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Dynamic Path CVPM Exam Prep > Dynamic Path Study Questions > Flashcards

Dynamic Path Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Regarding the health of employees and volunteers in a veterinary Hospital, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) tasks Veterinary owners and managers with which of the following responsibilities?

A. The creation and implementation of a written plan that describes compliance with OSHA hazard communication regulations

B. The design and implementation of a verbal communication that complies with OSHA hazard communication standards

C. The creation and inspection of state Veterinary legislation to ensure compliance with federal law

D. The implementation of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, Title VII, and state statutes, which specifically regulate maternity leave policies

A

A. The creation and implementation of a written plan that describes compliance with OSHA hazard communication regulations

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2
Q
  1. When considering the job hazards that may affect the health of employees or volunteers in the veterinary practice in which they are employed, which three categories of hazards are recognized and mandated by federal law?

A. Biological, zoonotic, and chemical

B. Physical, chemical, and biological

C. Environmental, physical, and chemical

D. Teratogenic, biological, and zoonotic

A

B. Physical, chemical, and biological

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3
Q
  1. When considering compliance with the Occupation Safety and Health Administration regulations, it is essential for employers to conduct and document which of the following two steps in employee management?

A. Orientation and training

B. Training and documentation

C. Indoctrination (training) and counseling during high-risk situations

D. Training and injury and illness reports

A

C. Indoctrination (training) and counseling during high-risk situations

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following tasks are considered to be an administrative control by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), as an approach for reducing worker exposure to waste gases (other than through the use of engineering controls, work practices, or personal protective equipment)?

A. Institute a program of routine inspection and regular maintenance of equipment

B. Implement a monitoring program to measure airborne levels of waste gases in the breathing zone or immediate work area

C. Encourage or promote the use of scavenging systems in all anesthetizing locations where inhaled agents are used

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q
  1. Where large accidental spills of a halogenated anesthetic agent occurs and there is insufficient ventilation to adequately reduce airborne levels of the halogenated agent, which of the following choices represents a type of personal protective equipment that should be provided for use during cleanup?

A. Any type C supplied-air respirator

B. Gloves and goggles

C. Face shields, and chemical protective clothing

D. All of the above

A

A. Any type C supplied-air respirator

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6
Q
  1. Which federal act is responsible for the enforcement and regulation of the manufacturing, distribution, dispensing, and delivery of veterinary drugs that have the potential for abuse of causing physical dependence in humans?

A. The Federal Legend Drug Act

B. The Federal Controlled Substances Act

B. The Federal Veterinary Chemical Dependence Act

D. The Federal Drug Enforcement Act

A

B. The Federal Controlled Substances Act

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7
Q
  1. Which federal regulatory agency has jurisdiction over the manufacturing, distribution, and labeling of rodenticides, pesticides, and germicides?

A. The Food and Drug Administration

B. The Drug Enforcement Agency

C. The Environmental Protection Agency

D. The United States Department of Agriculture

A

C. The Environmental Protection Agency

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following situations constitutes veterinary extra-label drug use?

A. The use of amoxicillin in a cat with an upper respiratory infection, that is labeled for use it cats

B. The use of Baytril in a dog with bite wounds, which is labeled for small animal use only

C. The use of ivermectin in a swine with chronic diarrhea, which is labeled for use on livestock

D. The use of Amitraz for treating demadex mange on a dog, which is labeled for use on cattle

A

D. The use of Amitraz for treating demadex mange on a dog, which is labeled for use on cattle

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9
Q
  1. Under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, regulatory action will be taken against anyone (including farmers treating their own animals) whose extra-label use of a drug results in tissue residue in the food chain, unless which of the following conditions has been met?

A. A veterinarian deems that the life of the animal is immediately threatened

B. A permit is acquired through the Food and Drug Administration

C. The use is reported to the United States Department of Agriculture and withdrawal times are observed

D. The use is reported to the market in which the food animal is being sold or slaughtered

A

A. A veterinarian deems that the life of the animal is immediately threatened

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is a basic way that a Veterinary approved drug can be placed rush in Food and Drug Administration’s category or prohibited drugs for use in food producing animals?

A. A veterinary complaint of adverse reaction from the ingestion or handling of a drug

B. No means of determining tissue residue levels exist and the residue may be harmful to humans

C. Consistent and long term extra-label use of a drug by Veterinary practitioners

D. No field testing or FDA compliance exists and safety to humans may be an issue

A

B. No means of determining tissue residue levels exist and the residue may be harmful to humans

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11
Q
  1. In the past few years, the Food and Drug Administration has taken action against large animal practitioners for the extra-label use of Chloramphenicol in food producing animals. As a drug that is known to cause a type of fatal blood dycrasia in humans, what federal act is this action directly in violation of?

A. The Federal Trade Commission Act

B. Sherman Act

C. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

D. Criminal Fines Act of 1984

A

C. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

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12
Q
  1. What system of the Food and Drug Administration has inadvertently promoted the off-label use of drugs, by making the cost of producing a drug so high that it is impractical for drug companies to introduce new drugs for species of animals with small numbers?

A. DEA

B. FD&C

C. CSA

D. NADA

A

D. NADA

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13
Q
  1. What types of Veterinary products are not subject to Federal regulation under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act?

A. Grooming products used for cleaning animals

B. Any therapeutic product that is used topically only

C. Antibiotic products used for treating infection

D. Systemic fungicides used for treating various mycoses

A

A. Grooming products used for cleaning animals

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes a characteristic of a legend drug?

A. Requires a special form (DEA) to be completed prior to ordering

B. May only be used by or under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian

C. A current controlled substance license number must be on file with the vendor when an order is placed

D. May be used or prescribed in any manner that a licensed Veterinarian deems appropriate

A

B. May only be used by or under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian

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15
Q
  1. Section 201-105 of The Code of Federal Regulations requires that a drug must meet which of the following conditions in order to qualify as a Veterinary prescription drug?

A. Has completed a NADA and submitted all required biochemical assays and trial information

B. Was formulated for the specific use on a species of animal other than humans

C. In the possession of a licensed veterinarian for use in the course of professional practice

D. Complies with all FDA testing and labeling directives for use in the practice of veterinary medicine

A

C. In the possession of a licensed veterinarian for use in the course of professional practice

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16
Q
  1. The Code of Federal Regulations requires that the manufacturing label of any prescription drug contain which of the following?

A. The name of the plant where it was manufactured

B. The clients full name

C. The name of the veterinary hospital dispensing the drug

D. A control or lot number

A

D. A control or lot number

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17
Q
  1. The Food and Drug Administration’s Center for Veterinary Medicine is responsible for regulating most animal health products and what else?

A. Animal feeds

B. Animal pesticides

C. Animal husbandry laws

D. Food animal meat quality

A

A. Animal feeds

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18
Q
  1. The United States Department of Agriculture has primary authority over the regulation of which division of animal health products?

A. Insecticides

B. Biologicals

C. White goods

D. Pharmaceuticals

A

B. Biologicals

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following options is the correct term for the legal principle by which judges, in a court of law, are obliged to respect the legal precedents established by prior decisions?

A. Moral standards

B. Stare decisis

C. Ethics law

D. Duty to render

A

B. Stare decisis

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20
Q
  1. State Veterinary Associations each adopt an individual ethical code of conduct for use in their bylaws. Which of the following is the code that is most commonly adopted into bylaws for the purpose of regulating the practice of veterinary medicine in individual state practice acts?

A. United State Supreme Courts Code

B. Ethical and Legal Jurisdiction Code

C. The AVMA code

D. Moral and the Ethical Constraints Code

A

C. The AVMA code

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21
Q
  1. What level of emergency care are veterinary practices legally obligated to provide on an injured animal presented to an emergency care facility?

A. Level 1 trauma

B. Level 2 trauma

C. Level 3 trauma

D. None

A

D. None

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22
Q
  1. In practice of veterinary medicine, which states have passed legislation addressing the issue of the allowing veterinarians to euthanatize a perfectly healthy animal upon client request?

A. All 50 states

B. Florida, Mane, Georgia, Alabama, California

C. Maine, Alabama, South Carolina, Virginia

D. Florida and California

A

A. All 50 states

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23
Q
  1. In all 50 states, criminal law defines the boundaries of a legal relationship between two categories of entities. Which of the following choices accurately reflects the two categories of relationships that are applied to criminal law?

A. State Representation and Business Organization

B. Individual and Society

C. Society and Public Welfare

D. Business organization and Individual

A

B. Individual and Society

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24
Q
  1. In the United States, civil law has two major subdivisions that govern veterinary practices. These laws are used to charge criminals and set examples within our court systems. What are they?

A. Criminal law and civil law

B. Contract law and criminal law

C. Contract law and tort law

D. Tort law and personal property law

A

C. Contract law and tort law

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25
Q
  1. Contract law deals with duties set by individuals because of a Contractual agreement; whether on paper, a handshake or oral. A failure to fulfill this agreement, such as when a client refuses to pay the charges rendered for veterinary care, can create the potential breaching of duty. Under what law could a veterinary practice file a lawsuit against a client for non-payment of services?

A. Criminal law

B. Ethics law

C. Real estate law

D. Civil law

A

D. Civil law

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26
Q
  1. Dr. Howell is opening his first veterinary practice. In order to ensure that he follows all current laws and statutes relating to the operation and regulation of his practice, where should Dr. Howell look to find his local practice acts?

A. Licensing board

B. Health department

C. USDA

D. American Veterinary Medical Association

A

A. Licensing board

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27
Q
  1. Dr. Barksalot has been elected to serve on the state veterinary board for licensing. He is enthusiastic about providing a great service to his community. What will Dr. Barksalot’s primary responsibility be when serving on this board?

A. Licensing board

B. Health department

C. USDA

D. American Veterinary Medical Association

A

A. Licensing board

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28
Q
  1. Mandy has worked at Dr. Houndog’s practice for years. Although she is not a licensed veterinary professional, she has learned a lot about the field of veterinary medicine. Mandy has been instructed to give a vaccination to a patient, while Dr. Houndog is on the premises.

What level of supervision is present in the scenario that would make it legally permissible for Mandy to vaccinate a client’s animal?

A. Instrumental supervision

B. Standard supervision

C. Direct supervision

D. Premise supervision

A

C. Direct supervision

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29
Q
  1. Which vaccine is mandated by law in every state, due to the increasing concerns for the public’s health and safety?

A. Distemper

B. Necrotizing Staphylococcus

C. Parvovirus

D. Rabies

A

D. Rabies

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30
Q
  1. When considering the paperwork required for court proceedings, what two things generally define case titles?

A. Names of the parties to the lawsuit

B. Names of the attorneys

C. Two upper case Vs

D. Names of the parties to the lawsuit and a small v

A

D. Names of the parties to the lawsuit and a small v

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31
Q
  1. In the legal case heading “Brown v. The Board of Education”, what does the v stand for?

A. Versus

B. Virus

C. Verse

D. Venture

A

A. Versus

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following choices is a part of The American Veterinary Medical Association Model Practice Act’s definition of veterinarian-client-patient-relationship?

A. A diagnosis, which must be permanently entered into the patient medical record

B. The veterinarian has recently seen or is acquainted with the keeping and care of the animals)

C. A written treatment plan, which must include all recommendations and medications

D. All of the above

A

B. The veterinarian has recently seen or is acquainted with the keeping and care of the animals)

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33
Q
  1. Both the Federal government and the Food and Drug administration are serious about the veterinarian’s duty to assure that prescription drugs are dispensed properly and only in the presence of a valid veterinarian-client-patient-relationship. Which law provides for fines, upwards of $100,000, for veterinarians found guilty of violating the FD&C Act?

