DWWF Questions Flashcards
1
Q
which one of the following families lack hemoglobin and myoglobin?
- Muraenidae (moray eel)
- chaetontidae (butterfly fish)
- Mordaciidae (lampreys)
- Myxinidae (hagfish)
- Channichthyidae (icefish)
A
Channichthyidae (icefish)
2
Q
Most teleosts have how many chambers in their heart?
A
two
3
Q
which organ is used to help with buoyancy in most elasmobranchs?
A
liver
4
Q
which organ is used to help with buoyancy in most elasmobranchs?
A
posterior kidney
5
Q
red, gill-like tissue located on the underside of the operculum is most likely
A
a ripped gill arch
6
Q
what best describes the function of the Leydig and Epigonal Organs in elasmobranch species
A
lymphomyeloid tissues
7
Q
the heart of the hagfish is not innervated and the rate at which the heart beats is under _______ control
A
hormonal
8
Q
a rich yellow opaque fluid in the uterus of a stingray is definitive for pyometra
A
true
9
Q
vaccination is a method of increasing the host immune response to a specific pathogen
A
true
10
Q
the spleen is a site for blood cell formation in teleosts
A
true
11
Q
physoclistis fish
A
fish that don’t have a direct connection between the swim bladder and the GI tract; the ovale resorbs oxygen back into the bloodstream
ovale is a vascularized chamber of the swim bladder that is separated from the rest of the bladder by a sphincter which relaxes to deflate the swim bladder allowing oxygen to enter the ovale
12
Q
four main categories of infectious disease
A
viral, bacterial, fungal and parasitic
13
Q
A
14
Q
physostomous fish
A
fish that have a pneumatic duct (direction connection) between the esophagus and the gas bladder
excess gas is excreted through the pneumatic duct
15
Q
what organism causes an enteric coccidial infection in Weedy seadragons?
A
Eimeria phyllopteryx
16
Q
what is the most recommended site for sampling blood in sharks when using an I-STAT?
A
ventral tail
17
Q
what may be considered the most appropriate options for the treatment of subcutaneous emphysema in seahorses?
A
aspiration and acetazolamide
18
Q
cross-species blood transfusions are likely to be most compatible between which species of elasmobranchs?
A
sandtiger and sandbar sharks
19
Q
1 mg/L =
A
1 ppm
20
Q
which one of the following fihs is the most sensitive to nitrite toxicity?
A
channel catfish
21
Q
what is the most common cause of mortality of fish living in ponds?
A
low D.O.
22
Q
what can increased levels of ammonia cause in fish
A
increased oxygen demand
23
Q
what is the common name of the fish disease caused by nitrite toxicity?
A
Brown Blood Disease
24
Q
what is the largest source of D.O. in an outdoor pond?
A
phytoplankton
25
what is the toxic form of ammonia
NH3
26
gas bubble disease is caused by what problem in the water?
supersaturation
27
as temperature increases in a system, oxygen solubility
decreases
28
nitrate is harmful to invertebrates at relatively low levels
true
29
chloramine
compound of chlorine and ammonia
30
plastic containers can interact with chorine/chloramines
true
31
alkalinity
buffering capacity of water
low alkalinity can cause extremem pH fluctuation because of the reduced ability to buffer the increased concentration of hydrogen ions
CO2 is the most important factor for pH, increased CO2 causes a decrease in pH
32
total hardness
measure of the concentration of divalent metal cations like calcium and magnesium in water
Ca and Mg are needed for osmoregulation
33
what are 2 water quality problems that can cause fish to "pipe" at the surface?
low D.O.
nitrite toxicity
34
what gas is usually of greatest concern during a supersaturation event?
nitrogen
35
which filter is a type of chemical filter?
sand filter, carbon, canister filter, under gravel filter, bead filter
carbon
36
what, in high levels, could cause methemoglobinemia in fish?
nitrite
37
what, in high levels, may be goitrogenic in some species of fish?
nitrate
38
which of the following is an example of a thin film reactor?
sponge filter, wet/dry filter, undergravel filter, fluidized bed, all of the above
fluidized bed
39
which one of the following is UV sterilization least effective at controlling (unless it is used at extremely high doses)?
