EAWS Flashcards
(448 cards)
1
Q
state the overall aircraft dimensions of the P-8A.
A
wingspan - 123’6”
length - 129’6”
height - 42’9”
2
Q
define the P-8A safety diamond.
A
Nose, wing, tail, wing and back to the nose.
3
Q
what primary material is used on the nose radome?
A
fiberglass.
4
Q
state the primary flight control surfaces.
A
ailerons, elevators, rudder.
5
Q
what indication is given by the stall warning system?
A
the control column shakes.
6
Q
state the purpose of the anitskid/autobrake system.
A
prevent the brakes from locking and aircraft skid.
7
Q
what method is used to de-ice the raked wingtips?
A
electro-magnetic expulsive.
8
Q
state the purpose of flight deck window heat.
A
prevent ice and fog, increase impact strength.
9
Q
state the purpose of the section 48 access and blowout door.
A
access to section 48 components.
10
Q
which lights should be flashing while the engines are running?
A
anti-collision lights.
11
Q
state the nomenclature of the P-8A engine
A
cfm56-7b
12
Q
state the amount of thrust the P-8A engine produces.
A
27,300 lbs
13
Q
state the purpose of the low pressure compressor.
A
increase speed of air through the engine.
14
Q
state the purpose of the high pressure compressor.
A
increase pressure to the combustion chamber.
15
Q
state the purpose of the APU.
A
provides bleed air, electrical power and pneumatic power.
16
Q
state the purpose of the IDG oil cooler.
A
a heat exchanger which uses engine fuel to cool IDG oil.
17
Q
the ignition system is utilized at what time?
A
engine start, take off and landing, in-flight start, in-flight bad weather.
18
Q
what are the two components in the fuel pump assembly?
A
pump and filter.
19
Q
which fuel tank usually supplies fuel to the APU?
A
main 1
20
Q
list the P-8A tank groups.
A
M1, M2, CTR, FWD and AFT.
21
Q
state the total fuel capacity of the P-8A.
A
10,856 gallons
22
Q
state the purpose of the OBIGGS system.
A
provides NEA to the tanks and form of fuel transfer.
23
Q
which tank cells comprise the forward tank group?
A
4, 5, and 6
24
Q
which tank cells comprise the aft tank group?
A
7, 8, 9 and 10
25
the fuel temperature indicating system measures fuel temperature in which fuel tanks?
M1, M2 and center
26
describe the interaction between the IDG oil and the engine feed fuel flow.
heat exchangers use engine fuel to cool IDG oil.
27
the pneumatic system supplies pressurized air to which systems?
engine starts, air conditioning, inlet cowl anti-ice, water tanks, hydraulics, and wing thermal anti-ice.
28
state the sources of pneumatic power.
engines, APU and external.
29
state the maximum allowable altitude.
8,000 feet
30
state the purpose of the cabin pressure relief system.
prevent from over pressurization.
31
the oxygen system supplies 19 persons oxygen for a minimum of how many minutes?
25
32
state pascals law.
pressurized liquid within a container will move undiminished in all directions.
33
name the hydraulic fluid utilized in the P-8A.
skydrol.
34
state the 3 independent hydraulic systems.
a, b and standby.
35
what are the sources of power for the main hydraulic systems?
a and b
36
which systems does the standby hydraulic system supply alternate hydraulic pressure to?
thrust reversers, leading edge slats and flaps, the rudder.
37
name the systems which receive pressurized fluid from the main and auxiliary hydraulic systems?
thrust reversers, PTU, landing gear, nose steering, main brakes, primary and secondary flight controls, uarrsi, weapons bay doors and hydraulic pressure indicating system.
38
state the 3 subsystems of the water and waste removal.
potable water, air supply, and waste disposal.
39
potable water is supplied to what areas?
lavatory and galley.
40
the waste disposal system removes waste from what areas?
lavatory, galley and door sill drains.
41
what conditions are monitored by the fire protection system?
engine overheat, engine fire detection, APU fire detection, wheel well fire detection and wing/body overheat detection.
42
what indications are received in the flight compartment when an APU or engine fire/overheat is detected?
master warning, cms, warning bell and APU light.