A. FD&C Penalty Act of 1992

B. Veterinary Felony Act of 1987

C. Criminal Fines Act of 1984

D. Fraudulent Prescription Act of 1996

A

C. Criminal Fines Act of 1984

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34
Q
  1. In the event of a lawsuit at the trial court level, which name in a lawsuit is listed first, at the top of the legal case heading?

A. Judge

B. Plaintiff

C. Defendants

D. Both parties to the lawsuit

A

B. Plaintiff

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a reason that it is difficult to predict the outcome of case law proceedings pertaining to veterinary cases?

A. Case law is based on appellate law

B. Case law is based on fact only

C. Case law is based on legal opinion and subject to interpretation

D. Case law is based on which party the judge finds the most credible

A

C. Case law is based on legal opinion and subject to interpretation

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36
Q
  1. When considering veterinary negligence and malpractice disputes, case law and precedents are set at which of the following trial levels of the court system?

A. Criminal level

B. Civil level

C. Appellate level

D. Public level

A

C. Appellate level

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37
Q
  1. In the United States, which court is the highest in the land?

A. Circuit court

B. Chancery court

C. Magistrates court

D. Supreme Court

A

D. Supreme Court

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38
Q
  1. In which United States court are most veterinary lawsuits heard?

A. County court

B. Justice of the Peace

C. Appellate court

D. Traffic court

A

A. County court

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39
Q
  1. If you are managing a veterinary practice, and wish to file a lawsuit against a client for unpaid services under $5000.00, in which court would your case go to trial?

A. Appellate court

B. Court of appeals

C. County court

D. Special court

A

C. County court

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40
Q
  1. In the United States, which court is the lowest in the land, in the terms of authority?

A. Appellate court

B. Court of appeals

C. Magistrates court

D. Special court

A

C. Magistrates court

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41
Q
  1. Under the current law, which of the following choices represents a veterinarian’s greatest risk for legal liability?

A. Injury to an employee

B. Injury to a client

C. Medical malpractice

D. Disability

A

B. Injury to a client

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42
Q
  1. Under which law do most cases that involve Veterinary professional liability originate from?

A. Criminal law

B. Law of malpractice

C. Law of civil negligence

D. Probate law

A

B. Law of malpractice

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43
Q
  1. According to Black’s Law Dictionary, what is the correct definition of negligence?

A. The doing of an act that a person without normal prudence would find offensive in the exact same circumstances

B. The doing of an act that a person of normal prudence would not have done under similar circumstances

C. The doing of an act that an extraordinary person of abnormal prudence would have done under the exact same circumstances

D. The doing of an act that a person of normal prudence would have done under similar circumstances

A

B. The doing of an act that a person of normal prudence would not have done under similar circumstances

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44
Q
  1. When considering the law of negligence, how does it pertain to professional behavior?

A. It pertains to the way a professional handles a malpractice suit

B. It pertains to all aspects of a professional’s life and business

C. It pertains to the way professionals run their businesses

D. It pertains to the way professionals run their lives

A

C. It pertains to the way professionals run their businesses

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45
Q
  1. A client presents a patient for emergency care and is unable to pay for the necessary medical care. Which option below best represents the ramifications of denying emergency medical care to this patient?

A. Revocation of American Animal Hospital Association certification

B. Medical malpractice suit

C. State Veterinary Board disciplinary action

D. Moral indignation and bad public relations

A

D. Moral indignation and bad public relations

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of omission in a veterinary malpractice lawsuit?

A. Failure to utilize a cardiac monitor

B. Failure to perform vaginal cultures on a herd of cattle

C. Failure to perform a urinalysis

D. Failure to properly file the patient medical record

A

D. Failure to properly file the patient medical record

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47
Q
  1. In consideration of veterinary lawsuits, there are three types of damages that can be awarded. In addition to nominal and compensatory, which of the following choices is the third type of damages that can be awarded?

A. Punitive

B. Veterinary

C. Compensatory

D. Altruistic

A

A. Punitive

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48
Q
  1. In the process of a veterinary lawsuit, what are the most common expenses that a client may seek an award for?

A. Pain and suffering

B. Veterinary bills

C. Time lost from work

D. Personal expenses

A

B. Veterinary bills

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49
Q
  1. The purpose of federal and state antitrust legislation is to preserve the underlying principle that our nation shall function under which of the following?

A. The article of free speech

B. A monopolized business environment

C. A competitive business economy

D. All of the above

A

C. A competitive business economy

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50
Q
  1. In the event of a violation of antitrust laws, the Department of Justice initiates most legal proceedings under which of the following?

A. First Amendment

B. State law

C. Second Amendment

D. Federal law

A

D. Federal law

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51
Q
  1. In addition to the antitrust division of the Department of Justice, who else may initiate action under federal antitrust statutes?

A. Private litigants

B. Public affairs

C. Federal Bureau of Investigation

D. ASPCA

A

A. Private litigants

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52
Q
  1. The Federal Trade Commission and the courts are responsible for the interpretation and application of the competitive objectives of which of the following?

A. Congress

B. Antitrust laws

C. Federal government

D. Local municipality

A

B. Antitrust laws

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53
Q
  1. The San Diego Veterinary Medical Association was scrutinized for publishing fee survey results, adopting minimum fee schedules, and prohibiting members from accepting low cost spay / neuter patients. It was charged that this practice is a violation of Section 1 of which federal act?

A. Grant Act

B. Pharmaceutical Trade Act

C. Sherman Act

D. Free Trade Act

A

C. Sherman Act

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54
Q
  1. What are the four main types of moral problems that veterinary medical professionals face?

A. Peers, clients, animals, society

B. Peers, family, clients, animals

C. Family, clients, society, animals

D. Coworkers, family, society, animals

A

A. Peers, clients, animals, society

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55
Q
  1. When a licensed veterinarian is considering moving to another state, they must consider in which states their license to practice medicine will reciprocate to. How many states offer reciprocity without an exam?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 9

A

D. 9

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56
Q
  1. When a veterinarian applies for a state license to practice veterinary medicine for the first time, how many states will waive the state portion of the examination?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 1

D. None

A

A. 6

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57
Q
  1. If a client’s dog is confiscated by animal control for chasing cars alongside the interstate, what term of animal confinement would be used to describe this situation?

A. Hot Dog on I-4

B. Animal control

C. Animal confinement

D. Running at large

A

D. Running at large

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58
Q
  1. In the Unites States court system, which of the following choices represents the type of court that is not found under the special courts title?

A. Traffic court

B. Juvenile court

C. Small claims court

D. Probate court

A

C. Small claims court

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59
Q
  1. Which two United States courts, in which veterinary cases may be heard, are classified as trial courts?

A. County court and special court

B. Intermediate court and juvenile court

C. County court and district court

D. State court and magistrates’ court

A

A. County court and special court

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60
Q
  1. When a veterinarian applies for a veterinary license for the first time, which of the following three items is required?

A. Application, diploma, and passport

B. Application, diploma, and certification of graduation

C. Application, copy of driver’s license, diploma

D. Application, license, diploma

A

B. Application, diploma, and certification of graduation

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61
Q
  1. According to most state laws, who may administer a Rabies vaccine to a domesticated animal?

A. The animal owner

B. Anyone with proper medical training

C. A licensed veterinarian only

D. All of the above

A

C. A licensed veterinarian only

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62
Q
  1. Although laws may vary by state or province, generally speaking, who has legal ownership of pet medical records?

A. They are public record, and not subject to ownership laws

B. They are jointly owner between the veterinarian and the pet owner

C. The animal owner

D. The Veterinary practice

A

D. The Veterinary practice

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following choices represents a valid legal concern, regarding the use of computerized pet medical records in a veterinary practice?

A. Alteration of records

B. Breech of client confidentiality

C. Loss of data

D. Inaccurate entries

A

A. Alteration of records

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64
Q
  1. In order to alleviate concerns should a veterinary malpractice suit arise, what protective measure can a practice take in order to generally satisfy a court of law that the electronic patient records are trustworthy?

A. Creating backup tapes or disks that are kept on the veterinary premises

B. Placing backup tapes or disks into an escrow account

C. Maintaining a journal of alterations as they occur

D. Institute a hospital wide policy prohibiting alterations to the patient record

A

B. Placing backup tapes or disks into an escrow account

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following choices represents the goal of a practice manager when performing a medical record audit and peer review?

A. Ascertain medical service compliance

B. Determine receptionist compliance

C. Evaluate the completeness of physical examination findings

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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66
Q
  1. What are the main two ways that periodic medical record audits and peer reviews benefit a Veterinary practice?

A. Employee reviews and vaccine reminder compliance

B. Survey client / patient data and discover service gaps

C. Legal compliance and increase profitability

D. Verify association standards are upheld, and staff compliance

A

C. Legal compliance and increase profitability

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67
Q
  1. If a Veterinary staff member makes a mistake when recording information on a hand-written patient medical record, which of the following is the correct way in which to make an alteration?

A. Crossed out, dated, initialed, and an explanation recorded

B. Erased, initialed, an explanation recorded

C. Crossed out and initialed

D. The incorrect information must be left on the chart, and the correct information recorded underneath it

A

A. Crossed out, dated, initialed, and an explanation recorded

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68
Q
  1. When evaluating patient medical records during an audit, which of the following is a common mistake made by associate veterinarians?

A. Incomplete physical examination finding

B. Missed services either not offered or not documented

C. Incomplete medical record

D. Over-documenting commentary

A

B. Missed services either not offered or not documented

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69
Q
  1. Providing a client with informed consent for procedures that will be performed on a pet is an important step in an organized Veterinary practice. What information should be included on procedural consent forms?

A. Client and patient information, procedure to be performed, and risk

B. Prognosis and risk

C. Risk, alternatives, prognosis, and potential complications

D. Risk and potential complications

A

C. Risk, alternatives, prognosis, and potential complications

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70
Q
  1. The American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) is the only voluntary certifying organization for veterinary hospitals in the United States. What is the mission of AAHA?

A. Educate veterinarians on the latest trends and medical advancements

B. Meet the needs of veterinarians in order to provide research into controversial issues surrounding the practice of veterinary medicine

C. Educate the public as to what a high standard of veterinary medical care is

D. Meet public needs and enhance the veterinarians’ ability to provide a high level of medical care, and maintain facilities with a high standard of excellence

A

D. Meet public needs and enhance the veterinarians’ ability to provide a high level of medical care, and maintain facilities with a high standard of excellence

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71
Q
  1. Non-electronic (paper) patient medical records are file either alphabetically or numerically. What advantage does a numeric filing system have for veterinary practices with a large volume of patient medical records?

A. Eliminates misfiling mistakes caused by employee spelling errors

B. Allows for a cross reference database of client names and client numbers

C. Allows for quick access when pulling patient medical records

D. Eliminates the need for purchasing a color coding system for each letter of alphabet

A

A. Eliminates misfiling mistakes caused by employee spelling errors

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72
Q
  1. From a business management perspective, what is the reason That procedural logs (radiograph, surgery, etc…) are beneficial to a veterinary practice?

A. Quality control

B. Record audits for capturing lost charges

C. Determine the amount of labor expended in each service area

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding patient prognosis?