## Footnote
*Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Trichodina, Pseudomonas, Icthyophthirius*
*Icthyophthirius*
40
pH decreases may be associated with which of the following changes in water quality parameters?
decreases in alkalinity and increases in CO2
41
chemical filtration is the type of filtration primarily responsible for the nitrogen cycle to occur
false
42
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ammonia is the most toxic form of ammonia
unionized
43
over time if a tank is maintained by simply "topping it off" rather than appropriate water change, the pH and total alkalinity will
decrease
44
a sponge film is an example of a thick film reactor
true
45
heterotrophic bacteria and thick film reactors are more desirable than autotrophic bacteria and thin film reactors and optimal nitrification
false
46
what methods can be used to maintain bicarbonate in a system
add sodium bicarbonate
agricultural limestome
water exchange
calcium carbonate
47
two methods for nitrate removal in a system
anaerobic denitrification in a system
uptake by plants
48
what two water quality parameters affect how much of the TAN is in the toxic form
higher pH and water temperatures favor the toxic form (NH3)
49
denitrification is an ______ process and requires a _______ source
aerobic
carbon
50
oxygen is ______ soluble in water while carbon dioxide is _____ soluble in water
poorly
highly
51
after dechloraminating, you must control for the left over ammonia
true
52
a ______ biofilm retention of autotrophic bacteria is desirable for optimal nitrification
high
53
what is the minimal quarantine time period for fish with no obvious health problems and no known diseases of concern?
30 d
54
deformation of gill cartilage, visible on wet mounts of gill tissue, may indicate what nutritional deficiency?
Vitamin C deficiency
55
deficiencies in what vitamins can result in anemia?
vitamins E and K
56
acute fish deaths in a system due to ozone toxicity (\>500mV) would be most consisitent with what type of mortality event/curve?
Type I Mortality Event
57
which one of the following is usually the treatment of choice for leeches but is not routinely used in quarantine protocols?
organophosphates
58
foam fractionators only work in freshwater environments
false
59
aquatic species, such as corals, can recruit and utilize certain microbes to help fend off pathogens
true
60
crystal clear water is ideal for maintaining healthy fish
false
61
essential amino acids can be synthesized by the fish and do not need to be provided in the diet
false
62
biofilms will remain unchanged even as the surrounding environmental parameters change
false
63
name the 3 states of aquatic microbes
the majority of aquatic microbial cells are present in what phases?
planktonic, sessile, sessile particulate
majority are present in sessile and sessile particulate
64
factors that should be considered when deciding on amount of food that should be fed to fish
water temperature, water quality, health of fish, whether fish is "stressed" or not
65
what is the cause of Nutritional Gill Disease
deficiency of Vitamine B4 or Pantothenic Acid
66
which one of the following is a confirmed cause of HLLE lesions in Ocean Surgeonfish?
full-stream carbon filtration
67
which one of the following can usually be diagnosed by use of an unstained external skin scrape?
*Eimeria southwelli, Cryptobia iubilans, Mycobacteria,* Lymphocystis*,* Hepatic lipidosis
Lymphocystis
68
what disease dondiition is associated with causing hepatocellular carcinomas in Rainbow trout?
aflatoxicosis
69
exposure to high environmental nitrate has been shown to cause changes in the thyroid gland of some sharks and can be attributed to what possible mech?
nitrate blocks the Sodium-idodide symporter and prevents the transport of iodide into the thyroid gland
70
what are the primary causative agents for zoonotic infections in humans that develop from direct contact with fish?
bacteria
71
goiter, while multifactorial, can occur due to a dietary deficiency of
iodine
72
columnaris can't be seen on a skin scrape
false
73
skin, fin and gill diagnostic samples should be obtained prior to sedation in a calm fish whenever possible
true
74
during necropsy of a saltwater fish, it is best to use freshwater for squash mounts of internal tissues
true
75
before obtaining a blood sample from a live fish, you shoud clean the skin with alcohol to prevent bacterial contamination
false
76
iodate is a bio-available form of iodine for use in thyroid hormone synthesis
false
77
bamboo sharks seem highly sensitive to the formation of goiter
true
78
there have been no confirmed human infections with fish viral agents
true
79
most fish pathogens should be cultured at room temp rather than at the typical bacterial culture temrperatures for mammalian specimens
yes at 28\*C not 37\*C
80
why is it preferable to take bx samples before sedating fish with MS-222?
the anesthetic can make parasites fall off so that you won't have a representative diagnostic
81
what are two methods or approaches for obtaining a coelomic wash from a cownose ray?
what disease are you usually screening for when performing this procedure?
1. intracoelomic 2. coelomic pores
usually screening for *Eimeria southwelli* when doing a coelomic wash
82
name causes for granulomas in fish
* Mycobacteria*
* Cryptobia iubilans*
* Franciscella*
foreign bodies (parasites)
83
praziquantel is most effective for the control of
neobenidinia
84
what is most likely the safest and best choice for control of *Ichthyophthirius multifiliis* in channel catfish production ponds?
copper sulfate
85
how many abx are legal and available for use in foodfish in the US at the present?