43
what gas is utilized for extinguishing a fire in the engine compartment?
halon
44
what type of portable fire extinguishers are utilized inside the aircraft?
halon
45
state the purpose of DBFPS.
sense and suppress fire within the dry bay areas of the aircraft.
46
state the purpose of the vapor purge systems.
aux tank leak detection.
47
what effects can electrical shock have on the human body?
disrupt electrical functions, heart and lung failure, injury or death.
48
state the two types of voltage.
AC and DC
49
name the sources of AC power on the aircraft.
IDGs, APU generator, external power and static inverter.
50
name the sources of DC power on the aircraft.
batteries and transformer rectifier units.
51
what is the unit of measure for electrical current?
amperes (amps)
52
define resistance.
opposition (ohms)
53
define ohms law.
the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage between 2 points.
voltage = current x resistance.
54
define frequency.
complete alternations per second in AC.
55
define electrical bus.
central point which distributes voltage.
56
define circuit breaker.
over current protection which can be reset.
57
define fuse.
over current protection which cannot be reset.
58
define relay.
electrically activated switch which controls distribution.
59
state the output of the IDGs.
180 KVA, 115 VAC, 522 AMPs, 400hz and 3 phase.
60
state the two batteries utilized on the aircraft.
main and auxiliary.
61
state the purpose of the transformer rectifier units.
convert 115 VAC/400hz to 28 VDC.
62
how long will the main and aux batteries provide power after the loss of all AC power?
30 minutes
63
state the purpose of the mach airspeed warning system.
overspeed alert in flight station.
64
state the two primary functions of the air data inertial reference system.
airspeed and barometric pressure.
65
what information is displayed on the pilots heads-up display?
pitch, roll, artificial horizon, heading, altitude, airspeed, flight path and flight path acceleration.
66
state the purpose of the traffic alert and collision avoidance system.
safe air traffic seperation.
67
what 3 functions does the flight management computer system perform?
navigation, performance and guidance.
68
state the purpose of the static discharger.
decrease radio receiver interference.
69
state the nomenclature of the P-8A radar.
APY-10
70
state the purpose of the early warning and self protection system.
defense against radar and infrared guided weapons.
71
state the purpose of the ALE-47 counter measures dispensing system.
expendable weapon decoys.
72
what is the sms and what is its purpose?
stores management system. release, carry and control of weapon stores.
73
what is the stores management computer?
central control point for weapon stores.
74
what is the stores management weapons control panel?
controls the release of buoys, jettison and weapons bay door.
75
what is the stores management MCDS - ordnance panel?
controls the SMS and provides human interface in the flight station.
76
what is the stores management control wheel release switch?
the pilot/co-pilot weapon release.
77
what is the APS and what is its primary function?
aft pneumatic system. pressurizes SLS for buoy launch.
78
what are the components of the weapons bay stores system and what do they provide?
bomb rack units and APS.
79
what is the SLS?
sonobuoy launch system.
80
what is the SCU?
interface between SMS and weapons bay.
81
what is the SRL?
holds and launches buoys.
82
what is the SSL?
individual launch of buoys.
83
what is the SLT?
sonobuoys launch tube.
84
what is the gate valve?
prevents the loss of aircraft pressure when launching buoys.
85
what is the away sensor?
monitors buoy release.
86
what is the storage rack?
holds 48 buoys.
87
what is the free fall shoot?
ability to drop buoys without pressurization.
88
what is the purpose of the wing pylon and where are they located?
secure bomb rack units.
89
where are the forward fuselage stores and how do they function?
forward of the engines, underneath the fuselage. operated with bomb rack units.
90
kill stores consist of what items?
torpedos, mines, bombs, rockets and missiles.
91
what are the characteristics of an AGM?
all weather anti-ship missile.
92
what are the characteristics of an ATM?
air training missile.
93
what are the characteristics of a CATM?
captive air training missile.
94
what are the characteristics of DATM?
dummy air training missile.
95
what are the mines carried by the P-8A?
mk65 (2000lb influence actuated) mk56 (2000lb magnetic, pressure influenced) mk62 (500lb influence actuated) mk63 (1000lb influence actuated)
96
what torpedo is carried by the P-8A?
mk64 (lightweight, variable speed)
97
what survival equipment is on the P-8A?
life vests, (2) 12 man rafts, (1) crash axe, (19 fixed oxygen, (5) portable oxygen, (1) mini oxygen, (2) first aid kits, (6) fire extinguishers, (21) suits, (1) destruct kit.