A. The prognosis is a final opinion and does not change during the course of treatment

B. Patient prognosis helps a client decide what level of veterinary service to engage for the patient

C. The prognosis is charted just prior to patient discharge

D. The prognosis does not affect the medical recommendation

A

B. Patient prognosis helps a client decide what level of veterinary service to engage for the patient

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74
Q
  1. When establishing a new medical record system, whether manual or electronic, which of the following choices represents criteria that must be adhered to?

A. The language that is used to document information should be a personal code that cannot be easily interpreted by those outside the practice

B. A group medical record must be kept for multiple animals in the same household

C. The record must be composed as a legal document that will be admissible in a court of law

D. All medical records must be retained for a period of ten years

A

C. The record must be composed as a legal document that will be admissible in a court of law

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75
Q
  1. The Source-Oriented Medical Record (SOM) consists of data that is entered on the patient medical record in what format?

A. Alphabetically, by medical problem

B. Chronologically, by each identified health problem

C. Chronologically, by office visit or period of hospitalization

D. Alphanumerically, by diagnostic code

A

C. Chronologically, by office visit or period of hospitalization

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76
Q
  1. What type of patient medical record links all recorded information to various patient health problems as they arise?

A. Problem Oriented Patient Medical Record (POMR)

B. Electronic (paperless) medical record system (EMRS)

C. Source Oriented Patient Medical Record (SOMR)

D. Combination of SOMR, POMR, and EMRS

A

A. Problem Oriented Patient Medical Record (POMR)

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77
Q
  1. When utilizing the Problem-Oriented Patient Medical Record (POMR) format, in which section are “SOAP” notes recorded?

A. Major / minor problem section

B. Progress section

C. The defined database section

D. The plan section

A

B. Progress section

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78
Q
  1. Which of the following choices would be information that is included in the “Subjective” section of the progress notes?

A. Information that is based on fact, not opinion

B. The sum of all information, whether based on opinion or fact

C. Information related to owner observations, more opinion than fact

D. Information relating to the differential diagnosis and tentative prognosis

A

C. Information related to owner observations, more opinion than fact

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79
Q
  1. If an employee wanted to find the most recent information for client communication regarding a specific patient, under which section of the patient medical record would they look?

A. The “S” section of SOAP

B. The “O” section of SOAP

C. The “A” section of SOAP

D. The “P” section of SOAP

A

D. The “P” section of SOAP

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80
Q
  1. When combining the SOM and POMR medical record format, what elements should be present in order to ensure accuracy and continuity of information?

A. Major problem list, vaccine history, and exam findings organized into SOAP format

B. Medical history, vaccine history, and chief complaint on leading page

C. Major problem list, vaccine history, and exam findings organized into
ADR format

D. Client and patient data on leading page

A

A. Major problem list, vaccine history, and exam findings organized into SOAP format

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81
Q
  1. What does SOAP stand for?

A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

B. Simple, Object, Access, Protocol

C. Spine, Orthopedic, And Pain

D. Subjective, Oriented, Assessment, Protocol22

A

A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

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82
Q
  1. According to the American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) standards, which of the following is the correct abbreviation for a fracture?

A. dx

B. fx

C. dr

D. fr

A

B. fx

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83
Q
  1. When recording information onto a patient medical record, which of the following is the correct way to indicate (in abbreviated form) that a patient is to be given as much water as desired?

A. H20 free choice

B. Water NPO

C. H20 ad lib

D. Water BID q4h

A

C. H20 ad lib

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84
Q
  1. If a patient chart indicates that they were diagnosed with GDV, what is the correct medical term for this condition?

A. gastrointestinal diarrhea vomiting

B. gestational dilated vagina

C. geriatric dog vestibular

D. gastric dilatation and volvulus

A

D. gastric dilatation and volvulus

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85
Q
  1. If a vaccine is said to be MLV, what does this mean?

A. Modified Live Virus

B. Measles Lepto Vaccine

C. Mutated Live Vaccine

D. Macro Lymphatic Virus

A

A. Modified Live Virus

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86
Q
  1. Which of the following choices represent the two greatest operational costs of veterinary hospitals?

A. Veterinary salary and payroll

B. Staffing and Inventory

C. Malpractice insurance and unemployment compensation insurance

D. Drugs and supplies

A

B. Staffing and Inventory

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87
Q
  1. Inventory is defined as goods that are held for the resale or use in the regular course of business. Which of the following is NOT an example of inventory in a veterinary practice?

A. Drugs and supplies held for resale

B. Office and computer equipment and supplies

C. Janitorial and cleaning supplies

D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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88
Q
  1. How is the unit cost of an inventory item calculated?

A. amount paid to vendor + shipping + sales tax, multiplied by the quantity ordered

B. amount paid to vendor - sales tax, divided by the quantity ordered

C. amount paid to vendor + sales tax + shipping, divided by the quantity ordered

D. amount paid to vendor + shipping - sales tax, multiplied by the quantity ordered

A

C. amount paid to vendor + sales tax + shipping, divided by the quantity ordered

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89
Q
  1. If you receive an inventory shipment for 12 bottles of Catron spray, and the invoice lists the price at $12.00, with $1.20 in sales tax and $8.00 shipping charges, what would the unit cost of this item be (rounded up the nearest whole cent)?

A. $1.77

B. $1.00

C. $1.66

D. $1.17

A

A. $1.77

The price of $12 is added to the sales tax and shipping, and the total ($21.20) is divided by the quantity of items (12). $12 + $1.20 + $8 = $21.20. Divided by 12 = $1.77

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90
Q
  1. Besides unit cost, what are two other broad categories of inventory expense that are computed in order to determine the actual cost of an inventory item?

A. Unit cost and holding cost

B. Ordering cost and holding cost

C. Unit cost and ordering cost

D. Ordering cost, holding cost, and sales tax

A

B. Ordering cost and holding cost

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91
Q
  1. When factoring in the final cost of an inventory item, tasks (that you must pay employees for) such as price shopping, meeting with vendors, and unpacking shipments are costs that fall into which category of inventory expense?

A. Payroll

B. Unit cost

C. Ordering costs

D. Holding costs

A

C. Ordering costs

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92
Q
  1. Inventory ordering costs account for what percentage of the total unit cost?

A. 15% - 20%

B. 10% - 15%

C. 5% - 10%

D. 2% - 5%

A

A. 15% - 20%

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93
Q
  1. The cost of owning and keeping inventory on the premises in anticipation of use is considered to be a part of what type of inventory expense?

A. Ordering cost

B. Holding cost

C. Unit cost

D. Receiving cost

A

B. Holding cost

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94
Q
  1. Inventory holding costs normally account for what percentage of inventory expense in a veterinary hospital?

A. 6% - 8%

B. 2% - 4%

C. 8% - 15%

D. 15% - 20%

A

C. 8% - 15%

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95
Q

Which of the following statement represents a central goal of inventory control and management in veterinary medicine?

A. Quantities of drugs and professional supplies are kept in large quantities to avoid running out

B. To provide limitless access to inventory items for maximum convenience to veterinarians and staff

C. To purchase in bulk whenever possible, in order to realize deep discounts on unit costs

D. Quantities of drugs and professional supplies are controlled in order to minimize expenditure

A

D. Quantities of drugs and professional supplies are controlled in order to minimize expenditure

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96
Q
  1. An effective inventory system will signal a manager when an item needs to be reordered. This is in order to avoid which of the following situations?

A. A stock out

B. Expired drugs and supplies

C. A cash out

D. A cop out

A

A. A stock out

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97
Q
  1. Which of the following choices is a key feature of a perpetual inventory system?

A. Quantities are updated by manual inventory counts

B. When an item is received, it is immediately added to inventory and automatically subtracted when it is sold

C. When an item is ordered, it is automatically added into inventory

D. Quantities are updated by annual inventory counts and do not have to adjusted throughout the year

A

B. When an item is received, it is immediately added to inventory and automatically subtracted when it is sold

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98
Q
  1. Personal property taxes that are paid by the Veterinary Hospital for the value of the inventory, insurance premiums, and pharmacy fees are an example of what type of inventory expense?

A. Ordering expense

B. Operational expense

C. Holding expense

D. Unit cost

A

C. Holding expense

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99
Q
  1. A periodic inventory system uses records that rely on which of the following at the end of each accounting period?

A. A bookkeeper

B. A computerized count

C. A balance sheet

D. A physical count

A

D. A physical count

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100
Q
  1. What is the term for inventory loss that is unexplained or difficult to isolate?

A. Shrinkage

B. Wastage

C. Theft

D. Loss of use item

A

A. Shrinkage

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101
Q
  1. ABC Animal Medical Center began the year with 500 boxes of Promeris. They ordered 2000 additional boxes throughout the year, and sold 2,341 boxes. How many boxes of Promeris should they have left at the end of the year?

A. 128

B. 159

C. 341

D. 150

A

B. 159

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102
Q
  1. Which of the following items poses the greatest challenge for maintaining an accurate perpetual inventory system?

A. Inventory shortage items

B. Items held for resale

C. Hospital consumables

D. Retail items

A

C. Hospital consumables

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103
Q
  1. The concept of ration-based inventory management is based on what simple theory?

A. Inventory is more vulnerable to wastage if held in smaller quantities

B. Inventory is more difficult to control if held in large quantities

C. Inventory is less vulnerable to shrinkage if held in large quantities

D. Inventory is easier to control if it held in smaller quantities

A

D. Inventory is easier to control if it held in smaller quantities

Ration-based uses a central supply area that stocks larger quantities that are rationed out to secondary areas

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104
Q
  1. Under the ration-based inventory system, which of the following choices are a means of providing internal control over employee’s theft of inventory items?

A. Segregating the person responsible for physical inventory count from the record keeper

B. Assigning access to the central supply to only one person in the practice

C. The inventory manager is solely responsible for physical inventory count & record management

D. Limiting access to the central supply area to licensed DVMs only

A

A. Segregating the person responsible for physical inventory count from the record keeper

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105
Q
  1. When considering employee theft of inventory items, what is the greatest safeguard that a veterinary hospital can implement in order
    to safeguard the practice’s assets?

A. A physical inventory count

B. A perpetual inventory system

C. An inventory control card system

D. Assigning a single inventory manager

A

B. A perpetual inventory system

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106
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct term for a method of pricing that adjusts the sales price of an item as contemporaneously as possible to the sale, based on its most current replacement acquisition cost and regardless of how much was paid for the item?

A. Cost plus pricing

B. Market oriented pricing

C. Just in time pricing

D. Premium pricing

A

C. Just in time pricing

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107
Q
  1. When ordering veterinary medication and supplies, there is an optimal quantity that should be purchased at any one time, in order to maintain maximum profitability for the practice. Which of the following is a mathematical formula that can be used in order to determine optimal ordering quantities?

A. Optimal Order Quantity (00Q)

B. Reorder Point (ROP)

C. Purchase Lead Time (PLT)

D. Economic Order Quantity (E0Q)

A

D. Economic Order Quantity (E0Q)

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108
Q
  1. What is the correct term for the computation of sales that relates to the volume of merchandise sold to the inventory amount?

A. Inventory turnover

B. Sales reconciliation

C. Merchandise sales point

D. None of the above

A

A. Inventory turnover

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109
Q
  1. When considering calculating inventory turns for an entire veterinary hospital, which of the following statement is TRUE?

