatment c. Can normally only be provided 12 months after the extraction of any tooth to be replaced by the bridge d. Can only be claimed where study models are available

B, D

CPD participation is only verifiable if: a. Suggested by an appropriate PDP b. Only GDC registrants can provide verifiable CPD c. The GDC endorses CPD providers d. CPD providers quality assure the content delivery of CPD e. The GDC registers CPD Providers

When designing a risk assessment for your workplace you must: a. Identify who might be harmed and why b. Identify what further action you need to take to control the risk c. Copy the standard template provided by the Health and Safety Executive d. Look at what you are currently doing to control the risk

A, B, D

List all members of the dental team who should be "entitled" in writing by the employer to enable them to undertake their respective roles with regards to radiographic exposure? a. Operator, practitioner b. Referrer, operator, practitioner c. Referrer, operator d. Referrer, practitioner

The occupational exposure for mercury is 25 ug/m3 (micrograms per cubic metre). To minimise exposure which of the following are appropriate? a. Open a window b. Use recycling air conditioning systems c. Close window but use fan to circulate air d. Ventilate the room to the outside

A, D

What is “Duty of Candour”? a. Discussion of complaints procedure with the patient. b. Discussion of adverse incidents involving the patient. c. Discussion of treatment options for the patient. d. Discussion of NHS Rules and regulations relevant to the patients treatment.

A claim for orthodontic assessment should be written on which form?

GP17(O)

Which of the following are appropriate medications for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? a. Doxycycline b. Carbamazepine c. Penicillin d. Triamcinolone e. Hydrocortisone

B. Carbamazepine

What fire safety records should be retained? a. Phone number for your closest fire station b. Fire drills c. Staff training d. Checks, maintenance and servicing of fire detection and warning equipment e. Log sheet for number of flammable materials on site

B, C, D

An adult patient presents with denture stomatitis in the upper arch. The local measures to be used in the first instance include: a. Advise patient to clean dentures thoroughly by soaking in chlorhexidine mouthwash b. Advise patient to brush the palate daily c. Reline the denture with an alternative denture material d. Prescribe co-amoxiclav 250mg three times a day for five days e. Advise patient to leave dentures out as often as possible during the treatment period

A, B, E

Which of the following injuries are reportable to the Health and Safety Executive? a. An injury resulting from electric shock in the practice b. An employee contracts a work related disease c. An employee is killed at work d. Patient has a heart attack in the practice e. A patient attacks a member of staff

A, B, C

DVT ToK Questions Flashcards

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