Dysrhythmias Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

What is a dysrhythmia?

A

Any disturbance of heart rate or rhythm that can decreases the heart’s mechanical efficiency, reducing O2 delivery to tissues

Synonym: Arrhythmia (technically, no rhythm).

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2
Q

How common are dysrhythmias in the UK?

A

Over 2 million people have a dysrhythmia

Risk increases with age.

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3
Q

What is the most common type of dysrhythmia?

A

Atrial fibrillation

Accounts for 1.6% of NHS budget.

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4
Q

What are the classifications of dysrhythmias based on site of origin?

A
  • Ventricular
  • Supraventricular = atrial or nodal
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5
Q

What are the classifications of dysrhythmias based on effect on rate or rhythm?

A
  • Bradycardia = slow HR
  • Tachycardia = fast HR
  • Fibrillation = rapid, chaotic & irregular electrical activity
  • Flutter = rapid but more regular rhythm
  • Block = signals delayed or transmission is prevented
  • Paroxysmal = disorder that occurs in attacks rather than being constant
  • Sinus = HR changes but is still under SA node control
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6
Q

What are some examples of dysrhythmias?

A
  • Atrial fibrillation —> chaotic electrical activity in the atria with the signal sometimes passing through the AV node and causing ventricular contraction
  • Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia —> rapid HR caused by cycles of electrical activity in the atria or AV node
  • Sinus bradycardia —> slow HR due to the low firing rate of the SA node
  • AV node block —> 2nd degree, AV node blocks some signals from the atria casing a low rate of ventricular contraction
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7
Q

What are some causes of dysrhythmias?

A
  • Structural damage
  • Ischaemia
  • Past heart attack
  • Genetic disorder
  • Metabolic disorder (e.g. Hyperthyroidism or Electrolyte imbalances)
  • Increased ANS activity
  • Drugs (e.g., caffeine) can trigger sinus tachycardia and atrial fibrillation
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8
Q

What are the five main mechanisms of dysrhythmias?

A
  • Ectopic pacemaker
  • After-depolarization
  • Heart block
  • Re-entry circuits
  • Accessory pathways
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9
Q

What is an ectopic pacemaker?

A
  • Abnormal site generating electrical impulses distinct from the SA node
  • All cardiac muscle has automaticity (the ability to spontaneously generate an action potential) but the SA node normally predominates
  • Automaticity can increase due to: Ischeamia, damage, increased SNS activity or drugs
  • Can give rise to an independent pacemaker that competes with the SA node
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10
Q

What are the two classes of after-depolarization?

A
  • Early – prolonged calcium influx in phase 2/reduced potassium efflux in phase 3 = disrupts normal repolarisation and can lead to premature depolarisation
  • Delayed – calcium build-up in the cytoplasm of muscle cells = often caused by spontaneous release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores and the excess of Ca2+ can trigger a depolarisation and if it reaches threshold, it can initiate an action potential before the next normal beat is due
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11
Q

What is heart block?

A
  • Form on bradycardia
  • Damage to AV node impairs atrial to ventricular conduction
  • First degree = slowed conduction, PR increased but you get a QRS for every P wave. This is a common and often benign condition (doesn’t require treatment)
  • Second degree = missed QRS complexes. This is divided into 2 types: Mobitz type 1 = PR interval progressively lengthens until a beat is missed. Mobitz type 2 = some beats are unexpectedly dropped without prior PR interval lengthening
  • Third degree = impulses do not get from atria to ventricles. The ventricles or AV node can take over as pacemaker so may get some ventricular contractions (rate will be slower)
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12
Q

What is a re-entry circuit?

A

Occurs when impulse loops through conduction system or muscle rather than travelling in one direction through the conduction system

Results in repeated activation of the heart tissue = tachycardia

Can be local (e.g., AV node) or global.