3
86
chloroquin would be the tx of choice for which of the following parasites in a marine exhibit?
Laeches, Neobenedinia, Spironucleus, Amyloodinium, Gyrodactylids
Amylooodinium
87
each 5 mg/L of Formalin added to a system removes ____ of ____ from the water
1 mg/L of oxygen
88
the use of vaccines and biologics for animals in the USA is regulated by the
USDA
89
what is the approximte amout of salt that you would need to add to a 2000 gal FW recirculating system in a pet store to create a concentration of 3 ppt?
23,000 g
90
what is the approx amt of prazi that you would need to add to a 500 gal aquarium if you are treating with a dose of 5 ppm?
9.5 g
91
potassium permanganate is for use in ________ only
freshwater
92
there must be a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship for Extra Label use of medications
true
93
avoid the use of anti-caking agents when selecting a type of salt because they may contain cyanide
true
94
What is a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)?
What medication approved for use in aquaculture is a VFD?
What is the withdrawal time of this medication in catfish?
VFD is a category of drug that controls the use of drugs in animal feed, usually in regards to antimicrobials used in food animals and delivered in the animals' food. It requires a valid relationship with a licensed vet.
Aquaflor (Florfenicol) is a Type A medicated feed approve for use in aquaculture.
the withdrawal time is 15 d in catfish
95
which one of the following immersion anesthetics is less soluble in water and must be dissolved in ethanol or acetone?
tricaine-S, eugenol, isoeugenol, clove oil, benzocaine
benzocaine
96
which one of the following should not be used alone as an anesthetic for surgical procedures in fish?
propofol, isoeugenol, tricaine-S, metomidate, benzocaine
metomidate
97
Saprolgenia
oomycete that occurs only in freshwater and usually causes superficial damage to the skin or gills
98
"Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome" is caused by what organism?
Aphanomyces invadens
99
What would you use to treat *Fusarium solani* in bonnethead sharks?
Heater
100
*Veronaea botryosa* infection in sturgeons is associated with
high levels of acute morts
101
what *Ichthyophthirius multifiliis* life cycle is most susceptible to tx?
theront
102
quinaldine is contraindicated for use in what species?
Large Mouth Bass
103
concentrations of eugenol \> ______ are contraindicated
30 mg/L
104
low dose immersions of formalin have been used to treat parasitic infections in FW discus fish without adverse side effects
true
105
the dose of MS-222 is usually _______ as salinity and water hardness \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
increased
increase
106
Currently, what can be used to sedate fish in the wild for immediate release? What are the disadvantages?
carbon dioxide
causes rapid drop in blood pH, causes hypoxemia and cerebral hypoxia by decreasing the transport of oxygen to tissue, should not be used as an anesthetic for invasive or surgical procedures, slow acting, logistical difficulties
107
common methods of humaely restraining and/or immobilizing sharks for examination at an aquarium facility
anesthesia
tonic-clonic (species-specific)
oxygen narcosis
behavioral/trained
manual (sling)
108
Branchiomycosis is usually associated with warm water (\> 68F)
true
109
some cultured species, including tilapia, milkfish, and Chinese carp, appear to be resistant to Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
true
110
the dose of MS-222 is usually lowered as temperature increases
true
111
Veronaea botryosa infection has zoonotic potential
true
112
the treatment of choice for Spironucleus in freshwater angelfish is usually metronidazole
true
113
which water quality parameter is most important to consider when treating FW fish with copper?
total alkalinity
114
which one of the following mycotic infetions in fish is OIE reportable as of 2014?
Aphanomyces invadens
115
praziquantel is most effective for the control of which one of the following parasitic diseases?
Ich, monogeneans, trichodina, capillaria, ergasilus
monogeneans
116
which of the following is highly sensitive to Cu txs, even if used correctly and at the proper concentration?
channel catfish, clown fish, nurse sharks, moray eels, northern pike
nurse sharks
117
Fusarium is of greatest concern in which of the following species:
tilapia, channel catfish, bonnet head sharks, koi, largemouth bass
bonnet head sharks
118
If the total alkalinity is over 250 ppm, you do NOT use more than ____ ppm of copper sulfate
2.5
119
what can be used as a bioindicator of degrading environmental conditions?
large numbers of Trichodina on gill or skin biopsies
120
Ichthyophornus infects
a wide range of fish species throughout the world
121
what parasitic organism causes "Proliferative Kidney Disease", anemia and splenomegaly in rainbow trout?