98
how many internal fire extinguishers?
6
99
how many external fire extinguishers?
(2) engines, (1) APU
100
how many DBFPS extinguishers?
(12) FPCUs
101
where is cargo loaded and in what configuration?
aft of the wine racks.
102
what are the two types of life preservers for passengers, what do they contain.
whistle, dye marker, chemical light.
103
what is an MC?
mission commander. responsible for all aspect of flight.
104
what is a TACCO?
tactical coordinator. responsible for mission crew members.
105
what is a COTAC?
assists the TACCO.
106
what is an AAW?
acoustic air warfare operator. mission audio and reconstruction.
107
what is an EWO?
electronic warfare operator. responsible for radar, EOIR operation.
108
what is a PPC?
patrol plane commander.
109
what is a 2P?
NATOP pilot, responsible for safe flight.
110
what is a 3P?
can pilot, co-pilot, pilot flying, pilot monitoring.
111
what is a pilot?
left seat of flight station.
112
what is a co-pilot?
right seat, assists pilot.
113
what is a PF?
pilot flying.
114
what is a PM?
pilot monitoring.
115
what is an observer?
observes safety of flight.
116
what is an ordnance qualified crew member?
responsible for mission stores in-flight.
117
state the purpose of SORM.
standard organization and regulations manual. 3120.32
118
discuss the dual chain of command.
operational is through the commander in chief, administrative is through the secretary of the navy.
119
what is a unified chain of command?
2 or more elements with one common goal.
120
what are fleet commanders?
lead Pacific, Atlantic and Euro fleets.
121
what are task force commanders?
divides a fleet into smaller force elements.
122
what are task unit commanders?
divides forces into specific tasks.
123
what is the SECNAV?
responsible for policies, organization, admin and operation.
124
what is the CNO?
most senior navy official.
125
what is a fleet commander in chief?
responsible for specific fleets.
126
what is a naval airforce commander?
responsible for air operations within specific fleets.
127
what is a functional wing commander?
responsible for readiness, training and inspection.
128
what is a type wing commander?
coordinates the NAMP.
129
what is a CO?
commanding officer, responsible for squadron.
130
what is an XO?
directly responsible to the CO.
131
what is a CMC?
senior enlisted advisor to the CO and XO.
132
what is a department head?
ie. MO, OPSO
133
what is a CMEO?
Equal opportunity within the command.
134
what is a division officer?
reports directly to the department head.
135
what is an LPO?
directly responsible for overall workcenter.
136
what is a work center supervisor?
responsible to all matters with in the work center, reports to LPO.
137
what is a CACO?
casualty assistance and calls officer.
138
what is SAPR?
sexual assault prevention and response.
139
what is ombudsman?
link between families and the command?
140
what is a DAPA?
drug and alcohol prevention advisor.
141
what is a CCC?
command career counsilor.
142
what is an OPREP?
operational report, deals with unauthorized detonation of nuclear weapons.
143
what is a MOVEREP?
movement report, reports locations and destinations of ships.
144
what is a LOGREG?
logistics request, 48hr prior to entering port.
145
what is SORTS?
report of conditions of readiness.
146
what is a SITREP?
situational report.
147
what is an ROC?
required operational capabilities.
148
what is an POE?
projected operational enviroment.
149
what is PACOM?
pacific command, san diego.
150
what is EUCOM?
european command, germany.
151
what is SOUTHCOM?
southern command, florida.
152
what is CENTCOM?
central command, florida.
153
what is NORTHCOM?
northern command, colorado.
154
what is SOCOM?
special operations command, florida.
155
what is TRANSCOM?
transportation command, illinios.
156
what is STRATCOM?
strategic command, nebraska.
157
what is AFRICOM?
african command, germany.
158
what is the 3rd fleet AOR?
eastern pacific, san diego.
159
what is the 4th fleet AOR?
central and south america, mayport.
160
what is the 5th fleet AOR?
indian oceans and persian gulf, manama.
161
what is the 6th fleet AOR?
mediterranean and black sea, gaeta.
