E190 Lights & Switches Flashcards
(91 cards)
1
Q
Will the DOME Lights activate with the battery switches turned OFF?
A
- NO
- Batteries must be ON/AUTO
2
Q
What conditions have to be met for the CVR data to be erased?
A
- Aircraft on Ground
- Parking Brake Set
3
Q
What lights are NOT illuminated by the ANNUNCIATORS TEST?
A
- Master Warning / Caution
- Fire Test lights
- GPU Pushbutton light
- EMER / PRKG Brake light
4
Q
What is normal AC BUS source priority?
A
- Respective IDG
- AC BUS TIE
5
Q
What is AC BUS TIE source priority?
A
- APU
- GPU
- IDG
6
Q
What occurs if “OFF” is selected on IDG 1?
A
- Opens IDG contactor
- Isolates IDG from respective AC BUS.
7
Q
What does the illumination of the amber LED indicate?
Electrical Panel - AC Power
A
- Which IDG to disconnect
- Associated with IDG OIL caution EICAS
8
Q
If an IDG has been disconnected, can it be reconnected in flight?
A
No
9
Q
When will the AVAIL light illuminate?
A
- When AC GPU is connected but is NOT powering the AC BUS TIE.
- Button can be In or Out
10
Q
When will “IN USE” illuminate?
A
- When GPU is powering the AC BUS TIE.
- Button must be pushed In
11
Q
What happens if a TRU Switch is moved to “OFF”?
A
-Isolates respective TRU from its associated DC BUS
12
Q
What is the difference between OFF and ON for BATT 1?
A
- OFF supplies power to the HOT BATT BUS 1 only.
- ON connects battery to DC ESS BUS 1.
13
Q
What happens when the BATT 2 switch is placed in the AUTO position?
A
-Connects battery to either the DC ESS BUS 2, or the APU START BUS
14
Q
What happens if XFEED is set to LOW 1?
A
- Opens cross feed valve
- Activates AC PUMP 2
- Supplies fuel to both engines from the right wing tank
15
Q
When will (Fuel) AC PUMP 2 activate automatically?
A
- When ejector pump output is insufficient
- Engine start or
- Ejector pump failure
- XFEED operations
- On Ground, for APU Start
- If AC Power is available
16
Q
What causes EMER LIGHTS to illuminate automatically if ARMED is selected?
A
- Loss of DC BUS 1 or
- Airplane electrical power turned OFF
17
Q
When do NO SMKG and FSTN BELTS lights illuminate automatically?
A
When oxygen masks are commanded to deploy
18
Q
What happens when you pull the Fire EXTG Handle?
A
- Closes Associated
- Engine bleed air valve
- Fuel shutoff valve
- Hydraulic shutoff valve
- Generator line contactor will open as engine decelerates
19
Q
What happens if you push the APU (Fire) (Guarded) pushbutton?
A
- Closes APU fuel shutoff valve
- Discharges APU fire bottle
20
Q
In the event of an APU fire, will the APU fire bottle automatically discharge?
A
-No
21
Q
Can we leave the airplane unattended with the APU running?
A
-No, someone must be available to discharge the APU fire bottle.
22
Q
-Smoke Detected on GROUND
What happens when the FWD CARGO SMOKE Button is pushed?
A
- 1st push discharges HIGH rate bottle
- 2nd push is required to discharge LOW rate bottle
23
Q
-Smoke Detected in FLIGHT
What would be different if we were in flight?
(Pressing FWD CARGO SMOKE switch light in flight)
A
- 1st push discharges HIGH rate bottle
- 60 seconds later, LOW rate bottle automatically discharges
24
Q
What happens to electrical power during a normal APU shutdown?
A
- If APU is ONLY source of AC…
- Then APU electrics will still be available during cool down
- If ANY OTHER source of AC is available…
- Then APU electrics are removed right away
25
What happens when the EMER STOP (Guarded) Button is pushed IN?
- Closes the APU Fuel SOV
- Shuts down APU without one minute cool down
- Illuminates white stripe in lower half of button
26
In AUTO, what will cause the PTU to operate?
- Low pressure in system 2
- A failure of ENG 2 or
- A failure of ENG 2 EDP
27
What is the PTU’s primary purpose?
-Provides normal gear retraction and extension in the event of previously listed failures.
(ENG 2 failure, ENG 2 EDP failure, or low pressure in system 2)
28
When will (Hydraulic) SYS 1 ELEC PUMP run automatically on ground?
-During Takeoff
-Flaps > 0 and
-Thrust levers advanced (60*)
Or
-Ground speed > 50 kts.
29
Additionally, when will (Hydraulic) SYS 2 ELEC PUMP run automatically (On Ground)?
-Same condition as previously given
(During Takeoff: flaps > 0; and thrust levers advanced (60*), or Ground speed > 50 kts)
And
-For single engine taxi...
-When ENG 1 has been started,
And
-EMERG / PRKG BRAKE handle has been released
30
In Flight, when will (Hydraulic) SYS 1 or SYS 2 ELEC PUMP operate automatically?