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13
Q

What is the most common type of accessory pathway dysrhythmia?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

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14
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Most common dysrhythmia (14% of over 80s)
  • Re-entry circuits or ectopic pacemaker leading to chaotic and rapid electrical activity
  • Local atrial rate up to 600 bpm
  • Irregular ventricular rate
  • ECG shows lack of distinct P waves with an irregular baseline and the QRS complex is visible but occurs at irregular heartbeats
  • Fatigue due to reduced cardiac output
  • Increases risk of thromboembolism
  • Palpitations
  • Risk factors include heart disease, high blood pressure and past heart attack
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15
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation?

A
  • Ventricular re-entry circuits or ectopic pacemakers but far more serious
  • Ventricles cease beating in a coordinated way = no cardiac output as blood isn’t pumped effectively
  • Rapidly fatal
  • DC shock (defibrillation) may be only way of restoring rhythm
  • Common as a complication following a heart attack
  • No P, T waves or QRS complexes on ECG
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16
Q

What is the Vaughan Williams system used for?

A

Classification of drugs used to treat dysrhythmias

Divides anti-dysrhythmic drugs according to their mechanism of action = 4 classes

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17
Q

What are the four classes in the Vaughan Williams system?

A

Class I (a,b,c)
- Targets sodium channels = blockers
- Ia = Disopyramide
- Ib = Lidocaine (also used as local anaesthetic)
- Ic = Flecainide

Class II
- Beta 1 adrenoreceptor antagonists (beta blockers)
- Atenolol
- Bisoprolol

Class III
- Potassium channel blockers
- Amiodarone

Class IV
- Calcium channel blockers
- Verapamil (L-type CCBs and also used for stable angina)
- Diltiazem

Unclassified
- Various targets
- Adenosine
- Atropine

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone?

A

Class III drug = potassium channel blocker that acts on K+ channels involved in phase 3

BUT:
* Inhibits beta adrenoceptors
* Blocks calcium channels
* Inhibits sodium channels

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19
Q

What are the side effects of amiodarone?

A

Due to its high lipophilicity, it is heavily deposited in various tissues

  • Lung fibrosis = scarring (quite common, affects 10% of long-term users)
  • Eye deposits = can cause visual problems
  • Liver toxicity
  • Skin discoloration = exposure to UV light can cause blue-grey discolouration
  • Thyroid function interference due to high iodine content
  • Can worsen bradycardias or AV node block
  • Can cause serious dysrhythmias
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20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of verapamil?

A
  • Cardioselective L-type calcium channel blocker = Class IV drug
  • Primarily blocks Ca2+ channels in the SA and AV nodes where Ca2+ influx mediates Phase 0 depolarisation
  • By blocking these channels, the drug slows the firing rate of the SA node and reduces conduction through the AV node
  • Good for atrial fibrillation/flutter as it is crucial to prevent ventricles from following the rapid impulse generation occurring in the atria
  • Good for PSVT and AVNRT as slowing conduction through the AV node can terminate the dysrhythmia
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21
Q

What are common side effects of verapamil?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Worsens heart block
  • By blocking Calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle, it can cause vasodilatory effects = flushing, hypotension, peripheral oedema and headaches (vasodilation of cranial vessels)
  • Constipation due to action on channels in the GI tract
  • Can be dangerous in WPW if the patient has AF as it increases the conduction via bundle of Kent = rapid ventricular rates
  • Metabolised by CYP3A4 so a lot of interactions with other drugs & dietary components
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22
Q

What is the role of atropine in dysrhythmias?

A

Used to treat bradycardias, especially in emergency situations

Mechanism involves down-regulation of the SA node by the vagus nerve.

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23
Q

What system is critiqued for its weaknesses in drug classification?

A

Vaughan Williams system

The Vaughan Williams classification system categorizes antiarrhythmic drugs but has limitations that necessitate expansion.

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24
Q

What is atropine primarily used to treat?

A

Bradycardias, especially in emergency situations

Atropine is often administered during surgery to manage heart rate.