162
what is the 7th fleet AOR?
western pacific, yokosuka.
163
what is the 10th fleet AOR?
operates with all fleets.
164
what is an AE?
ammunition ship.
165
what is an AD?
destroyer tender.
166
what is an AFS?
combat stores ship.
167
what is an AS?
submarine tender.
168
what is an AO/AOE
logistics ship.
169
what is a CG?
guided missile cruiser.
170
what is a CVN?
nuclear carrier.
171
what is a DDG?
guided missile destroyer.
172
what is a FFG?
guided missile frigate.
173
what is a LCC?
amphibious command ship.
174
what is a LHA?
amphibious assault ship.
175
what is a LDH?
amphibious warfare ship.
176
what is a LPD?
amphibious transport ship.
177
what is a LPH?
amphibious assault ship.
178
what is a LSD?
dock landing ship.
179
what is a MCS?
mine counter measure ship.
180
what are the 3 objectives of first aid?
treat injury, prevent infection and loss of life.
181
what are the 11 basic wounds?
fractures, sucking chest wound, abdominal evisceration, amputation, laceration, electrical shock, smoke inhalation, burns, hypothermia, heat stress and puncture wound.
182
what are the 3 degrees of burns?
1st, 2nd and 3rd.
183
what is the rule of 9?
method to determine the percentage of body burned.
184
what are the 3 methods to control bleeds?
direct pressure, pressure points and tourniquets.
185
what is the basic treatment for suicide?
assume the threat is real, never leave the person alone and seek medical attention.
186
what is the treatment for joint dislocation?
loosen clothing, comfort, support the injury, treat for shock and seek medical attention.
187
explain when and why to use heat/ice packs.
ice for first 24-48 hours to reduce swelling, heat after 48 hours to promote healing.
188
explain the 5 steps of CPR.
check for responsiveness, check for breathing, CPR, stabilize breathing and check for other injuries.
189
what is ORM?
operational risk management.
190
what are the 5 steps to ORM?
identify hazards, assess hazards, make risk decision, implement controls and supervise the evolution.
191
what are the 4 principles of ORM?
accept risk when benefit outweighs the cost, accept no unnecessary risk, anticipate and manage risk, make risk decisions at the right level.
192
what are 3 levels of ORM?
in-depth, deliberate and time critical.
193
what are the 3 classes of mishaps?
Class A, Class B and Class C.
194
what is PPE?
personal protective equipment.
195
safety responsibility of the CO?
overall safety of the command.
196
safety responsibility of the aviation safety officer?
safety of all flight evolutions.
197
safety responsibility of the ground safety officer?
safety of all ground evolutions.
198
safety of a department head?
implement training within the department.
199
safety of the division officers?
implement training within the department and a more local level.
200
safety of all hands?
all hands are responsible for safety at all times.
201
explain the function of the enlisted safety committee.
implement safety policies and procedures.
202
explain the function of the safety council.
set goals for safety, manage assets and review safety.
203
discuss human error mishaps.
most commonly responsible for aviation mishaps.
204
discuss maintenance and support factor mishap.
bad maintenance or quality assurance related to aviation mishaps.
205
discuss admin and supervisory factor mishaps.
lack of supervision or training which leads to mishaps.
206
discuss material failure mishaps.
faulty or defective component related mishaps.
207
discuss environmental mishaps.
acts of god, usually weather.
208
what is the hearing conservation program?
an effort to prevent hearing loss.
209
what is a HAZREP?
hazardous report, unsafe actions, lack of training, injury or damage.
210
what is chemical warfare?
the use of chemical agents due to their physiological effect.
211
state the 4 types of chemical agents.
contact agents, respiratory agents, cardiovascular agents and nerve agents.
212
what is M9 chemical agent detection paper?
detects liquid chemicals, turns red.
213
what is atropine/2-pam-chloride?
injected therapy for nerve agents.
214
what is biological warfare?
use of agents which cause disease, sickness or death.
215
what are pathogens?
viral or bacterial.
216
what are toxins?
physiological effect.
217
what is IPE?
individual protective equipment.
218
what is radiological warfare?
radiological weapons. (nuclear)
219
explain the 5 types of nuclear explosion.
high altitude (atmospheric), air burst, surface burst, shallow detonation, deep detonation.