-If low pressure is detected
Or
-Landing
-Flaps are not at Zero
31
In AUTO, when will the (Hydraulic) SYS 3 ELEC PUMP B turn on?
-In flight, when low pressure is detected
32
When would the LFE CTRL pressurization mode be used?
-If FMS is inoperative
Or
-Landing at an airport not in the FMS database
33
With the pressurization MODE in AUTO, what is the effect of pressing the DUMP button?
-Turns off both packs & recirc fans, allowing aircraft to depressurize.
And
-Outflow valve modulates to raise cabin to 12,400’ at 2000 fpm.
-Natural leak will raise cabin higher
34
Windshield Heating buttons are pushed in (automatic operation) - PBIT is complete. You are on the ground. When will the windshield heaters operate?
-With two sources of AC power, excluding the GPU
35
You are in flight. What happens if ICE PROTECTION MODE knob is set to ON?
- Overrides system logic
| - Activates anti-ice system regardless of icing condition
36
What’s different if you are on the ground? (TRS Ref A/I = OFF)
(What happens if ICE PROTECTION MODE knob is set to ON?)
- Only activates Engine Anti-Ice
| - Must be airborne for wings
37
In flight, what is the pneumatic bleed source priority for packs and wing A/I?
1-Respective side bleed
2-Opposite side bleed
3-APU bleed
38
On ground, if engine and APU bleed are available simultaneously, which has priority for engine start?
-APU bleed
39
What conditions command the RECIRC fans to turn off automatically?
- Both packs are commanded OFF
- DUMP button is pushed IN
- Smoke is detected in the recirculating bay
40
What conditions command the PACKS to turn off automatically?
- DUMP button selected IN
- Thrust levers are set to MAX
- During takeoff with REF ECS OFF and APU BLEED is unavailable.
41
What does illumination of an amber striped bar in the upper half of a BLEED button indicate?
-An engine bleed leak
42
When will passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft.
43
What is the function of the TIMER position on this panel?
| Windshield Wiper
Provides intermittent operation.
44
What does this green arrow in the FMA indicate?
Indicates who controls the data source for the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)
45
What is the function of the AT button on the ground?
On the ground the AT button arms the auto throttle system
46
How can the AUTOTHROTTLE disconnect warning be cancelled?
Only by pushing one of the AT DISC buttons on the thrust levers.
47
How can the autopilot disconnect warning be cancelled?
Only by pushing the yoke AP / TRIM DISC button
48
What does the autothrottle mode “TO” shown in white in the bottom row (FMA) mean?
Takeoff (TO) mode is armed
49
As the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, you note that the FMA changes from this... to this
(TO in “white” in bottom Autothrottle Mode column turns to, TO in “green” in top Autothrottle Mode column and AT in “green” appears in bottom Engagement Status column)
Explain the meaning of these changes.
-TO moves to top and becomes green, meaning autothrottle takeoff mode is Active.
And
-AT is displayed in the Engagement Status column, meaning that the autothrottle system is engaged.
50
What does the TO represent in the Vertical Mode Column (FMA)?
- Takeoff is the Active Vertical Mode
- Flight Director gives pitch guidance to maintain V2 to V2+10 after liftoff
- Takeoff with 2 engines operating - FD will command V2+10
- Takeoff with engine failure - FD will command V2 to V2+10, depending on speed of aircraft when failure occurs
51
On takeoff, accelerating through 60 kts, you note that the FMA changes from this.... to this
(“Green” TO in top of Autothrottle Mode column turns to “Green” HOLD in top of Autothrottle Mode column)
What does “HOLD” mean?
- “HOLD” is the active autothrottle mode
| - AT servos are de-energized until 400ft
52
On takeoff, accelerating through 100kts, you note that the FMA changes from this... to this
(“Green” ROLL in top Lateral Mode column turns to “Green” TRACK in top Lateral Mode column)
What does “TRACK” mean?
- TRACK is the active lateral mode
| - Flight Director gives bank commands to maintain ground track airplane was on at the moment of engagement
53
What does FLCH indicate?
| “Green” FLCH in Vertical Mode column
- Flight Level Change is active Vertical Mode
| - FD commands a pitch to maintain the selected speed to selected altitude
54
How is this FLCH different?
| “Green” FLCH changed to “Magenta” FLCH in top of Vertical Mode column
- VNAV is now active
| - FMS altitude constraints will be honored in addition to altitude selector
55
What does SPDE indicate?
| “Green” SPDE in top of Autothrottle Mode column
-Speed on elevator is the active AT mode
56
How do the ATs behave in this mode?
| “Green SPDE in top of Autothrottle Mode column
- AT maintain a fixed thrust setting
- Fixed means: 1. Climb limit position for longer Climbs
2. Approx idle position for longer Descents
57
What does SPDT indicate?
| “Green” SPDT in the top of the Autothrottle Mode column
-Speed on Thrust is the active AT mode
58
How do the ATs behave in this mode?
| “Green” SPDT in the top of the Autothrottle Mode column
-ATs vary the thrust to attempt to maintain selected speed
59
What does PTH indicate?
| “Magenta” PTH in top of Vertical mode column
- VNAV PTH is the active Vertical Mode
- FD commands a pitch to intercept & follow an FMS generated vertical path
- Path is based on FMS Descent Angle to meet FMS Waypoint Altitude Constrains
60
Can PTH be active while in HDG mode?
| “Magenta” PTH in top of Vertical mode column
NO, PTH can only be active in LNAV
61
Is VNAV PTH a Climb function, or Descent function, or both?