A. The higher the turnover number, the lower the ordering costs

B. The higher the turnover number for a given period of time, the more efficient the control.

C. A higher turnover number is financially inefficient

D. The higher the turnover number for a given period of time, the less efficient the control

A

B. The higher the turnover number for a given period of time, the more efficient the control.

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110
Q
  1. What is the inventory amount that is expected to be used up between the point of order receipts to the time another order must be placed called?

A. Inventory turnover

B. Reorder point

C. Operating level

D. Lead stock

A

C. Operating level

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111
Q
  1. Use the following example to calculate the ANNUAL turnover of 100mg Amoxicillin tablets, 200 per bottle. The beginning inventory count on January 1 is 150 tablets, and the ending count on December 31 is 210 tablets. The total purchases from January to June were 4 bottles, or 800 tablets. How many times was this medication turned over in the course of one year?

A. 2.22 times per year

B. 4.44 times per year

C. 6.66 times per year

D. 8.88 times per year

A

D. 8.88 times per year

  • turnover is calculated by adding together the beginning and ending inventory (150 + 210 = 360 ). This number is then divided by 2, for a result of 180. The total purchases for a six month period were 800 tablets, so this is divided by 180 (800 / 180 = 4.44 ). Since 4.44 is the turnover number for six months, you will need to double it in order to calculate a full year*
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112
Q
  1. Breakeven analysis is performed in order to adequately price a product. What is the formula for determining breakeven analysis?

A. Breakeven sales price equals fixed cost plus variable cost

B. Breakeven sales price equals vendor cost plus sales tax

C. Breakeven sales price equals cost plus 20%

D. Breakeven sales price equals vendor cost plus fixed costs

A

A. Breakeven sales price equals fixed cost plus variable cost

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113
Q
  1. The Economic Order Quantity (E0Q) recognizes three specific costs incurred in the computation of optimal ordering quantities of a single item. What are these three specific costs?

A. Annual demand in units, holding cost, unit cost

B. Ordering cost, holding cost, unit cost

C. Unit cost, taxes, shipping

D. Vendor price, holding cost, taxes
hospital?

A

B. Ordering cost, holding cost, unit cost

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114
Q
  1. When does inventory become a legal asset of the veterinary hospital?

A. 30 days from title receipt

B. Upon shipment

C. As soon as title has passed from the vendor to the veterinary practice

D. upon delivery

A

C. As soon as title has passed from the vendor to the veterinary practice

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115
Q
  1. If a shipping document enclosed with an inventory delivery states “FOB shipping point”, when would the title, or ownership, of the inventory pass to the veterinary practice?

A. when the merchandise is shipped

B. when the merchandise is delivered to the veterinary practice

C. upon receipt of payment

D. when the merchandise is delivered to the shipper

A

D. when the merchandise is delivered to the shipper

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116
Q
  1. The breakeven analysis formula states that S (sales price) = F + V + P. When using the breakeven analysis as a starting point for product pricing, “p” is a variable component in the equation. What does “P” stand for?

A. Profit

B. Product

C. Price

D. Percentage

A

A. Profit

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117
Q
  1. If VanMeer Veterinary Hospital has purchased a new ultrasound machine through Western Medical, and did not collect the requisite state sales tax because they are located in another state, what type of tax payment is the Veterinary Hospital liable for?

A. Sales tax

B. Use tax

C. Service tax

D. Major purchase tax

A

B. Use tax

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118
Q
  1. If the inventory turnover rate on a bottle of Baytril 22.7 mg (150 count) is 6.66, what is the average number of days (over a period of 183 days) that the medication sits on the shelf before it is sold out?

A. 60 days

B. 27 days

C. 18.3 days

D. 20 days

A

B. 27 days

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119
Q
  1. What document is a legal agreement describing and defining the events causing a partner or shareholder to sell his/her interest in a veterinary hospital, and the terms for resolving other interests and ownerships?

A. Shareholder Buyout Agreement

B. Buy-Sell Agreement

C. Stock liquidation Agreement

D. Partner Dissolution Agreement

A

B. Buy-Sell Agreement

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120
Q
  1. Computer technology that allows images to be made, stored, transmitted between computers, and recreated for viewing is known as what?

A. Electronic Records Systems Technology

B. Computed Radiography Technology

C. Digital Image Technology

D. Computer Imaging Technology

A

C. Digital Image Technology

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121
Q
  1. What is the designation awarded by the Veterinary Hospital Managers Association for individuals, who have proven education and competence in a wide range of veterinary hospital operations and management?

A. VHMA

B. VPMA

C. CVHM

D. CVPM

A

D. CVPM

122
Q
  1. What is the standard adopted by the Occupation Safety and Health Administration that requires all employers to develop a prescribed program for ensuring that all employees are aware of the existence of hazardous materials in their workplace, and trained in their use?

A. Hazardous Communication Standard

B. Material Safety Data Sheets

C. Hazardous Materials in the Workplace Standard

D. Employee Hazard Standard

A

A. Hazardous Communication Standard

123
Q
  1. Marketing that focuses on existing clientele, aiming to strengthen their bond with the practice and increase their demand for veterinary service is known as what?

A. Marketing communication

B. Internal marketing

C. Patient focus marketing

D. External marketing

A

B. Internal marketing

124
Q
  1. A compensation arrangement by which employees that successfully convince a client to purchase products or services is considered to be what type of program?

A. Profit sharing program

B. Performance bonus program

C. Incentive program

D. Motivational performance program

A

C. Incentive program

125
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a pretax benefit for the veterinary employee?

A. Vacation pay

B. Pet medical care

C. Profit sharing

D. Health insurance premiums

A

D. Health insurance premiums

126
Q
  1. Douglas MacGregor popularized a management theory that states that most people can be self-directed and creative at work, If properly supported and motivated. What is this theory called?

A. Theory Y

B. Theory X

C. Motivational Factor Theory

D. MacGregor Theory

A

A. Theory Y

127
Q
  1. Generally speaking, what is the difference between a veterinary hospital and a veterinary clinic?

A. There is no difference; The owner chooses one or the other for the name of the practice

B. A veterinary hospital has overnight facilities for hospitalization and a clinic does not

C. A veterinary clinic is designated for a facility that offers low cost vaccines and procedures

D. veterinary hospitals perform surgeries requiring anesthesia but clinics do not

A

B. A veterinary hospital has overnight facilities for hospitalization and a clinic does not

128
Q
  1. An insurance or prepaid service plan that pays for veterinary care provided to an animal for the purpose of preventing disease or promoting health is known as which of the following?

A. Prepaid veterinary care plan

B. Proactive for life plan

C. Wellness plan

D. Preventative health plan

A

C. Wellness plan

129
Q
  1. If Dr. Moore writes a prescription for a drug that the client will purchase elsewhere, what is this known as?

A. Prescription transfer

B. Scripting request

C. Prescription authorization

D. Script out

A

D. Script out

130
Q
  1. What category do expenses fall into, when the amount exceeds or falls short of the projected amount, based on comparison to other practices or benchmarks?

A. out-of-line expenditure

B. Over budget

C. Budgetary windfall

D. Miscellaneous expenditure

A

A. out-of-line expenditure

131
Q
  1. What is the current mandatory depreciation method required by United States federal regulation for depreciating property acquired
    after December 31, 1986?

A. Reversed Depreciation System (RDS)

B. Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS)

C. Moderated Depreciation Recovery System (MDRS)

D. Acceleration Cost Depreciation System (ACDS)

A

B. Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS)

132
Q
  1. What is the broad statement called, which is written by the owners of a veterinary practice, identifying the reason for the existence of their service?

A. Public message

B. Service statement

C. Mission statement

D. Marketing message

A

C. Mission statement

133
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of commercially available pet health record that is given to a client to keep track of an animal’s vaccination history?

A. A health report card

B. A patient medical record

C. A take home history report

D. A patient-health pocket record

A

D. A patient-health pocket record

134
Q
  1. What are terms for employment called, whereby employees may quit and employers may terminate as a matter of their own preference unless a specific provision in an employment agreement states an agreed upon duration of employment?

A. At-will

B. Right to work

C. Termination clause

D. Employment termination settlement

A

A. At-will

135
Q
  1. Veterinary services that are provided at the client’s house or farm are called what?

A. Rolling care service

B. Ambulatory services

C. Ambulance service

D. Satellite services

A

B. Ambulatory services

136
Q
  1. Generally, a written agreement between veterinarians where they agree not to compete with each other within a prescribed distance is known as what?

A. Restitution clause

B. Competition clause

C. Convent not-to-compete

D. Divisive competition agreement

A

C. Convent not-to-compete

137
Q
  1. During normal veterinary activities, a number of circumstances and situations arise in which hospital staff exercise their understanding of the Human-Companion Animal Bond. Which of the following choices represent activities where it is important for staff to have an understanding of this bond?

A. During a treatment or handling when a procedure might cause pain or fright

B. When dealing with animal behavior problems while at the hospital

C. When dealing with requests for low cost veterinary services

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

138
Q
  1. If the Human-Companion Animal Bond is extended to the veterinary health care team, what is the likely result of this bidirectional relationship?

A. Communication is improved and recommendations are more likely to be followed

B. The owner is likely to inappropriately emotionally attach themselves to their pets

C. Communication is weakened and recommendations are more likely to be rejected

D. The owner is likely to over-request unnecessary services in an effort to gain attention

A

A. Communication is improved and recommendations are more likely to be followed

139
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding conflicts between client ethics and veterinary practice ethics?

A. Extremely demanding clients who have little respect for animals dictate that the client relationship be terminated

B. Veterinary practices have no legal obligation to see every client who requests care

C. When a client relationship is terminated, the animal loses their best advocate.. the veterinary staff

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

140
Q
  1. Unfortunately, animal death and client grief is a big part of any veterinary practice. When understanding that the grieving client goes through multiple stages during the coping process, what emotional stage follows after denial and isolation?

A. Depression

B. Anger

C. Acceptance

D. Bargaining

A

B. Anger

141
Q
  1. What is the difference between advertising and marketing a veterinary practice?

A. Advertising utilizes mass media while marketing utilizes direct mail

B. Advertising announces promotions or a sale, marketing announces value

C. Advertising announces the value of the service, marketing gives information with an implied intent to sell

D. Advertising utilizes a single media, marketing utilizes multiple media
channels

A

C. Advertising announces the value of the service, marketing gives information with an implied intent to sell

142
Q
  1. In general, what is the professional attitude of veterinarians towards advertising?

A. Veterinarians are ethically prohibited from engaging in advertising

B. Veterinarians are enthusiastic about exploring competitive advertising

C. Veterinarians view advertising in a positive manner

D. Veterinarians tend to be adverse to blatant forms of advertising

A

D. Veterinarians tend to be adverse to blatant forms of advertising

143
Q
  1. Successful marketing of a veterinary practice can occur actively or passively. Which of the following is an example of passively marketing a veterinary practice?

A. The appearance of staff members

B. Thank you cards

C. Newsletters

D. Discounts and promotions

A

A. The appearance of staff members

144
Q
  1. Two broad types of veterinary practice marketing are indirect and direct marketing. Which of the following is an example of a direct marketing component?

A. The way that the telephone is answered

B. Yellow page ad

C. The appearance of the building

D. The cleanliness of the hospitalized patient

A

B. Yellow page ad

145
Q
  1. If, as part of a marketing campaign, you decide to send letters to existing clients about the benefits of twice yearly exams, what type of marketing are you engaging in?