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25
What type of receptor mediates the effect of the vagus nerve on the SA node?
M2 mAChR ## Footnote M2 muscarinic acetylcholine receptors are involved in heart rate regulation.
26
What are common side effects of atropine?
* Constipation * Blurred vision * Dry mouth * Higher doses: confusion, delirium ## Footnote Atropine acts as a non-selective mAChR antagonist (can cross blood-brain barrier)
27
What is the role of adenosine in the cardiovascular system?
Signal in its own right Adenosine interacts with specific receptors A1, A2A, A2B, A3 (GPCRs) A1 is important in the AV node = coupled to Gi
28
Which receptor is important in the AV node and is coupled to Gi?
A1 receptor ## Footnote The A1 receptor plays a crucial role in regulating heart rhythm at the AV node.
29
What is the duration of action for adenosine when given as an IV bolus?
20-30 seconds ## Footnote Adenosine has a very short plasma half-life, making it effective for rapid interventions.
30
What are some uses of adenosine?
- Very short plasma half-life due to uptake (10 seconds) - Given as an IV bolus into a central vein = 20-30 seconds duration of action - Useful for quickly terminating dysrhythmias (PSVT & AV node dependent tachycardia in WPW) - Has replaced verapamil for this purpose
31
What side effects can adenosine cause?
* Bradycardia * Worsening heart block * Facial flushing as it’s a vasodilator * Chest pain (usually transient and not a major concern) * Bronchospasm = should be used in caution with patients with bronchial asthma or COPD * Interacts with caffeine and theophylline = both are adenosine receptor antagonists so can reduce the efficiency of adenosine
32
What compounds from grapefruit can affect drug metabolism?
* Bergamottin * Dihydroxybergamottin * Citrus furanocoumarins ## Footnote These compounds can irreversibly inhibit CYP3A4, leading to drug interactions.
33
What is the success rate of catheter ablation surgery?
90% + Second-line treatment for various dysrhythmias when medications fail.
34
What is the purpose of cardioversion?
Quickly restore heart to natural rhythm under the control of the SA node - Can be done pharmacologically using medicines such as adenosine - Can be done electrically = typically used when the patient has a pulse (e.g. Supraventricular tachycardia or AF) - Shock is delivered in synch with the R wave = minimises the risk of inducing a more dangerous dysrhythmia (e.g. VF) - Antidysrhythmic drugs and anticoagulants often given prior to procedure - May administer amiodarone after procedure to help maintain the heart in sinus rhythm and prevent reoccurrence of dysrhythmia
35
What is the difference between defibrillation and cardioversion?
Defibrillation is non-synchronized; cardioversion is synchronized ## Footnote Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.
36
What is an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)?
Device placed inside the patient that monitors heart and delivers shocks if a dysrhythmia is detected
37
What are artificial pacemakers primarily used to treat?
- supplements/ replaces function of the SA node and/or AV node (lasts up to 10 years) - Most commonly used to treat bradycardias, especially in conditions like heart block - Used after AV node ablation - Pacemaker leads are inserted through a catheter via the subclavian vein and the device’s main circuitry is implanted just below the collarbone Arne Larsson was the first person to have an implanted pacemaker = survived an extra 41 years
38
What is the connection between ether a-go-go and long QT syndrome?
EAG and hERG interactions ## Footnote Long QT syndrome can be drug-induced and is linked to hERG mutations.
39
What is a common reason for drug failure during development?
hERG interactions ## Footnote Many drugs have been withdrawn due to long QT syndrome linked to hERG.
40
Who is known for early use of cocaine in medicine?
Koller and Halsted ## Footnote Cocaine was used in dental surgery and as a safer alternative to ether and chloroform.
41
Fill in the blank: Cocaine was commonly used in the ______ century.
19th ## Footnote Cocaine had significant medical applications during this period.
42
What is the role of the AV node?
Delays the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, ensuring they don’t contract simultaneously
43
What is the bundle of Kent?