Tetracapsuloides bryosalmonae
122
what is the intermediate host for Myxobolus cerebralis?
Tubifex tubifex worm
123
what is the infective stage of Amyloodinium and is most susceptible to treatment?
dinospore
124
what parasitic disease is commonly associated with a mixed infection of gram negative bacteria (esp Aeromonas hydrophilia) causing red sore disease in pond-raised fish?
Epistylis
125
Which one of the following parasitic organisms can cause renal hypertrophy and abdominal distension in pond-raised gold?
Hoferellus carassii
126
what organism causes "Hamburger Gill Disease" or "Proliferative Gill Disease" in channel catfish causing pale, thickened "clubbed", and broken gill lamellae?
Henneguya ictaluri
127
what is the freshwater counterpart of Uronemia?
Tetrahymena
128
piscinoodinium is classified as what type of group of parasites?
dinoflagellate
129
Trichodina has a _______ life cycle.
direct
130
actinospores are the infective stage of myxozoan parasites which are released from the invertebrate host and penetrate the epidermis or gill of the fish
true
131
Spironucleus (hexamita) is commonly found in the GI tract of which one of the following fish?
LMB, channel catfish, discus, koi, triggerfish
discus
132
amyloodinium is commonly found in which of the following tissues of clown fish?
gill
133
Turbellarian infections (Paravoretx sp) are most commonly found on which one of the following fish species?
parrotfish, queen angelfish, rock beauty, yellow tang, blue tangs
yellow tang
134
which one of the following parasites can be found on FW AND SW fish?
Trichodina
135
Name 3 diseases or syndromes caused y Myxosporidians
Proliferative Gill Disease in channel catfish
Kidney Enlargement Disease in pond-raised goldfish
Whirling Disease in salmonids
136
the causative organism of motile Aeromonas septicemia is most commonly a secondary or opportunistic invader
true
137
what is the marine counterpart to Flavobacterium columnare?
Tenacibaculum maritimum
138
what obligate intracellular bacterial disease is of concern in the Chilean salmon farming industry and may present grossly with anemia and internally with multifocal nodules and deressions in the liver?
Pisciirickettsia salmonis
139
what is the primary cause of Enteric Septicemia and hole-in-head disease of catfish?
Edwardsiella ictaluri
140
what is usually considered the most important determinant of pathogenicity for Koi Herpesvirus?
water temperature
141
what disease do you suspect when you identify long, thin rods with a flexing and gliding motion forming "haystacks" on a skin scrape of a warm water freshwater fish?
columnaris
142
what is the cause of Emphysematous Putrefactive Disease of catfish?
Edwardsiella tarda
143
what is the cause of Bacterial Kidney Disease in cultured salmonids?
Renibacterium salmoninarium
144
what organism causes "Bacterial Gill Disease" resulting in hyperplasia, deformity and adhesions of the gill lamellae in young cultured freshwater salmonids?
Flavobacterium branchiophilum
145
what disease causes abnormal swimming, hyperinflation of the swim bladder and vacuolation of the CNS in larval marine fish?
Betanodavirus
146
Viral Hemorrhagic Septicemia Virus is in the ___________ family
Rhabdoviridae
147
what is the most common clinical sign associated with infection of koi with KHV?
gill rot (gill necrosis)
148
which one of the following viral diseases can you obtain a presumptive diagnosis simply by observing hypertrophy of dermal fibroblasts on a wet mount?
SVC, lymphocystis, Viral Nervous Necrosis, Channel Catfish Virus, Carp Pox
Lymphocystis
149
what media would you select to isolate Flavobacterium columnare?
Ordal's media
150
which one of the following fish pathogens is a gram positive bacterium?
Flavobacterium, Vibrosis, Streptococcus, Piscirickettsia, Aeromonas
Streptococcus
151
carp pox is caused by a herpesvirus and dose not usually result in mortality of affect fish
true
152
channel catfish virus is caused by a herpesvirus and most deaths occur in _______ months when fish are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
summer
\< 6 in, young/small fish
153
erratic swimming, spinning and skin hemorrhage are clinical signs consistent with a diagnosis of Streptococcus
true
154
betanodaviral infections in fish target the
CNS and eye
155
Vibriosis mainly infects _________ fish, but also can infect \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
saltwater
freshwater
156
Edwarsiella ictaluri can infect fish either by entering through the nasal cavity or by ingestion
true
157
when present in biofilms, Mycobacteria are much more resistant to disinfection.
true
158
japanese eels are particularly sensitive to Edwardsiella tarda infections
true
159
Red Seabream Iridovirus causes disease in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Red Seabream and 30+ cultured marine fish species