A. Indirect

B. Internal

C. Passive

D. External

A

B. Internal

146
Q
  1. What is the primary product of any veterinary hospital?

A. Pet medications

B. Pet supplies

C. Personal service

D. Personal reputation

A

C. Personal service

147
Q
  1. What are the four “Ps” of marketing?

A. Position, Price, Product, Profit

B. Product, Price, Promotion, Position

C. Position, Profit, Product, Promotion

D. Product, Place, Price, Promotion

A

D. Product, Place, Price, Promotion

148
Q
  1. The price that a Veterinary hospital can charge for its services, and still be in demand, is dependent on which of the following factors?

A. Availability of services offered

B. Alumni veterinarian

C. Number of veterinarians employed

D. Appearance of the building

A

A. Availability of services offered

149
Q
  1. To identify a specific market group by specific characteristics, such as age, income level, or type of pets is referred to as what?

A. Profiling

B. Segmentation

C. Targeting

D. Reach

A

B. Segmentation

150
Q
  1. Direct mail coupons are often timely and excellent for direct marketing campaigns. Which of the following considerations must a manager evaluate prior to deciding to use direct mail coupons?

A. Accuracy of database

B. Frequency of mailings

C. Hospital image

D. Staff time preparing mailings

A

C. Hospital image

151
Q
  1. Which veterinary regulatory agency addresses the issue of advertising and requires compliance with the “Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics”?

A. Animal Advertising Ethics Committee (AAEC)

B. American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA)

C. American Veterinary Regulatory Authority (AVRA)

D. American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)

A

D. American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)

152
Q
  1. Allowing for excellent segmenting and target marketing, newsletters are an example of what type of marketing activity?

A. Public relations

B. Direct mail advertising

C. Word of mouth advertising

D. Indirect marketing

A

A. Public relations

153
Q
  1. In 1977, the Supreme Court ruled that professionals can advertise their services. However, that ruling was based on which of the following statements?

A. Advertisers right to seek advantage

B. The public’s right to know

C. Advertisers right to promote services

D. The public’s perception of value

A

B. The public’s right to know

154
Q
  1. Marketing that occurs through any unpaid communication conveyed through the media, such as newspaper, radio, or television, is known as what type of marketing?

A. Targeted letters

B. Personal selling

C. Publicity marketing

D. Special events

A

C. Publicity marketing

155
Q
  1. Which of the following are examples of attributes of personal selling inside the veterinary practice?

A. Listening skills and telephone manners

B. Office décor and cleanliness

C. Advising clients of additional services needed for their pets

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

156
Q
  1. An analysis that identifies a practices strengths and weaknesses, for the purpose of creating a marketing plan, is known as what?

A. SWOT analysis

B. AWSM analysis

C. SWET analysis

D. AMSW analysis

A

A. SWOT analysis

157
Q
  1. In addition to the hospital files, which of the following is a primary source of information used for creating a market analysis?

A. Voter registration surveys

B. Chamber of Commerce

C. Client lists from complementary businesses

D. Office of Vital Statistics

A

B. Chamber of Commerce

158
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct term for a name, term, symbol, or any unique factor that identifies an individual product or service, and sets them apart from the competition?

A. Brand

B. DBA

C. Differential benefit

D. AIDA model

A

A. Brand

159
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly states the 80/20 marketing rule?

A. 20% of purchasers account for 80% of product sales

B. 20% of product sates account for 80% of the sales

C. 20% of product sales account for 80% of purchasers

D. 20% of purchasers account for 80% of consumers

A

A. 20% of purchasers account for 80% of product sales

160
Q
  1. Which of the following terms means the loss of sales from an existing brand when a new item in a product line is introduced?

A. Two way stretch

B. Cannibalization

C. Filling out strategy

D. Upward line stretch

A

B. Cannibalization

161
Q
  1. The overall rank of people within a society according to the value assigned to such factors as family background, education, occupation, and income is known as which of the following?

A. Social class

B. Market share

C. Market segmentation

D. Social segregation

A

A. Social class

162
Q
  1. The acronym “PONK” stands for pet owner, no kids and is an example of which of the following?

A. Reverse marketing

B. Atypical veterinary client

C. Segment profile

D. Single sourcing

A

C. Segment profile

163
Q
  1. The philosophy that calls for companywide dedication to development, maintenance, and improvement of all aspects of the company’s operations is known as what?

A. Total Quality Management (TOM)

B. Employee Standardization Program (ESP)

C. Quality Product Control (OPC)

D. Company Improvement Pledge (CIP)

A

A. Total Quality Management (TOM)

164
Q
  1. When considering the consumer decision making process, heuristics are a mental rule of thumb that consumers use to make purchasing decisions. Which of the following is an example of a heuristic?

A. Internal influence

B. Price equals quality

C. Situational influence

D. Self-actualization

A

B. Price equals quality

165
Q
  1. Abraham Maslow proposed a hierarchy of needs that categorizes consumer motives in the purchasing cycle. Under this theory, what is the highest level of need that motivates a consumer to buy a particular brand, service, or product?

A. Prestige, status, accomplishments

B. Love, friendship, acceptance

C. Self-fulfillment and enriching experiences

D. Security, shelter, protection

A

C. Self-fulfillment and enriching experiences

166
Q
  1. If a client purchases 60 Rimadyl tablets at a cost of 97 cents each, and the pharmacy fee is $12.00, how much will this client’s prescription cost?

A. $72.00

B. $58.20

C. $42.00

D. $70.20

A

D. $70.20

167
Q
  1. The unit cost on a carton of Frontline Plus is $168, including fixed and variable expenses. If there are 10 boxes in a carton and the hospital markup is 240%, how much will each box of Frontline Plus retail for?

A. $16.80

B. $20.83

C. $33.60

D. $40.32

A

D. $40.32

divide the carton price by 10 to get the box price, then multiply the box price by 2.4

168
Q
  1. If a client purchases 15 Greenies for their dog, at a cost of .52 cents each, and the sales tax is 9.75%, what would the final bill total?

A. $8.56

B. $7.56

C. $7.60

D. $7.80

A

A. $8.56

169
Q
  1. Which of the following components is NOT a part of the veterinary fee income and revenue collection system?

A. Appointment schedule

B. Payroll

C. Collection policies

D. Employee discounts

A

B. Payroll

170
Q
  1. What are data collection forms that include service and medication descriptions, along with the corresponding computer codes called?

A. Balance sheets (BSs)

B. Computer input sheets (CISs)

C. Patient service trackers (PSTS)

D. Service description pages (SDPS)

A

C. Patient service trackers (PSTS)

171
Q
  1. Endorsed by the American Animal Hospital Association, which of the following is a dedicated healthcare credit card that can be used to pay for veterinary services?

A. Visa

B. MasterCard

C. Care Credit

D. All of the Above

A

C. Care Credit

172
Q
  1. When a client has pet health insurance, who does the privity of contract exist between?

A. The insurance company, veterinarian, and animal owner

B. The veterinarian and the animal owner

C. The insurance company and the veterinarian

D. The insurance company and the animal owner

A

D. The insurance company and the animal owner

173
Q
  1. Regarding barter transactions, where veterinary services are traded for other goods or services, which of the following statement
    is TRUE?

A. The value of the bartered service must be included in the gross income of the hospital

B. The value of the bartered service is not subject to taxation

C. The value of the bartered service is not considered to be a part of the gross income

D. The value of the bartered service is irrelevant, as long as it is equal between both parties

A

A. The value of the bartered service must be included in the gross income of the hospital

174
Q
  1. An outstanding client account represents the hospitals right to payment for services rendered or goods sold. If the outstanding balance is accompanied by a promissory note, what is this called?

A. Balance receivable

B. Note receivable

C. Promissory note

D. Account receivable

A

B. Note receivable

175
Q
  1. In what area do “Truth in Lending” laws primarily affect a veterinary hospital, in regards to accounts receivables?

A. Loans originated by the veterinary hospital, whether secured or unsecured

B. Loans secured by hospital property

C. Billing and interest charges

D. Personal loans granted to the practice owner or any party with financial interest in the hospital

A

C. Billing and interest charges

176
Q
  1. Although closely related, bookkeeping tasks and accounting are separate duties. What is the primary difference between the two?

A. Bookkeeping is more about designing a system and accounting records transactional data

B. Bookkeeping involves creating a ledger and accounting involves writing checks

C. Bookkeeping involves interpretation of financial reports, accounting creates financial reports

D. Bookkeeping is the process of recording transactional data and accounting uses the data gathered by bookkeeping to interpret financial reports

A

D. Bookkeeping is the process of recording transactional data and accounting uses the data gathered by bookkeeping to interpret financial reports

177
Q
  1. If an employee time card report that during the course of one day that they worked from 8:00 - 12:00, and 3:00 - 7:00, how many hours would they be paid for that day?

A. 8

в. 10

C. 12

D. 8 plus 2 hour’s overtime

A

A. 8

178
Q
  1. If a veterinary hospital owns a vehicle that is driven for personal use, on a routine basis, by an associate veterinarian, what type of taxation is this benefit subject to?

A. Tax exempt

B. Full tax withholding, the same as any wage, salary, or bonus

C. Partial tax withholding, depending on actual mileage

D. Personal use is not an employee benefit, according to current tax law

A

B. Full tax withholding, the same as any wage, salary, or bonus

179
Q
  1. What role does a payroll firm have in relation to the veterinary hospital, when it comes to signing returns and electronic submission of tax deposits?

A. Appointed representative

B. Payroll liaison

C. Attorney in fact

D. None. Only the veterinary practice can sign reports and make electronic deposits

A

C. Attorney in fact

180
Q
  1. A CPA is licensed to prepare financial reports that carry three levels of assurance of fairness and reliability. What are these three levels?

A. Fairness, Reliability, and Audit

B. Computation, Creation, and Accuracy

C. Creation, Restoration, Protection

D. Compilation, Review, and Audit

A

D. Compilation, Review, and Audit

181
Q
  1. For the purpose of IRS audits, what type of tax professional is allowed, in addition to an
    attorney, and a CPA to represent the veterinarian?

A. Enrolled agent

B. Public accountant

C. Bookkeeper

D. Paralegal

A

A. Enrolled agent

182
Q
  1. When considering the fundamentals of veterinary accounting, what is the backbone of any accounting system?

A. Balance sheets

B. Chart of accounts

C. Company assets

D. The bookkeeper

A

B. Chart of accounts

183
Q
  1. If a veterinary hospital purchases a new ultrasound machine for $40,000 and the machine is only worth $20,000, what is the cost principle recorded in the general ledger as?

A. $20,000

B. $10,000

C. $40,000

D. $30,000

A

C. $40,000

184
Q
  1. If income is measured when cash is received, and expenses are measured when cash is spent, then a hospital is operating on what type of accounting basis?

A. Cash

B. Just in time accounting

C. Accrual

D. Balanced

A

A. Cash

185
Q
  1. If income and expenses are measured when the transactions occur, regardless of the physical flow of cash, then a hospital is operating on what accounting basis?

A. Just in time

B. Accrual

C. Balanced

D. Cash

A

B. Accrual

186
Q
  1. What is a method of evaluating capital investment proposals that focuses on the expected profitability of the investment called?

A. Capital investment return

B. Expected profitability margin

C. Average rate of return

D. Marginal gain

A

C. Average rate of return

187
Q
  1. The entries that transfer the balances of the revenue, expenses, and drawing accounts to the owners account are called which of the following?

