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Epme 24 > E5-E6 > Flashcards

E5-E6 Flashcards

1
Q

What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?

A

Train to memory: The PDC shall demonstrate proper performance of the RPQ, and then provide enough opportunities for the member to practice the RPQ, under instruction, until they can perform it correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aids.

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2
Q

How many stages of conflict does the Coast Guard Identify?

A
  • Collaborating: Is both assertive and cooperative. In this mode, you try to find a win-win solution that completely satisfies the concerns of both individuals involved.
  • Compromising: Is intermediate in both assertiveness and cooperativeness. In this mode, you try to find an acceptable solution that only partially satisfies both individual’s concerns.
  • Avoiding: Is both unassertive and uncooperative. In this mode, you work to sidestep the conflict without attempting to satisfy either individual’s concerns
    . * Accommodating: Is unassertive and cooperative. In this mode, you try to satisfy the other person’s concerns at the expense of your own concerns.
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3
Q

What is the final stage of conflict?

A

Resolution

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4
Q

n which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?

A

Stage 3- Escalation

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5
Q

In which stage of conflict would members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?

A

Stage 2- Confrontation

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6
Q

What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?

A

Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person.”

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7
Q

What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?

A

If a member refuses to sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307 entry, after being counseled regarding its content, the words “member refused to sign” must be entered in the member’s signature block along with the date counseled.

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8
Q

If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should _____.

A

If a member is not available for signature, so state, and include the reason(s).

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9
Q

Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?

A

PD-07 General Negative

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10
Q

You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you us

A

PD-12 Counseling for Inappropriate Relationships

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11
Q

How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?

A

9

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12
Q

The purpose of form CG-4903 is to _____.

A

The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form

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13
Q

What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all workspaces?

A

Formal Inspections. Formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections are comprehensive, detailed inspections of occupational safety and health risk assessment processes as well as workplaces, work practices, and equipment. The formal inspection is conducted at least annually for all workspaces or more frequently at the discretion of the Commanding Officer (CO) or Officer-in-Charge (OIC) per Reference (a). More frequent inspections are conducted in workplaces where high hazard operations and equipment could cause an increase of mishap, injury, or occupational illness due to the nature of the work performed.

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14
Q

How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?

A

The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate

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15
Q

How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?

A

Anonymous Reporting. All commands must implement a process to anonymously report hazards. Command personnel must be able to make a submission without fear of retribution. If used, anonymous boxes must be placed in a location where members can make a submission without being observed. Do not include a requirement for the name of the person making the submission on the form. Commands should set up a feedback mechanism to address issues raised by the program. The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form, CG-4903

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16
Q

____ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards.

A

Unit/Workplace s

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17
Q

How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?

A

Desktop APP

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18
Q

While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?

A

TABLE 1-1 COAST GUARD AWARDS AND DECORATIONS CIM 1650.25 (Series)

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19
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.

A

name insignia.

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20
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.

A

upper most qualification insignia.

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21
Q

While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges and _____.

A

The center of the insignia is parallel and one inch form the leading edge of the collar

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22
Q

What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?

A

1.25 inch anchor

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23
Q

Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?

A

rank insignia

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24
Q

COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that _____ rings are not authorized.

A

thumb rings

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25
Q

According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.

A

meet the above specification.

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26
Q

Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring.

A

One ring

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27
Q

Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?

A

diamond covered, neon, white and bright colors.

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28
Q

You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.

A

one ring per hand.

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29
Q

What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?

A

unadorned black or navy blue or gold or silver wire material .

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30
Q

Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?

A

AF skirt for women.

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31
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the _____.

A

opening of the fly.

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32
Q

The women’s shirt and women’s slacks align with the belt so that the _____.

A

right.

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33
Q

Oxfords are not authorized _____.

A

when the skirt is worn.

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34
Q

What is NOT authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Ribbions

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35
Q

What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Combo or garrison.

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36
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS), what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?

A

Oxfords,pumps, flats.

37
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform, men are required to wear _____.

A

Oxfords

38
Q

What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?

A

Male or female short sleeve or over blouse to meet sea bag requirements.

39
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undershirt with quarter length sleeves are required for wear

40
Q

Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?

A

Wicking Polyester

41
Q

What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?

A

sleeve of the long sleeve may be shortened. long and short may be altered to provide a better or more athletic fit.

42
Q

Which does the women’s long sleeve light blue shirt have?

A

has a fly front covering the button closure, right over left, a soft stand up collar with stays, two button cuff enclosure, shoulder epualets a pleated patch pocket with button flap closure.

43
Q

When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.

A

Not be visible

44
Q

What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?

A

double windsor

45
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?