- An abnormal accessory pathway seen in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome that allows electrical signals to bypass the AV node, leading to tachycardia - Creates a global re-entry circuit that sends impulses looping around both the atria and ventricles - Lack of gatekeeper function (typically regulates the speed at which electrical impulses pass from the atria to the ventricles) so impulses from the atria can pa through unchecked at a high rate - High ventricular rates reduces the efficiency of heart’s pumping function so ventricles don’t have enough time to fill with blood between beats, causing decreased cardiac output and O2 delivery to tissues. The workload is increased = myocardial ischaemia
44
What is the P wave?
Represents atrial depolarisation or the electrical activity that causes atria to contract
45
What is the QRS complex?
Represents ventricular depolarisation or the electrical activity that causes ventricles to contract
46
What is the T wave?
Represents ventricular repolarisaton or the electrical recovery of the ventricles after contraction
47
Describe the cardiac conduction system
- SA node is the primary pacemaker located in the right atrium = initiates heartbeats - AV node is located at the junction between the atria & ventricles and slows down conduction to allow the ventricles time to contract AFTER the atria - Bundle of His takes the signal to the base of the ventricles then, via purkinje fibres, into ventricular muscle - It uses the right and left bundle branches to do this
48
Describe the 5 phases of ventricular muscle
Phase 0 = a sharp spike, opening of Na+ channels Phase 1 = Na+ channels inactivate rapidly whilst K+ channels begin to open, brief repolarisation Phase 2 = long plateau phase where L-type Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ ions balance the outward flow of K+ ions, stable membrane potential Phase 3 = activation of K+ channels is more prominent and Ca2+ channels close, rapid depolarisation Phase 4 = cell returns to its resting membrane potential, maintained by inward rectifier K+ channels
49
Describe the phases in the SA node
Phase 0 and 4 is referred to as the ‘funny current’ Phase 0 = T-type Ca2+ channels open and contribute to the pacemaker potential. Once the membrane potential reaches -40 mV, L-type Ca2+ channels will open and cause depolarisation Phase 4 = the pacemaker potential where HCN channels activate and spontaneous depolarisation occurs due to Na+ influx through these channels (this is the funny current) Phase 3 = Ca2+ channels inactivate and K+ channels open, repolarisation
50
What is an ECG?
Used to determine if someone has a dysthymia by measuring cardiac electrical activity Process requires 6 electrodes to be placed across the chest and one on each limb = 10 in total. Once in place, signals from the electrodes are amplified & recorded for about 10 seconds
51
Components of the ECG
Divided into several key waves, intervals and segments that correspond to different phases of the heart’s electrical activity during each cardiac cycle
52
What is the significance of the ST segment?
Section between the end of the QRS complex and the T wave This is elevated in myocardial infarction
53
Describe local re-entry circuits
- In healthy cardiac tissue, the electrical signal is forced to split and travel down 2 separate pathways, around the non--conducting tissue. When the signal meets point B, it cannot travel back up the alternate branch as the tissue is in a refractory state = cannot conduct signals again immediately - When there is a unidirectional in one pathway, the AP can only travel downbeat one branch due to the damaged tissue impairing normal forward conduction = can only conduct signals in a retrograde (backwards) direction - In retrograde transmission, when the signal reaches point B, it is able to travel back up through the branch with the damaged tissue as it is no longer in a refractory state = cannot conduct signals conduct - The final condition is that the timing of the retrograde signal must be so that by the time it reaches point A again, the tissue in the undamaged branch is no longer in its refractory state. If this condition is met, the signal will be able to travel back down this branch and cause a self-perpetuating loop of electrical activity
54
Describe nodal re-entry circuits
- There are 2 pathways through the AV node: the slow pathway (recovers faster from the refractory period) and the fast pathway (has a longer refractory period) - Under normal conditions, when the signal travels down both pathways, the slow pathway is unable to propagate its signal because the fast pathway depolarises the shared tissue first = no re-entry circuit is formed - When there is an extra atrial AP (e.g. premature atrial contraction), the extra AP will travel down the slow pathway as it has recovered quickly from its refractory period BUT the fast pathway is still in the refractory state so cannot conduct the impulse. Once the signal reaches the point where the 2 pathways rejoin, it can trigger ventricular contraction and an extra atrial AP = NO RE-ENTRY CIRCUIT FORMED - With correct timing of the slow circuit, the timing of conduction is just right and the slow pathway signal can encounter the fast pathway after it’s recovered from its refractory period so the fast pathway allows the impulse to travel back up the pathway in a retrograde manner. When the signal reaches the atria, it can re-enter the slow pathway which has also recovered = CREATES A RE-ENTRY CIRCUIT = self-perpetuating tachycardia