220
what is a ready-shelter?
minimal shielding, close to battle stations.
221
what is a deep-shelter?
low in ship, close to centerline, maximum protection.
222
what is a DT-60 dosimeter?
a meter that detects radiation. (0-500 roentgens)
223
what is MOPP?
mission oriented protective posture.
224
what are the 5 levels of MOPP?
0-5 in severity, 0 issue PPE, 1 PPE accessible, 2 PPE carried, 3 filters installed, 4 don all PPE and sprinkler protection.
225
what is a firefighters primary and secondary duty?
save life and limit damage to equipment.
226
what are the key elements of fire?
oxygen, fuel and heat.
227
what is the fire tetrahedron?
oxygen, fuel, heat and chemical reaction.
228
what are the 4 classes of fire?
A, B, C and D
229
what are the different types of extinguishing agents?
AFFF, water, HALON, carbon dioxide and PKP.
230
explain the safety guidelines for the flight line.
exhaust, intake and prop arc hazards.
231
what PPE is required on the flight line?
hearing protection, steel toe boots and cranial.
232
discuss runways.
used for take off and landing.
233
discuss threshold markings.
designate the landing area.
234
discuss overrun areas.
emergency deceleration of an aircraft.
235
discuss MA-1 overrun barriers.
emergency deceleration of an aircraft with tricycle type landing gear/no tail hooks.
236
discuss emergency shore based recovery equipment.
emergency stop of shore based aircraft.
237
discuss taxiways.
used to taxiing.
238
discuss parking apron.
designated area for parking aircraft.
239
discuss compass calibration pad.
magnetically quiet area used to calibrate an aircraft compass.
240
discuss runway numbering system.
runways based on magnetic heading.
241
discuss airfield rotating beacon.
designates airport location day and night.
242
who wears yellow jerseys?
launching and arresting officers.
243
who wears white jerseys?
safety, QA, troubleshooters, medical.
244
who wears brown jerseys?
plane captains.
245
who wears blue jerseys?
mooring teams.
246
who wears green jerseys?
maintenance personnel.
247
who wears purple jerseys?
fueling crews.
248
what agents can you find on the flight deck?
PKP, salt water. CO2, AFFF, bomb jettison ramp and steam smothering.
249
what is SE used for in aircraft handling?
towing.
250
what are the procedures for grounding an aircraft?
strap to ground then aircraft.
251
what is initial tie-down?
6 chains.
252
what is normal tie-down?
>45knots, 9 chains.
253
what is moderate weather tie-down?
45-60knots, 14 chains.
254
what is heavy weather tie-down?
<60knots, 20 chains.
255
what are mandatory hand signals required regardless of aircraft?
fire, emergency stop, safety related hand signals.
256
how many personnel does it take to move an aircraft?
6
257
what is the maximum towing speed?
5mph or as fast as the slowest walker.
258
what is a wind indicator?
immediate velocity of wind on flight line.
259
what is an airfield rotating beacon?
gives visual location of the flight line.
260
what is tower visual communications?
coordination between radar and the tower.
261
what is TACAN?
tactical air navigation system, primary communication for carrier based aircraft.
262
what is ILS?
a precise en route navigation system.
263
what is VOR?
an all weather radio system.
264
what is GPS?
global positioning system.
265
who provides management, coordination and leadership for force protection?
force protection officer.
266
explain THREATCON.
levels of protection of homeland and abroad assets.
267
explain DEFCON.
levels of military preparations for war.
268
what is FPCON?
levels of protection against terrorism.
269
FPCON is based off?
threat level, penetration capability, exposure, asset ability and asset protection.
270
what is FPCON normal?
general global threat.
271
what is FPCON alpha?
increased global threat.
272
what is FPCON bravo?
more predictable threat.
273
what is FPCON charlie?
incident occurs, creditable intelligence.
274
what is FPCON delta?
immediate terrorist attack.
275
what is DEFCON?
defense readiness condition.
276
what is DEFCON 5?
peacetime.
277
what is DEFCON 4?
normal security procedures.
278
what is DEFCON 3?
increased security procedures.
279
what is DEFCON 4?
increased more but not maximum security procedures.
280
what is DEFCON 5?
maximum security procedures.