A

scarlet

46
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?

A

Gold

47
Q

The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle on the SDB jacket.

A

45

48
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

stage 5: facilitate a resolution.

49
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they wan

A

Compromising ( equal levels of cooperativeness and assertiveness )

50
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.

A

Accommodating( high cooperativeness, low assertiveness )

51
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.

A

Competing,( low cooperativeness, high assertiveness)

52
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is _____.

A

Collaborating (High-Cooperativeness/High-Assertiveness)

53
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

De-escalation

54
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?

A

Escalation, stage 3

55
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?

A

Disagreement, in the situation, event, task and is in difference to that of another peer.

56
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?

A

The point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive.

57
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Escalation

58
Q

Which of the following is a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?

A

Avoiding interaction, decreased involvement in unit activities, decrease in verbal communication,
Hearing rumors they have concerns/hard feelings regarding you

59
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

Define conflict.

60
Q

In the Risk Management (RM) process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Action 3, Feedback

61
Q

In step 5 of the Risk Management (RM) process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?

A

Action, monitor

62
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

3- Monitor, Evaluate, Feedback

63
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 5, Supervise and evaluate/ review

64
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process

A

Implement Controls

65
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?

A

step 4 - Implement Controls

66
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR (Spread out, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, and Reduce)

67
Q

Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

Engineering controls, Physical controls, Administrative controls, Educational controls, Operational controls

68
Q

What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

Avoid

69
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

Spread out

70
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.

A

STAAR, spread out, TRANSFER , avoid, accept and reduce

71
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

step 3.

72
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism: “It can’t happen to us. We’re already doing it.” This pitfall results from not being totally honest and not looking for root causes of the hazards.
b. Misrepresentation: Individual perspectives may distort data. This can be deliberate or unconscious.
c. Alarmism: “The sky is falling” approach, or “worst case” estimates are used regardless of their possibility.
d. Indiscrimination: All data is given equal weight.
e. Prejudice: Subjectivity and/or hidden agendas are used instead of facts. f. Inaccuracy: Bad or misunderstood data nullify accurate risk assessment.
g. Enumeration: It is difficult to assign a numerical value to human behavior. 1) Numbers may oversimplify real life situations. 2) It may be difficult to get enough applicable data; this could force inaccurate estimates. 3) Numbers often take the place of reasoned judgment. 4) Risk can be unrealistically traded off against benefit by relying solely on numbers

73
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?

A

as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard. Risk is inherent in all operations and activities. RIsk management is a process to identify,assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.

74
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3- List Causes

75
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE model (Planning, Event complexity, Asset selection, Communications, and Environmental conditions)

76
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Hazard identification is the foundation of the entire RM process. If a hazard is not identified, it cannot be controlled.

77
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

The RM process relies on effective teamwork and communication to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards.

78
Q

A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30 days

79
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is NOT _____.

A

An IDP is NOT a performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description. The IDP is not intended to be solely filled out by the individual nor handed to the individual to return at a later date.

80
Q

02

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

Form CG-5357A

81
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Any corrections/updates will have to be made on the following day after submission.
Due to maintenance of important historical data, DA does not allow for deletions of incorrect eResumes. Be sure the document you are submitting is correct, to prevent having unwanted information pending in your My Endorsements section as well as unneeded information pending in your endorsers Requests section.

82
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

Check the Job Basket box for a desired position. When all desired Job Basket boxes have been chosen, click Save to Job Basket.
The My Saved Jobs window will appear. Delete any unwanted jobs first by checking the box and clicking Delete. When finished, click Select All and then the Apply Now button.

83
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

After ranking positions in order of preference, click Return to previous page.

84
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?

A

errors are found, note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel. It is the member’s responsibility to ensure that incorrect or missing data is updated in DA prior to the PDE verification deadline date for each SWE.

85
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?

A

is credited at 2 points per year, or 0.166 points per month, retroactive to 1FEB1994. NOTE: Members assigned PCS on National Security Cutters (WMLS) on or after 1 January 2016 will receive credit for each full month of sea duty, not to exceed 2.333 points per year.

86
Q

On your Personal Data Extract, award points are earned up to what point?

A

SWE Eligibility Date (SED) FEB 1

87
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?

A

Terminal Eligibility Date (TED) is the date that members will begin to be advanced from the SWE advancement lists following a SWE cycle.
Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to this future date for SWE eligibility and also for TIR and TIS points on the SWE. The TED is 1 January of the year following the October and May SWEs, and 1 July of the year following the November SWE.

88
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

All PDE’s are updated prior to each Active and Reserve exam cycle. Review the message for deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections.

Epme 24 (1 decks)

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