EAP Flashcards

(128 cards)

1
Q

Carrier

A

a person or animal that harbors a specific infectious agent in the absence of discernible clinical disease

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2
Q

Communicable Disease

A

an illness which may pass or be carried from a reservoir to a susceptible host

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3
Q

Epidemic

A

occurrence of an illness in excess of normal expectancy in a specific region that originates from a common source

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4
Q

host

A

a human or other living animal affording nourishment to an infectious agent

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5
Q

incubation period

A

the time interval

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6
Q

the entry and development or multiplication of infectious agents in the body of humans or animals

A

infection

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7
Q

infectious agent

A

an organism capable of producing infection of infectious disease

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8
Q

Heath care associated infection

A

an infection that iss acquired in a hospital setting formally known as a nosocomial infection

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9
Q

portal of entry

A

The means of entry for an infectious agent into a host

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10
Q

reservoir

A

The habitat for infectious agents survival

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11
Q

susceptible host

A

I human or animal that has the potential for acquiring an infection

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12
Q

transmission

A

The process by which an infectious agent is spread from a reservoir to a susceptible host

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13
Q

sexually transmitted infections

A

A contagious disease transmitted by sexual contact

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14
Q

what is the most frequently reported infectious disease in the United States

A

chlamydia

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15
Q

what are the sexually transmitted infections

A

gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, General herpes, AIDS

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16
Q

how do you know diagnose syphilis

A

blood test-RPR

microscopic exam

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17
Q

what is RPR

A

rapid plasma reagent

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18
Q

what are signs and symptoms of genital herpes

A

blisters, blebs and ulcers which become circular ulcerated lesions in the genitourinary/perineal area

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19
Q

what is mechanical prophylaxis

A

condom

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20
Q

what is direct transmission

A

Direct and essentially immediate transfer of infectious agents through portal of entry of a susceptible host

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21
Q

how many types of viral hepatitis have been positively identified

A

five ABC D and E

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22
Q

True or false hepatitis is a virus

A

True

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23
Q

what is strep throat caused by

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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24
Q