281
DEFCON is a subsystem of?
LERTCONS, alert conditions.
282
what is the objective of the NAMP?
improved readiness and safety.
283
who is in charge of the NAMP?
CNO
284
explain the MO.
responsible for the accomplishment of the mission, reports to the CO.
285
explain AMO.
assists the MO.
286
explain MMCO.
maintenance/material control officer, material support.
287
explain MMCPO.
senior advisor of the maintenance department, reports to the MO and CO.
288
explain QAO.
responsible for maintenance department safety.
289
explain MCO.
material control officer, responsible for logistics and finances.
290
state the basic responsibilities of maintenance control.
issues and monitors all maintenance.
291
what are the 3 levels of maintenance?
I, O and depot.
292
what are the two types of maintenance?
rework and upkeep.
293
what are examples of upkeep maintenance inspections?
turn around, daily, conditional, special, phase, acceptance and transfer.
294
what is an FCF?
functional check flight.
295
define management.
the control of work.
296
define maintenance.
retaining/restoring aircraft condition.
297
explain safe for flight.
permits launch.
298
explain MMP.
monthly maintenance plan.
299
explain aircraft log book.
service records for all required aspects.
300
who is authorized to release an aircraft safe for flight?
SFF qualified.
301
what is the concept of QA?
fundamentally to prevent the occurrence of defects.
302
what are the QA programs?
CTPL, safety, audit, SE misuse and abuse, confined space and NAMDRP.
303
discuss the elements of a successful FOD program.
identify, correct and eliminate FOD hazards.
304
state the primary objective of the tool control program.
tool accountability.
305
discuss the fuel surveillance program.
fuel samples, ADB and monitored by QA.
306
state the responsibility of material control.
ordering and delivery of required material.
307
what is a DD form 200?
IMRL liability form.
308
NATOPS was established in what year?
1961
309
when was the NAMP created?
1959
310
why was NATOPS established?
to reduce aircraft mishaps.
311
what is a NATOPS model manager?
administers the NATOPS program.
312
what is a NATOPS evaluator?
closely evaluates the NATOPS program.
313
what is a NATOPS instructor?
instructs trainees on the contents of NATOPS.
314
state the purpose of a NATOPS evaluations.
aircrew proficiency.
315
define warning.
injury or death may occur.
316
define caution.
damage to equipment may occur.
317
define note.
suggestive information.
318
define should.
recommended.
319
define may.
optional.
320
define will.
will comply with procedure.
321
explain the visual identification markings for COMNAVAIRLANT.
first characters A-M, second characters A-Z.
322
explain the visual identification markings for COMNAVAIRPAC.
first characters N-Z, second characters A-Z.
323
explain the visual identification markings for CNATRA.
first characters A-G, no second letter.
324
what is the birthday of naval aviation?
8 may 1911
325
what is 14 november 1910?
first flight off a ship.
326
what is 8 may 1911?
first naval planes purchased.
327
what is 20 june 1913?
ens billingsly, first naval aviation death.
328
what is 22 october 1917?
first form of QARs.
329
what is 20 march 1922?
first aircraft carrier, USS LANGLEY
330
what is 1948?
HU-1, first helicopter command.
331
what is 5 may 1961?
alan sheppard, first naval aviator in space, 116 miles.
332
what is 20-21 july 1969?
neil armstrong walked on the moon.
333
what is 1994?
first females qualified as naval aviators, eisenhower.
334
what is coral sea?
7-8 may 1942, first air-to-air naval battle.
335
what is midway?
3-5 june 1942, turning point of the pacific war.
336
what is guadalcanal?
13-15 november 1942, 1st marines took quadalcanal, USS JUNEAU, sullivan brothers.
337
state the importance of planning naval operations.
strength based of planning and exercise.
338
state the name of the first aircraft carrier.
USS LANGLEY.
339
what was the first jet powered aircraft.
FH-1 phantom
340
who was the first naval aviator in space?
alan sheppard.
341
discuss the duties and responsibilities of a MCPON.
serves as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO.
342
discuss the sailors creed.
inacted by CNO Kelso, designed to create unity regardless of rank.
343
when were the navy core values developed?
american revolution.
344
what is the old commissioned vessel?
USS CONSTITUTION.