A. Cash dividends

B. Balance transfer

C. Expense entries

D. Closing entries

A

D. Closing entries

188
Q
  1. The systematic examination of the relationships among selling prices, volume of sales, and production costs, expenses, and profits is what type of analysis?

A. Cost-volume-profit

B. Expense-sales-profit

C. Price-volume-expense

D. Production-expense-price

A

A. Cost-volume-profit

189
Q
  1. What is the area of accounting concerned with the effect of alternative courses of action on revenue and cost is referred to as?

A. Cost plus analysis

B. Differential analysis

C. Alternative revenue analysis

D. Depreciation analysis

A

B. Differential analysis

190
Q
  1. Which of the different types of financial statement would be used for summarizing the revenue and expenses for a specific period of time, such as a month or a year?

A. Statement of cash flow

B. Retained earnings statement

C. Income statement

D. Balance sheet

A

C. Income statement

191
Q
  1. Dr. Brokealot deposits $25,000 into a bank account in the name of his corporate veterinary hospital, in exchange for shares of stock in the corporation. What effect would this have on the accounting equation?

A. Increase owner equity on the right side of the equation, decrease assets on the left side of the equation

B. Decrease assets on the left side of the equation and increase owner equity of the right side of the equation

C. Increase owner equity on the left side of the equation, and increase assets on the left side of the equation

D. Increase asset on left side of the equation, and increase owner equity on the right side of the equation

A

D. Increase asset on left side of the equation, and increase owner equity on the right side of the equation

192
Q
  1. If Amy purchases $1,300.00 worth of dog bowls for the veterinary practice that she manages, and she pays by credit card, what type of liability is created as a result of this transaction?

A. Account payable

B. Operating expense

C. Asset generation

D. Unearned revenue

A

A. Account payable

193
Q
  1. If $2,500 worth of supplies were purchased during the month, and supplies of $350 are on hand at the end of the month, how much is the supplies expense for the month?

A. $2,850

B. $2,150

C. $2,500

D. $350

A

B. $2,150

194
Q
  1. The income statement reports the revenues and expenses for a period of time, based on what concept?

A. Alternating

B. Corresponding

C. Matching

D. Rotating

A

C. Matching

195
Q
  1. A veterinary hospital that is earning profit and operating as a separate legal entity and in which ownership is divided into shares of stock is known as what?

A. A corporation

B. A proprietorship

C. A Partnership

D. A publicly traded company

A

A. A corporation

196
Q
  1. If a veterinary hospital’s total assets increased by $20,000 and total liabilities increased by $12,000 during the same period, what would be the amount of change in the owners’ equity?

A. $32,000 decrease

B. $8,000 increase

C. $32,000 increase

D. $8,000 decrease

A

B. $8,000 increase

197
Q
  1. If a veterinary hospital’s revenue was $45,000, expenses were $37,500, and dividends were $10,000, the amount of net income or net loss would be which of the following?

A. $2,500 net loss

B. $8,500 net loss

C. $7,500 net income

D. $8,500 net income

A

C. $7,500 net income

198
Q
  1. Which of the following is a general rule of debits and credits in the balances of accounts?

A. The normal balance of an account is indicated by the side (debit or
credit) that does not receive an increase

B. The sum of increases recorded in an account is usually less than the sum of decreases

C. Transactions are initially entered into a record called a journal

D. The sum of debits is always equal to the sum of credits

A

D. The sum of debits is always equal to the sum of credits

199
Q
  1. A debit entry in an account record may signify which of the following?

A. An increase in an asset account

B. An increase in a liability account

C. A decrease in an asset account

D. Both A & B

A

A. An increase in an asset account

200
Q
  1. What type of financial account has a normal credit balance?

A. Dividends

B. Revenue

C. Expense

D. Asset

A

B. Revenue

dividends, expenses, and assets normally have a debit balance

201
Q
  1. In which of the following hospital accounts would a debit balance indicate a likely error?

A. Expenses

B. Cash

C. Fees earned

D. Accounts receivables

A

C. Fees earned

fees earned should have a credit balance

202
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately demonstrates the difference between managerial accounting and financial accounting?

A. Managerial accounting does not require the generation of financial reports, while financial accounting does

B. Managerial accounting is concerned with future projections, and financial accounting records events from past transactions

C. Managerial accounting provides information in support of financial decisions, while financial accounting does not

D. Managerial accounting is not subject to the “generally accepted accounting principles” (GAAP), while financial accounting is

A

D. Managerial accounting is not subject to the “generally accepted accounting principles” (GAAP), while financial accounting is

203
Q
  1. Which of the following choices represents a measure indicative of a Veterinary hospital’s ability to pay its current liabilities?

A. Working capital

B. Quick ratio

C. Current ratio

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

204
Q
  1. The ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities, that indicates the immediate debt paying ability of a veterinary practice, is which of the following?

A. Current ratio

B. Working capital

C. Quick ratio

D. Checking ratio

A

C. Quick ratio

205
Q
  1. Evergreen Animal Care Center issued a $5000 60-day note to a supplier, who discounted the note 12%. What are the proceeds from this note?

A. $4,900

B. $4,400

C. $5,000

D. $5,100

A

A. $4,900

206
Q
  1. Which of the following types of taxes are employers not required to withhold from employee paychecks?

A. State and local taxes

B. Unemployment compensation

C. Social Security

D. Federal income tax

A

B. Unemployment compensation

207
Q
  1. Sally is the practice manager at Shiloh Veterinary Clinic. She earns $40 per hour, and is paid overtime after 40 hours in a single work week. The Social Security rate is 6% on the first $100,000 and the Medicare rate is 1.5% on all earnings. Prior to the current work week, Sally had earnings totaling $99,400. If Sally worked 45 hours this week and her estimated federal income tax withholding is $450. How much will her net pay be?

A. $1450.00

B. $1307.50

C. $1385.50

D. $1405.50

A

C. $1385.50

(40 hours x $40 = $1600 and 5 hours (overtime) x $60 = $300. Total gross = $1900. The deductions are calculated as follows: Federal Income Tax ($450), Social Security ($600 x .06 = $36), and Medicare ($1900 x 1.5% = $28.50). So the total amount of deductions, $514.50 is subtracted from the gross, $1900, for a total net pay of $1385.50

208
Q
  1. If Ingrid works for the Horse and Hound Veterinary Hospital, and is paid a salary of $1,000 per week, and payroll occurs bi-monthly on the 1st and the 16th of every month, how much money will Ingrid gross annually?

A. $52,000

B. $48,000

C. $43,000

D. $42,000

A

A. $52,000

209
Q
  1. What type of payroll tax is deducted from an employee’s gross wages, but does not require a matching employer contribution?

A. Social security tax

B. Federal income tax

C. Medicare tax

D. Worker’s compensation

A

B. Federal income tax

210
Q
  1. If Highland Park Animal Hospital purchases a new blood chemistry analyzer, which of the following expenses associated with acquiring the new equipment is a proper charge to the asset account?

A. Freight

B. Installation costs

C. Both A & B

D. Neither A or B

A

C. Both A & B

211
Q
  1. Using the declining-balance method (twice the straight-line method), what is the amount of depreciation for the second year of use for a $9,000 dental prophy machine, with an estimated residual value of $300 and an estimated life of three years?

A. $400

B. $3.000

C. $6,000

D. $2,000

A

D. $2,000

212
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an accelerated depreciation method?

A. Declining-balance

B. Straight-line

C. Depletion

D. Accelerated depreciation

A

A. Declining-balance

213
Q
  1. Animal Medical Center in Los Angeles, California has purchased a new Idexx DR radiograph system at a price of $100,000. They traded in an older digital system that had a book value of $25,000.

Assuming that the trade in allowance was $30,000 and that they paid $70,000 cash, what is the cost of this new digital system for the purpose of financial reporting?

A. $100,000

B. $95,000

C. $70,000

D. $30,000

A

B. $95,000

214
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an intangible asset?

A. Radiograph film

B. Computer

C. Patent

D. Microscope

A

C. Patent

215
Q
  1. If a hospital’s sales are $500,000, variable costs are $200,000 and fixed costs are $240,000, what is the contribution margin ratio?

A. 42%

B. 48%

C. 52%

D. 60%

A

D. 60%

216
Q
  1. A market place offering that fairly and accurately sums up the value that will be realized if a client buys your service is known as what?

A. Value proposition

B. Competitive advantage

C. Marketing message

D. Differentiation

A

A. Value proposition

217
Q
  1. When considering the activity of veterinary marketing, communicating and delivering value that both clients and potential clients will desire, is a major goal. For the purpose of accomplishing this, what does “value” mean?

A. Creating an enticement in the veterinary consumer to try the service

B. The service is worth something; a monetary amount

C. The benefit the customer receives from buying your service

D. Practicing quality medicine

A

C. The benefit the customer receives from buying your service

218
Q
  1. Which of the following demonstrates an accurate method of calculating the lifetime value of a client in a veterinary practice?

A. Estimate the cost of recruiting the client, minus the average transaction per visit

B. Estimate the amount spent per animal, divided by the number of years the animal is expected to live

C. Estimate the amount the person will spend, minus the cost to maintain this relationship

D. Estimate the average transaction per visit, divided by the number of visits over the lifetime of the client

A

C. Estimate the amount the person will spend, minus the cost to maintain this relationship

219
Q
  1. What characteristic of service means that a customer cannot touch, see, or smell the product that they are buying?

A. Perishability

B. Good service

C. Disintermediation

D. Intangibility

A

D. Intangibility

220
Q
  1. Since services lack physical characteristics (such as smell, color, style, texture) that a consumer can examine before they buy, services need to build them in to the value proposition. Which of the following is an example of this in a veterinary hospital setting?

A. Uniforms and decor

B. A willingness to discount or give free services

C. A printed price list in the hospital brochure, detailing services

D. A detailed and verbally reviewed estimate

A

A. Uniforms and decor

221
Q
  1. A marketing research methodology that measures the difference between a customers, expectation of quality service and what actually occurred is called what?

A. Customer satisfaction survey

B. Gap analysis

C. Customer experience survey

D. Expectation analysis

A

B. Gap analysis

222
Q
  1. Another method of determining quality of service is to use the “critical incidence technique.” What type of situation is a factor when using this technique?

A. Clients who leave a practice for whatever reason

B. Satisfied clients

C. Customer complaints

D. Testimonials

A

C. Customer complaints

223
Q
  1. Service gaps between established quality standards and service delivery are usually caused by which of the following?

A. Quality standards are not written down

B. Practice manager does not understand client expectations

C. No established quality control program

D. Poor employee performance

A

D. Poor employee performance

224
Q
  1. The biggest serious risk of a lawsuit for invasion of privacy with subsequent personal damages includes all of the following EXCEPT?

A. Disclosing information about examinations and care for patients with hereditary defects

B. Disclosing information about expensive animals offered for sale

C. Disclosing information about valuable breeding stock

D. Disclosing information about vaccinations

A

D. Disclosing information about vaccinations

225
Q
  1. Which of the following informational items can be released by a veterinary practice without prior owner consent?

A. Patient demographics, such as name and age

B. Examination results

C. Diagnostic history

D. Treatment history

A

A. Patient demographics, such as name and age

226
Q
  1. A pricing strategy that is based on an estimate of volume or quantity that a company can sell in different markets at different prices is called what?

A. Cost-plus pricing

B. Demand-based pricing

C. Value pricing

D. Target costing

A

B. Demand-based pricing

227
Q
  1. If a veterinary practice decides to promote Oravet (an at-home dental sealant) by giving it away for free with every dental prophy, but recovers the profit by building it into the price of the dental, what pricing tactic are they utilizing?