what are parasitic diseases

A

hookworm disease, malaria, scabies, lice

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25
what are bacterial diseases
strep throat, tuberculosis, meningitis
26
what is tinea capitis
ringworm of the scalp, begins of the small papule and spreads peripherally, leaving a small area baldness or broken brittle hair
27
what is tinea corporis
ringworm of the body
28
tinea pedis
ringworm of the foot starts between the toes and spread along the bottom of the foot, this is also known as athletes foot
29
what is potable water
water that is suitable, safe, or prepared for drinking
30
true or false: all water is considered unsafe until it has been tested and disinfected if necessary
true
31
what is the approval of water based on
Color, odor, and the clarity of the water; The presence of vegetation, dead animals in the water point and possible sources of pollution upstream
32
procedures to produce potable water
iodine tablets, calcium hypochlorite, boiling
33
what chemical disinfection is used on large amounts of water
calcium hypochlorite
34
what is used only in emergencies for potable water
boiling
35
how long do you boil water
vigorously for two minutes
36
does the DPD #4 tab differentiate the type of chlorine
no, It indicates the level of total disinfectant present
37
why are health and comfort inspections conducted
conducted to determine and ensure the security, military fitness and good order and discipline of the organization
38
what are the three temperature measurements
wet bulb, dry bulb, globe
39
how often or WBGT readings conducted
hourly basis
40
White flag
less than 80°F
41
Green flag
80-84.9°F
42
yellow flag
85 to 87.9°F
43
Red flag
88 to 89.9°F
44
Black flag
90°F and above
45
Who is responsible for the provisions of periodic hearing test in the evaluation of this test, and the provision of refresher training in conjunction with the annual monitoring audiogram
The medical department
46
what is HCP
Navy hearing conservation program
47
what is the preferred method of noise control
The reduction or elimination of hazardous noise through the use of engineering controls
48
acute pulpitis
an inflammation of the pulp caused by injury to the pulp usually from dental caries or trauma
49
apical foramen
opening at apex of the tooth which permits passage of nerve and blood supplies
50
dental carries
bacteria that causes cavities
51
dental dams
thin rectangular sheet of latex used in dentistry, in particular endodontic therapy, to reduce contamination, and where dental composite is being placed, due to the need for the area to remain dry during filling placement
52
dentin
light yellow substance found inside the crown, under enamel and inside the root, bulk of tooth
53
enamel
covers the entire crowd and provides protection to exposed tooth. Hardest substance in the body
54
gingiva (gums)
soft tissue that covers and surrounds neck of the tooth. Healthy gingival is pink firm and resilient
55
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
severe infection of the gingival tissue commonly referred to as trench mouth
56
Periapical abscess
and alveolar abscess localized around the a tooth root
57
Pericoronitis
i'm formation of the gingival around a partially erupted tooth
58
Periodontitus
inflammation of the gingival that involves the crest of the alveolar bone and the periodontal ligament above the alveolar crest
59
periodontal abscess
localized, pus forming inflammation of the tissue surrounding the teeth
60
post extraction alveolar osteitis
it condition comely referred to as a dry socket
61
pulp
provide sensation and blood supply to the tooth
62
root canal
houses nerves, veins and arteries of the tooth
63
stomatitis
a general term used to denote inflammation of the oral mucosa
64
what are the teeth structures
The crown, the route, the cervix
65
anatomical crown
The portion of the tooth incased in the enamel
66
clinical crown
Applied to the part of the crown exposed(visible) in the mouth
67
how many teeth are there
32
68
explain the universal method
numbered 1 to 32 top:1-16 bottom:17-32 left to right
69
primary tooth number diagram
lettered A-J right to left | k-t lower left to right
70
class one dental classification
had an examination of them 13 months requires no dental treatment worldwide deployable
71
class two dental classification
had an exam in the last 13 months requires non-urgent dental treatment service member is worldwide deployable
72
class III dental classification
has had no examination of the last 13 months | requires urgent dental treatment not worldwide deployable
73
class 4 dental classification
requires annual dental examination unknown dental classification or has no dental record not worldwide deployable
74
what is the most common cause of dental caries
bacterial plaque
75
what do you flush cavities with
warm water
76
what is the most frequent cause of severe tooth pain
pressure of fluid building up inside the pump chamber or root canal
77
Parulis
swelling that is confined to a small area at the site of a sinus tract
78
do you apply heat to the external surfaces of the face
NEVER
79
diseases of tooth tissue
dental caries, acute pulpitis, periapical abscess, tooth avulsion
80
diseases of periodontal tissue
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, periodontitis, Periodontal abscess, pericoronitis
81
mucosa conditions
herpetic gingivostomatitas, aphthous stomatitis (canker sore)
82
tooth extractions
post-extraction hemorrhage and post extraction alveolar osteitis
83
treatment for post extraction hemorrhage
notify the dentist, monitor the patient's vital signs and watch for changes in his or her condition until the dentist arrives, stop the bleeding by packing moisten sterile gauze over the extraction site and instruct the patient to bite down firmly
84
type one enamel fracture
A chip or fracture of the tooth enamel without dentin involvement
85
type two enamel/Dentin fracture
and extensive fracture involving the enamel and the Dentin layers with no pulp exposure
86
type three enamel/Dentin fracture with pulp exposure
extensive tooth fracture with the pulp experience
87
treatment for a type III tooth fracture
place calcium hydroxide over pulp and seal if available
88
type for root fracture
A fracture of the route which may include fracture of the crown
89
what to do if patient has fractured jaw
clear any obstruction in the upper respiratory passages ASAP
90
treatment for mandibular/maxillary fracture's
Report the patient's condition to the dentist, immobilize the injured area by applying in elastic bandage. Wrap around head and mandible, ensure that a pair scissors is close by to cut the bandage of the patient starts to vomit or has respiratory difficulties, apply ice packs are the injured area to reduce swelling and pain, immediately transfer the patient to the nearest medical or dental facility
91
anemia
A decrease in certain elements of the blood, especially red blood cells and hemoglobin
92
hemoglobin
Iron containing red pigment combine with a protein substance
93
hematocrit
A determination of the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood
94
leukocytosis
abnormally high white blood cell count
95
leukopenia
abnormally low white blood cell count
96
Hgb
hemoglobin determination
97
HCT
hematocrit calculation
98
what color pen
Black or blue-black ink
99
what do color coded tops indicate
additive/anticoagulant
100
lavender top
CBC
101
redtop
PSA prostate specific antigen
102
Gold or red marble top
chemistry, lipids, glucose, TSA (thyroid) RPR
103
total RBC count for males
4.6 to 6.2 million/mm^3
104
total RBC count for females
4.2 to 5.4 million/mm^3
105
hemoglobin determination for males
14 to 18 g per 100 mL of blood
106
hemoglobin determination for females
12 to 16 g per hundred milliliters of blood
107
hematocrit calculation for females
37 to 47%
108
hematocrit calculation for males
42 to 52%
109
total white blood cell count
used in determining the nature and severity of systemic infections range from 4800 to 10,800 per cubic mL
110
White blood cell differential count
used to determine the different types of white blood cells present
111
five types of white blood cells found in the circulating blood
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, monocytes
112
neutrophils
function by ingesting and invading bacteria, largest percent of leukocytes in normal blood sample
113
eosinophil
function is to respond in immediate allergic reactions and destroy parasites, common cause of increased numbers is parasitic infections
114
basophil
common cause of increased numbers is associated with inflammatory disorders
115
lymphocyte
function is associated with the body's defense against viral infections and immune response
116
monocyte
largest of the normal white blood cells, function is to control microbial and fungal infections, and remove damage cells from the body
117
common bacteria
cocci and bacilli
118
RPR reactive
appears as black clumps
119
nonreactive RPR
appears as a light gray color
120
Monospot test
reported as positive or negative
121
meningitis
information of the meninges
122
tuberculosis
potentially serious infectious disease that mainly affects the lungs
123
hepatitis e
Enterically transmitted by the fecal/oral route through contaminated food or water
124
hepatitis D
A co-infection with hepatitis B and is parenterally transmitted
125
hepatitis C
most common chronic blood borne infection in the United States, persons are at risk for infection through injection drug use
126
hepatitis B
three part immunizations received by medical personnel is to protect individuals against this type of hepatitis
127
hepatitis A
formally called infectious hepatitis
128
viral diseases
``` Vericella zoster (chxpox) influenza ```