Only a descent function
62
What does GA represent in the Vertical Mode Column?
- Go Around is the active Vertical mode
- Pitch is commanded to 8 degrees until reaching target airspeed:
- Both engines operating - Pitches to maintain Vref + 20
- One engine inop - Pitches to maintain Vac (Approach Climb)
63
What does this symbol in the HGS indicate?
______
[] []
(Two boxes connected to a line on top)
- Angle of Attack Limit
- Appears when angle of attack is approaching stick shaker
- Reference to the Flight Path Symbol
64
What does Green Dot on the PFD Or HGS indicate?
| Green dot on speed tape
- With slats / flaps retracted, indicates drift down speed
| - With slats / flaps extended, indicates ideal flap extension speed
65
You see an amber course needle in your PFD after selecting the FMS button. What happened?
You have selected cross side navigation source
66
Is reversion to ADS 3 automatic or manual?
Reversion to ADS 3 is automatic
67
If a rejected takeoff occurs prior to 60 kts, will the Auto-brakes apply brake pressure?
No, Auto-brakes arm at 60kts
68
What position must the thrust levers be in to arm RTO on the ground?
Idle or below
69
What is the function of the GND PROX TERR INHIB Pushbutton?
- Inhibits EGPWS
| - Avoids unwanted terrain alerts at airports (or runways) not covered by EGPWS database
70
When does automatic de-clutter occur on the EICAS?
30 seconds after landing gear and flap / slat retraction under normal conditions
71
What happens when the momentary G/S INHIB button is selected?
Glide slope alerts are manually cancelled
72
When will it (G/S INHIB button) reset?
Climbing above 2000 ft RA or below 30 ft RA
73
What does the LG WRN INHIB button allow you to do?
Inhibit Landing Gear Warnings when you a dual RA failure
74
What conditions have to be met to drain the potable water?
- Aircraft must be airborne
- Landing Gear up
- Drain masts heated
75
What does ADS Probe button do when pushed in?
- Activates ADS probe heat
| - Allows heating of probes in icing conditions prior to engine start
76
Looking at the indications below, which Flight Controls are in NORMAL MODE?
(Flight Controls Mode Panel
Elevators dark and guarded
Rudder dark and guarded
Spoilers white line and guarded)
- Elevator and Runner (NORMAL)
| - Spoilers (DIRECT)
77
How does DIRECT Mode effect the Flight Controls?
-Lose “High Level” Functions for that Control
78
If the (Powerplant) START / STOP Knob is moved to STOP and the engine continues to run, what might be the problem?
Associated engine thrust lever might not be at IDLE
79
How is the ignition system affected if you select OFF on the ground? In flight?
- (Ground) OFF deactivates the ignition system
| - (Flight) FADEC disregards the OFF position in flight
80
What does the OVRD position on the IGNITION switch do?
Directs FADEC to continuously activate both igniters
81
What does the T/O CONFIG check?
- EMERG / PRKG Brake - OFF
- Takeoff Flaps set
- Spoilers retracted
- Pitch trim in the green band
- MCDU flap config
82
When will the Speedbrakes automatically retract in flight?
- If Flaps > 1 is selected, or
- Speed drops below 180 kts, or
- Thrust Lever Fwd ( > 60 Deg)
83
What is the function of the GND PROCTER FLAP OVRD switch?
Inhibits aural flap alerts for landings with flaps other than 5 or FULL
84
When would we PUSH OUT the BKUP VOL switch?
- When the ACP fails, or
- Both digital audio busses fail
- CAPT will be connected to COMM 1 only
- FO will be connected to COMM 2 only
85
What is the pitch trim priority?
1. Backup trim
2. Captain trim
3. First Officer trim
4. Autopilot trim
86
What happens if only half of the pitch (or roll) trim switch is held for 5 seconds?
That particular switch will be deactivated- (locked out)
87
What does this indicate about the cockpit door?
The cockpit door is unlocked
88
What would happen if emergency access is requested and the INHIB button is not selected?
If INHIB is not selected within 30 seconds the door will unlock
89
How could you prevent entry?
Selecting INHIB will lock door for 500 seconds and illuminate amber stripe
90
What does the (GUARDED) IFE RACK button control?
- Controls power to entire rack
| - Except for fan ventilation and smoke detection
91
What happens to the flight controls if the Elevator Disconnect Handle is pulled?
Each pilot will control their on-side elevator