A. Trial pricing

B. Skimming price

C. Captive pricing

D. Price bundling

A

C. Captive pricing

228
Q
  1. Complaints regarding behavior that may violate the ethics principles are reviewed by which of the following committees?

A. The National Council for Veterinary Ethics Review

B. American Veterinary Medical Association

C. American Animal Hospital Association

D. State veterinary associations

A

D. State veterinary associations

229
Q
  1. Which agency is charged to advise on all questions relating to interpretation of Bylaws, veterinary medical ethics, and other rules governing the practice of veterinary medicine?

A. AVMA Judicial Council

B. The State Veterinary Association

C. AAHA Ethical Council

D. The State Veterinary Board

A

A. AVMA Judicial Council

230
Q
  1. A veterinarian may choose whom they will serve, and has the right to decline a veterinarian-client-patient-relationship, unless which of the following has occurred?

A. The client is unwilling to pay for fees

B. The patient’s care has begun

C. The client confers with the attending veterinarian

D. Subsequent needs and fees are agreed upon

A

B. The patient’s care has begun

231
Q
  1. Under federal law, the merchandising or use of veterinary prescription drugs, or extra label use thereof, is illegal and unethical unless which of the following exist?

A. The merchandising or use is related to food animal or food producer use

B. An informed consent is on file

C. Veterinary-client-patient-relationship

D. The merchandising or use is for a personal acquaintance

A

C. Veterinary-client-patient-relationship

232
Q
  1. Performing surgical procedures on species of animals for the purpose of concealing genetic defects is unethical. However, if correction of a condition is required for health reasons, what is the American Animal Hospital Association’s (AAHA) position on this?

A. The patient’s registration papers be permanently marked as such

B. It is acceptable so long as informed consent exists

C. The owner and veterinarian are in agreement

D. The patient be rendered incapable of reproduction

A

D. The patient be rendered incapable of reproduction

233
Q
  1. The American Animal Hospital’s position on testimonials as a form of advertising requires veterinarians to do which of the following?

A. Fully disclose any financial or other relationship between the endorse and the veterinarian

B. Testimonials or endorsements are considered unethical advertising

C. Endorser must be a client of good standing and have intimate knowledge of the Veterinarian

D. Testimonials must disclose the full contact information of the endorse

A

A. Fully disclose any financial or other relationship between the endorse and the veterinarian

234
Q
  1. Ethically, the information contained in a veterinary patient medical record is considered privileged and must not be disclosed, except for in which of the following situations?

A. By court order

B. With owner consent

C. Deemed as in the veterinarians best judgment

D. Both A&B

A

D. Both A&B

235
Q
  1. The American Animal Hospital Association’s (AAHA) position on the frequency of veterinary visits states that although individual patient needs vary, all animals should be seen by a veterinarian how often?

A. Every three years

B. Annually

C. As needed

D. Biannually

A

B. Annually

236
Q
  1. The American Animal Hospital Association supports the legal concept of animals as property, but recognizes that some animals have value to their owners that may exceed the market value of that animal. Which of the following factors is taken into consideration when determining the monetary value of an animal?

A. Special training

B. Veterinary expenses

C. Age and health

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

237
Q
  1. The American College of Veterinary Anesthesiologists and the American Animal Hospital Association are in agreement that animals should be provided with analgesics under which of the following theories?

A. If a procedure is painful to humans, then it will be painful to animals

B. If an animal vocalizes upon recovery, then it is in pain

C. Analgesia options should be left up to the pet owner, since it adds cost to procedures

D. Any procedure which utilizes a scalpel will cause some degree of pain in animals

A

A. If a procedure is painful to humans, then it will be painful to animals

238
Q
  1. The American Animal Hospital Association supports the position of reporting suspicions of animal abuse to the appropriate authorities when which of the following has occurred?

A. An owner fails to seek treatment

B. An animal has presented for treatment

C. Education is inappropriate or has failed

D. There are numerous complaints

A

C. Education is inappropriate or has failed

239
Q
  1. The American Animal Hospital Association is opposed to canine
    devocalization, or vocal cordectomy, unless which of the following conditions has been met?

A. The animal is at imminent risk of being euthanized or sent to a shelter
procedures

B. Laryngeal paralysis is present and cannot be corrected through other

C. The owner is facing legal ramifications due to nuisance laws position statement

D. None of the above. There are no exceptions in the devocalization

A

B. Laryngeal paralysis is present and cannot be corrected through other

240
Q
  1. What amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic act address the extra-label prescription use of antimicrobial therapy in animals?

A. Extra-label Animal Prescription Act

B. Antimicrobial Therapy Restriction Act

C. Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act

D. Veterinary Animal Prescription Amendment Act

A

C. Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act

241
Q
  1. The framework that all managers perform within is made up of what five management functions?

A. Organizing, leading, functioning, controlling

B. Controlling, leading, technical, analyzing

C. Analyzing, completing, technical, functional

D. Planning, organizing, leading, controlling, achieving

A

D. Planning, organizing, leading, controlling, achieving

242
Q
  1. The management function that entails monitoring a veterinary hospital’s performance and compares that performance with previously set goals is known as what?

A. Leading

B. Controlling

C. Analyzing

D. Assisting

A

B. Controlling

243
Q
  1. Conceptual competency is an important skill that veterinary practice managers must master. What is conceptual competence?

A. The physical ability to perform complex calculations

B. The understanding of what motivates employees

C. The ability to be a charismatic leader that inspires employees

D. The mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations and creative problem solving

A

D. The mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations and creative problem solving

244
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of technical competency?

A. Completing requisite reports to state and federal agencies

B. Solving employee problems quickly

C. Knowledge of medical terminology used for auditing medical records

D. Organizing employee files and maintains confidentiality

A

C. Knowledge of medical terminology used for auditing medical records

245
Q
  1. A set of principle rules that define right and wrong behaviors is called what?

A. Response

B. Ethics

C. Corporate Government

D. The bible

A

B. Ethics

246
Q
  1. A written statement that describes the duties working conditions, and operating responsibilities of a job is called which of the following?

A. Job description

B. Employee outline

C. Job orientation

D. Working responsibility checklist

A

A. Job description

247
Q
  1. Reverse delegation can occur when an employee runs in to a problem during an assigned task and then comes back to the manager for a solution. What is the best way to handle this situation?

A. Solve the problem to ensure that it is handled correctly

B. Reassign the task to another employee

C. Insist on recommendations and solutions from the employee

D. Ask for a third party intervention

A

C. Insist on recommendations and solutions from the employee

248
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines employee benefits?

A. Bonus pay

B. Non-financial rewards designed to enrich employee’s lives

C. Paying a fair wage in exchange for labor

D. The expectation that an employee will work harder in exchange for greater rewards

A

B. Non-financial rewards designed to enrich employee’s lives

249
Q
  1. The process of establishing a cost effective pay structure within an organization is called what?

A. Elective salary structure

B. Wage and salary charting

C. Pay scale

D. Compensation administration

A

D. Compensation administration

250
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions could constitute sexual harassment?

A. Reducing an employee’s hours due to race or religion

B. Anything of a sexual nature directed towards an individual

C. Denying an employee a promotion on the basis of sex

D. Reassigning an employee due to a disability

A

B. Anything of a sexual nature directed towards an individual

251
Q
  1. Regarding wage and hour laws, all states must, at minimum, adhere to the fair labor, standards act regarding pay, wages, and overtime. If an individual state creates its own laws, governing these issues, which law must an employer follow?

A. Which ever allow the employer

B. The state law, always

C. The federal law, always

D. Which ever laws are the most restrictive

A

D. Which ever laws are the most restrictive

252
Q
  1. Although individual state laws may impose more restrictive standards, the fair labor and standards act requires that employees be given how many meal breaks?

A. None

B. 30 minutes every five hours

C. 30 minutes every eight hours

D. 60 minutes every eight hours

A

A. None

253
Q
  1. The National Labor Relations Act protects an employee’s rights to do which of the following?

A. Take unpaid vacation

B. Take paid or unpaid leave for medical reasons

C. Discuss his/ her wages

D. File a complaint against the employer

A

C. Discuss his/ her wages

254
Q
  1. Godiva Veterinary Center’s employee manual states that it will not pay for unauthorized employee overtime. Which of the following statements below reflects how the labor law is applied, considering the above?

A. Compensatory time off can be given in lieu of wages

B. Overtime is exempt from law; it can be paid as regular wages

C. Overtime does not have to be paid if it is unauthorized

D. Whether authorized or not, overtime must be paid

A

D. Whether authorized or not, overtime must be paid

255
Q
  1. According to the Fair Labor and Standards Act, how many hours a week is the maximum that an hourly (non-exempt) employee can work before overtime is applied?

A. 20 Hours

B. 40 hours

C. 60 Hours

D. 35 Hours

A

B. 40 hours

256
Q
  1. Generally speaking, most states allow that veterinary hospital employees are permitted to view their personal file under what condition?

A. Express legitimate business need

B. Submit request in writing

C. Anytime that they want

D. Every time something is added to it

A

A. Express legitimate business need

257
Q
  1. The Federal Family and Medical Leave Act affect veterinary hospitals that have more than how many employees?

A. 15

B. 50

C. 20

D. 60

A

B. 50

258
Q
  1. Jane is an employed as a technician at Apple Wood Veterinary Hospital. Although the hospital is closed, Jane is required to repor Hoswork on Christmas day, in order to provide medical treatment on hospitalized animals. By federal law, how must Jane be paid for working on a holiday?

A. Overtime

B. Double time

C. Time and a half

D. Regular pay

A

D. Regular pay

259
Q
  1. The veterinary practice manager completes management activities in four distinct areas. These four basic management activities include all of the following EXCEPT for?

A. Personnel and human resource

B. Economics and finance

C. Operations and maintenance

D. Evangelistic and personal

A

D. Evangelistic and personal

260
Q
  1. Vacation pay is a benefit at American Veterinary Center. If an employee separates from the practice, how is unpaid vacation pay handled by federal law?

A. Employers can create their own policies regarding benefits

B. Vacation pay must be paid

C. Employee must be offered equal compensation

D. Employer is under no obligation to honor unpaid vacation

A

A. Employers can create their own policies regarding benefits

261
Q
  1. The calculation that allows a manager to place a monetary value on the various consequences that result from making a decision is called what?

A. Decision tree

B. Marginal analysis

C. Expected value analysis

D. Escalation of commitment

A

C. Expected value analysis

262
Q
  1. All of the choices below are a part of the four decision making styles EXCEPT for which one?

A. Directive

B. Analytic

C. Conceptual

D. Prejudicial

A

D. Prejudicial

263
Q
  1. When making decisions, managers often rely on judgment shortcuts in order to assimilate information. What are these judgment shortcuts called?

A. Assumptions

B. Value saving

C. Economic thinking

D. Heuristics

A

D. Heuristics

264
Q
  1. Managers that exhibit an analytic style of decision making have which of the following traits?

A. Greater tolerance for ambiguity

B. Making decisions quickly

C. Are very broad in their outlook and creative

D. Rely heavily on meetings for communication

A

A. Greater tolerance for ambiguity

265
Q
  1. The view of ethics in business decision making which considers only the potential outcomes or consequences is called what?