55
What are accessory pathways?
Congenital, abnormal conduction paths that allow inappropriate signals to pass from one part the heart to another Are very rare but can lead to serious dysrhythmias
56
What is Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PSVT)?
- Affects 0.2% of the population (starts at young age, teens-50) - Most commonly a re-entry circuits through the AV node - Ventricular rate goes up to 250 bpm - Palpitations, shortness of breath & chest pains - Cause unknown but triggered by anxiety, stress, caffeine and smoking - Attacks can be halted by Valsalva Manoeuvre (forced exhalation against a closed airway) - ECG shows a rapid but regular heart rate = difficult to see P waves
57
Treatment of dysrhythmias
- Drugs - Surgery - Electrical approaches
58
Actions of class I drugs in the cardiac action potential
- Na+ channel blocker - Acts on phase 0 - Block Na+ channels that are crucial in phase 0 of the cardiac muscle AP where rapid depolarisation occurs - By slowing influx of Na+, the drugs reduce the speed of conduction in the heart’s electrical system
59
Actions of class II drugs in the cardiac action potential
- Beta blockers - Inhibit the effects of sympathetic activity at phases 2 and 4 - SNS activation increases the slope of the pacemaker potential in the SA node = reaches threshold faster and increases heart rate - It also prolongs the plateau phase which enhances contractility - The drugs block both these effects - Thus reducing HR and contractility
60
Actions of class III drugs on the cardiac action potential
- K+ channel blockers - Prolong the action potential - Drugs prolong phase 3 by inhibiting the K+ influx and thus delaying repolarisation - This extends the duration of the AP and increases the refractory period - Thus preventing premature impulses and reducing HR
61
Actions of class IV drugs on the cardiac action potential
- Ca2+ channel blockers - Exert their primary effect on the SA and AV nodes where Ca2+ plays a key role in phase 0 depolarisation - They inhibit Ca2+ influx by slowing the firing rate of the SA node and delaying conduction through the AV node = slower HR - Also impact phase 2 (plateau phase) which relies on L-type calcium channels = reduction in force of contraction
62
Weakness of the Vaughan Williams system
- Many drugs are unclassified such as adenosine (works on muscarinic ACh receptors) and atropine - Many drugs have multiple sites of action —> amiodarone could be class I, II, III or IV - Sites of action may be different in disease state vs healthy tissue - Individual dysrhythmias can be treated with drugs from more than one class - Alternative is to prioritise clinical utility over the mechanism
63
Class I drugs
Lidocaine (Ib) and Flecainide (Ic) Primarily act on non-nodal tissues i.e. atrial and ventricular muscle where Na+ channels play a key role in rapid depolarisation (phase 0)
64
Lidocaine (Class Ib)
- Used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias (e.g. ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation) in acute settings - Not used routinely after a heart attack any longer = replaced by amiodarone which acts on a wider range of dysrhythmias - Selectively targets inactivated channels, more commonly in ischeamic tissues - Serious systemic side effects such as seizures, comas and death at higher doses - Makes heart block worse
65
How is lidocaine used as a local anaesthetic?
Lidocaine is injected near the nerves of a pain sensing neuron This blocks Na+ channels that are essential for generating action potentials in these neurons Stops transmission of pain signals to the CNS = localised pain relief
66
Flecainide (Class Ic)
- Not used as a local anaesthetic - Binds to the open state of a channel (longer duration) - Good for Supraventricular tachycardias e.g. atrial fibrillation - Available in tablet form - Fewer CNS side effects than Lidocaine but can still lead to dizziness, visual disturbances, fatigue and mild GI side effects - Dangerous in patients who have structural heart damage as it can trigger ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation
67