A. Rights view

B. Justice view

C. Utilitarian view

D. Social obligation view

A

C. Utilitarian view

266
Q
  1. Maslow’s hierarchy-of-needs theory states that a person is motivated when which of the following occurs?

A. Greater monetary compensation is offered

B. Needs are essentially unfulfilled

C. Security is fulfilled

D. Needs are fulfilled

A

B. Needs are essentially unfulfilled

267
Q
  1. Douglas McGregor created the Theory X and Theory Y views, which categorize the way a supervisor or manager views human nature, as it relates to employees. Which statement below corresponds to a Theory Y view?

A. The ability to make good decisions is limited to the minority of population

B. Employees must be coerced, controlled, or threatened with punishment to achieve goals

C. Most workers place security above all other factors

D. The average person can learn to accept and seek responsibility

A

D. The average person can learn to accept and seek responsibility

268
Q
  1. A physiological deficiency that makes a certain outcome seem more favorable than others is called which of the following?

A. A disorder

B. A perception

C. A need

D. A preference

A

C. A need

269
Q
  1. A manipulative behavior, which is based on the belief that the ends justify the means, is called what?

A. Idiosyncrasy

B. Machiavellianism

C. Unethical

D. A jerk

A

B. Machiavellianism

270
Q
  1. When considering personality types as they help to predict work related behaviors, individuals that have low self-esteem are more likely to do which of the following?

A. Not “follow the crowd* when it comes to voicing their opinions

B. Promote insubordination

C. Depend on positive evaluation from others

D. Quit

A

C. Depend on positive evaluation from others

271
Q
  1. What type of compensation programs pays employees on the bases of their skills, knowledge and behavior?

A. Pay for performance

B. Technical based

C. Time on the job

D. Competency based

A

D. Competency based

272
Q
  1. A personality type that is characterized by a compelling desire to succeed; to do something better than others has a high what?

A. Need for achievement

B. Equity theory

C. Motivation-hygiene need

D. Expectancy theory

A

A. Need for achievement

273
Q
  1. When defining the core dimension of a job, which of the following is NOT a component?

A. Skill variety

B. Pay scale

C. Autonomy

D. Feedback

A

B. Pay scale

274
Q
  1. A transformational leader is one who does what?

A. Transforms a marginal company into one that excels

B. Inspires followers to transcend self-interests for the good of the company

C. Explains all aspects of management to employees and allows their input on decisions

D. Is able to organize groups of people into functional units

A

B. Inspires followers to transcend self-interests for the good of the company

275
Q
  1. A technique that is used to make people more open and expressive during communications is called what?

A. Communication dissemination

B. Open dialogue training

C. Telephone technique training

D. Assertiveness training

A

D. Assertiveness training

276
Q
  1. Within a group of employees, there are individuals who have influence over there, coworkers, even though they may not be a part of the management team. What are these individuals classified as?

A. Emergent leaders

B. Grapevine catalysts

C. Functional participants

D. Troublemakers

A

A. Emergent leaders

an effective manager will identify these leaders and build ties with them in order to foster ties and strengthen the respect of the followers in the group

277
Q
  1. In order to balance the needs of a veterinary hospital, there are specific technical skills that a manager needs in order to accomplish the practices’ directives. Which statement best describes how a manager identifies technical skill?

A. Ability to sense how well the training and leadership style fits into the operations of the practice

B. Ability to apply management knowledge, familiarity with hospital equipment, supplies, and systems into the practice

C. The ability to understand their coworkers and what motivates them

D. The ability to influence employee behavior through effective leadership

A

B. Ability to apply management knowledge, familiarity with hospital equipment, supplies, and systems into the practice

278
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of employee performance appraisals?

A. Evaluate the potential for a wage increase

B. Motivate employees to correct performance deficiencies

C. To document deficiencies in the event of termination

D. To identify key areas where the hospital needs improving

A

B. Motivate employees to correct performance deficiencies

279
Q
  1. Assuming that you are a practice manager whose hospital has a published handbook that describes the employee performance appraisal policy, what legal fact would you have to keep in mind?

A. A manager is able to apply performance appraisals as they see fit, regardless of a handbook

B. The employee has legal rights under the fair Labor and Standards Act that limits performance feedback

C. The courts construe these published policies as a binding contract

D. A third party must be present during the evaluation process, to serve as witness in the event of a disagreement

A

C. The courts construe these published policies as a binding contract

280
Q
  1. When comparing performance appraisal methods, which performance measurement does NOT compare employees against another person?

A. Prohibition

B. Employee equal rating opportunity

C. Equality measurement standards

D. Absolute standards

A

D. Absolute standards

281
Q
  1. As a manager, it is useful to understand, basic human nature as a means of improving staff communication and interaction. Under Marston’s D-I-S-C model for behavioral profiling, what does the “I” stand for?

A. Inducement

B. Intrigue

C. Intervention

D. Idolater

A

A. Inducement

282
Q
  1. Teaching employees to understand the differences in individual perception often improves communication and understanding between coworkers. What type of perception is this?

A. Strengths / weaknesses

B. Situational

C. Style value

D. Diversity

A

B. Situational

283
Q
  1. When organizing staff meetings, the leader is responsible for which of the following?

A. Following an agenda and schedule

B. Reviewing main points at the end of the meeting

C. Appointing a note taker and circulating minutes

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

284
Q
  1. In veterinary hospitals, what are the two major areas of concern that require documentation in the form of a manual?

A. Human resource management and OSHA

B. Controlled substances and radiology

C. Employee policies and hospital operations

D. Surgery and anesthesia

A

C. Employee policies and hospital operations

285
Q
  1. When creating an employee manual, what general guidelines should be included under the code of conduct section?

A. Confidentiality, integrity, and honesty

B. Vacations, sick leave, holidays

C. Sexual harassment

D. Hospitals mission and goals

A

A. Confidentiality, integrity, and honesty

286
Q
  1. An express exception to the at-will employment condition is which of the following?

A. Dismissal of an employee who is an independent contractor

B. Dismissal of an employee that is under a contract that specifies a period of employment

C. Dismissal of an employee who is abusing controlled substances

D. Dismissal of an employee who is caught in the act of embezzlement

A

B. Dismissal of an employee that is under a contract that specifies a period of employment

287
Q
  1. Each hospital employee should have an individual file, which Is subject to which of the following conditions?

A. Personalization

B. Full disclosure

C. Confidentiality

D. Examination

A

C. Confidentiality

288
Q
  1. The Immigration reform and Control Act requires that all employers complete verification on immigration and naturalization.

What type of documents, by law, can a manager examine in order to fulfill this obligation?

A. Driver’s license, social security card

B. Birth certificate, certificate of naturalization or any valid passport

C. Resident alien card (green card)

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

289
Q
  1. Employers are covered under the Fair labor and Standards Act (FLSA) if their business is considered an enterprise. To meet this criterion, the business entity must have a distinct commercial purpose and have annual gross sales over what dollar amount?

A. $500,000

B. $100,000

C. $50,000

D. $250,000

A

A. $500,000

290
Q
  1. The Fair Labor and Standards Act (FLSA) provides for an exception form the minimum wage and overtime pay provisions for employees who are engaged in administrative or professional activities. What criterion is used to establish the definition of “administrative or professional”?

A. The employee has a college degree or certification

B. 80% of employee’s duties require special knowledge of an advanced type of science or learning

C. The employee is in the top 20% of wage earners in the practice

D. The employee attends continuing education on a regular basis

A

B. 80% of employee’s duties require special knowledge of an advanced type of science or learning

291
Q
  1. Which division of the United States Department of Labor is responsible for enforcing the Fair Labor and Standards Act?

A. Occupational Licensing Division

B. Code Enforcement Division

C. Wage and Hour Division

D. Labor Standard Division

A

C. Wage and Hour Division

292
Q
  1. Under the United States Department of Labor’s common law test, what determining factors clarify the employment relationship
    as either employee or independent contractor?

A. It is up to the individual who performs a service to identify and report whether that individual is an employee or independent contractor

B. Solely by the tax status of the individual who performs service, e.g. W-2 or 1099

C. It is up to the person for whom the individual performs service to identify and report whether that individual is an employee or
independent contractor

D. If the person for whom the individual performs service has rights to
control the manner in which the work is performed

A

D. If the person for whom the individual performs service has rights to
control the manner in which the work is performed

293
Q
  1. What commission was created with the purpose of enforcing the Civil Rights Act?

A. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEO)

B. Anti-Discrimination Commission (ADC)

C. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP)

D. Civil Rights Commission (CRC)

A

A. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEO)

294
Q
  1. Quid-pro-quo sexual harassment occurs when which of the following incidents has happened?

A. Nude pictures in a magazine left in the open

B. Reducing a receptionist’s benefits because she declined to date her supervisor

C. Sexist jokes

D. Hugging an employee after being requested not to

A

B. Reducing a receptionist’s benefits because she declined to date her supervisor

295
Q
  1. Under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978, when evaluating a pregnant employees potential for remaining on the job, an employer may take any of the following into consideration EXCEPT for which of the following?

A. Ability and inability to perform a job

B. Degree of disablement

C. Fetal welfare

D. Medical recommendations made by the employee’s physician

A

C. Fetal welfare

296
Q
  1. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, an employer can NOT do which of the following?

A. Ask about an applicant’s ability to perform a job

B. Request examination that is non-medical, in any situation

C. Request a physician examination after a conditional offer of employment has been made

D. Ask about the nature of a disability

A

D. Ask about the nature of a disability

297
Q
  1. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act applies to employers that have which of the following?

A. More than 20 employees

B. Gross more than $100,000 annually

C. Have no published policies regulating age discrimination

D. The act applies to all employers, regardless of the size of the business

A

A. More than 20 employees

298
Q
  1. In order for an employee to be entitled to maternity leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (FMLA), what conditions must they have met in the course of employment?

A. Submitted a signed formal request to be placed in the employee file

B. Worked at least 1250 hours during the twelve month period preceding the leave

C. Be a full time worker and eligible for all company benefits

D. Be entitled to disability compensation under the state in which they work

A

B. Worked at least 1250 hours during the twelve month period preceding the leave

299
Q
  1. The Supreme Court has adopted a broadened definition of the word “employee”, as described in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
    Under this revised definition, the word “employee” is someone who has done which of the following?

A. Performed any service for an employer, regardless of whether they were paid or not

B. Has been on the payroll, regardless of duration or hours worked

C. Been on payroll at least 20 hours during the year

D. Is eligible for Worker’s Compensation benefits under the state in which they have been employed

A

C. Been on payroll at least 20 hours during the year

300
Q
  1. The function of the American with Disabilities Act is to do which of the following?

A. Establish a set of laws that penalizes employers who do not have a disabled person on payroll

B. Protect American workers in the event of a disablement that occurs on the job

C. Provide American workers with suitable replacement income in the event that they are disabled

D. Bring individuals with disabilities under the protection of the Civil Rights Act

A

D. Bring individuals with disabilities under the protection of the Civil Rights Act

301
Q
  1. Which of the following is a reason that a job description is created prior to advertising a position or conducting interviews, and that it contains skill functions and the physical requirement of a job?

A. Regulations state that it will be considered as legal evidence of the essential functions of a job

B. So that managers do not waste time on interviewing ineligible applicants

C. To protect a business from wrongful termination

D. Federal law mandates that all employees be provided with accurate and thorough job descriptions

A

A. Regulations state that it will be considered as legal evidence of the essential functions of a job

Dynamic Path CVPM Exam Prep (1 decks)

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