Key thing about antidysrhythmic drugs
All antidysrhythmic drugs have the potential to to cause dysrhythmias
68
Class II drugs
Have sympathetic effects - Influences the pacemaker potential (phase 4), the depolarisation (phase 0) and the plateau phase (phase 2) - Actions on the plateau phase increases the force of contraction = a positive inotropic effect - Effects on phases 4 and 0 are key to antidysrhythmic actions of these drugs Beta blockers reduce the pacemaker slope meaning there is a slower HR = negative chronotropic effect (useful in treating sinus tachycardia) Also slow the conduction of the AV node and prolong the refractory period
69
Side effects of beta blockers
- worsen heart block and cause bradycardia - can precipitate heart failure
70
What does amiodarone do at K+ channels?
- Blocks K+ channels to delay repolarisation - Causes prolonged action potential and refractory period - Decreases AV node conduction velocity so regulates heart rhythm and reduced the heart rate - Decreases re-entry tendency
71
Uses of Amiodarone
Useful in a wide range of dysrhythmias E.g. Atrial fibrillation/flutter, ventricular & Supraventricular tachycardias and cardioversion of ventricular fibrillation
72
What are pharmacokinetics?
The study of a drug’s absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
73
Pharmacokinetics of Amiodarone
- Can be administered orally or by IV - Has difficult pharmacokinetics - Very fat soluble so difficult to establish a stable plasma concentration - Given as an IV bolus (large dose administered by IV over a short period of time) in emergency situations - 100 day half life = takes 3 months for plasma levels to decrease by 50% after stopping the drug - Metabolised by CYP3A4 = metabolises over 30% of all drugs and certain dietary components can inhibit this enzyme so has a high potential for drug interactions as other drugs can be metabolised
74
What does Atropine do?
- SA node is down-regulated by the vagus nerve to 70 bpm from 100 bpm = negative chronotropic effect - M2 mAChR in the SA node mediates this effect (activated by ACh release by the vagal nerve)
75
Mechanism of ACh on heart rate
- The M2 mAChR is coupled to Gi which inhibits adenylyl cyclase - Upon receptor activation, the beta-gamma subunits open a potassium channel = KACh - This allows K+ efflux from the SA node cells - K+ outflow makes the resting membrane potential more negative - So it takes longer for the pacemaker potential to bring the cell to the threshold needed to activate VGCC - VGCC is a voltage gated calcium channel that is responsible for phase 0 of the SA node action potential Net result = reduction in HR
76
Mechanism of Atropine
- Atropine binds to the M2 mAChR = a muscarinic receptor antagonist - Administration of this drug blocks KACh channel activation by M2 receptors - The resting membrane potential becomes less negative so the pacemaker potential reaches threshold quicker and can activate VGCC - Leads to increased HR
77
Mechanism of adenosine
- Lowers heart rate through activation of KACh channels - Adenosine is continuously produced at low levels by heart muscle cells - Target AV node tissue, specifically the Adenosine A1 receptor - Lowers RMP - Increases in ischaemia by increasing KACh activation = reduction in HR
78
What is citrus furanocoumarins?
Found in all citrus fruits but particularly concentrated in grapefruit
79
CYP3A4
- Cytochrome P450 enzymes found in the liver and GI tract = protect the body by breaking down foreign substances - Oxidise foreign molecules - Responsible for >50% of drug metabolism - Irreversibly inhibited by furanocoumarins (can significantly reduce enzyme’s activity) - As little as one fruit/glass of juice can cause the effect - Effects can occur over 3 days after consuming the fruit - Can cause overdose of prescription drugs (reduced metabolism)
80
Describe catheter ablation surgery
- Involves inserting catheters through a large blood vessel and then the catheter is guided to the heart - This is minimally invasive and has a low risk —> high success rate (>90% for WPW) - Diagnostic catheters have electrodes on their tips that are used to pinpoint the exact area of tissue responsible for the dysrhythmia - Ablation catheter is used once the area is located to send radiofrequency energy to destroy the abnormal tissue and restore normal electrical conduction in the heart
81
What is defibrillation?
The basic principle is to depolarise a large block of cardiac muscle It is a non-synchronised shock used in pulseless ventricular tachycardias/VF
82
What are automated external defibrillators?
Designed so that it will not deliver a defibrillation shock unless the patient actually needs it