345
discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the navy.
taxation from england.
346
what is the navys birthday?
13 october 1775
347
discuss hand salute.
lifting of the knights visor, removing cover was shortened to just touching it.
348
discuss saluting the ensign aboard a ship.
regulation 1207.
349
discuss dipping the ensign.
salute from surface vessels to navy ships.
350
discuss gun salute.
honorary action for individuals, nations and holidays.
351
describe the courtesies of rending colors.
0800-sunset.
352
what is the ensign?
american flag.
353
what is a national flag?
specific countries designated flag.
354
what is the navy flag?
blue flag with a ship and eagle at sea, gold banner which reads "united states navy".
355
what is the union jack?
the blue portion of the american flag which contains all 50 stars.
356
what is motion?
change in pace or postion.
357
what are the three types of motion?
acceleration, speed and velocity.
358
what is newtons first law?
an object in motion will stay in motion.
359
what is newtons second law?
the movement of an object is directly proportional to the external force applied to it.
360
what is newtons third law?
ever action has an equal and opposite reaction.
361
what is lift?
force in an upward motion.
362
what is weight?
force acting downward.
363
what is drag?
a withholding force.
364
what is thrust?
force which propels forward.
365
what are the axis of the aircraft?
longitudinal, lateral and vertical.
366
ailerons control what?
roll.
367
elevators control what?
pitch.
368
the rudder controls what?
yaw.
369
the cyclic stick controls what?
roll/pitch of the rotary blade on helos.
370
the tail rotor controls what?
yaw on helos.
371
define an airfoil.
the aerodynamic shape of wings.
372
define collective.
changing the angle of attack to create lift.
373
define AOA.
angle of attack.
374
define auto rotation.
allows helos to land safely without engine power.
375
explain the basic hydraulic system.
reservoir, pump, lines, interface and actuator.
376
what are the components of landing gear?
shock strut assembly, tires, wheel brake assembly, actuator and cross brace.
377
explain the term autorotation.
increases inertia energy into lift.
378
state the safety precautions when servicing tires.
wheel fragments can shoot hundreds of feet, never approach from the side.
379
describe turbojet.
projects air at high velocity.
380
describe turboshaft.
power sent through shaft.
381
describe turboprop.
drives energy into a prop.
382
describe turbofan.
similar to a props, but in a duct enclosed axial flow fan.
383
nato code for JP4?
F40
384
nato code for JP5?
F44
385
nato code for JP8
F34
386
what are 3 hazards of jet fuel?
explosion, contact, ingestion and fumes.
387
discuss safety procedures involving external power.
breakers, switches, prevent shock, power source is secured.
388
what does icing do to naval aircraft?
increases drag and weight, lowers stall speed.
389
what is pitot-static?
provides barometric reading.
390
what is an altimeter?
reads aircraft alititude.
391
what is an attitude indicator?
gives flight station monitoring to aircraft attitude.
392
what is IFF?
identify friend or foe.
393
what is radar?
radio detection and ranging.
394
what is a magnetic compass?
reads like true dial gauge. (standby source)
395
explain a circuit breaker.
resettable over current protection.
396
explain a fuse.
non-resettable over current protection.
397
what does NALCOMIS stand for?
naval aviation logistics command management information system.
398
what is OOMA?
optimized organizational maintenance aid.
399
what does OOMA consist off?
maintenance, material, flight and logs and records.
400
what does OOMA track?
discrepancies, ALSS, SE status, mission mounted equipment.
401
what is an JCN?
job control number.
402
what is type maintenance?
pre-filled based on work order.
403
what is a type work order?
type of maintenance being performed.
404
what is accumulated job status history?
hours accumulated from start to finish.
405
what is a DM?
discrepancy maintenance.
406
what is a TS?
troubleshooting maintenance.
407
what is a AD?
assist maintenance.
408
what is a FO?
facilitate other maintenance.
409
what is a CL?
conditional look phase maintenance.
410
what is a CF?
conditional fix phase maintenance.
411
what is a SX?
special inspection maintenance.
412
what is a SC?
special inspection controls maf.
413
what is a TD?
technical directive.
414
what are the navy 6 core capabilities?
presences, deterrence, sea control, power, security and humanitarian.
415
explain HSC.
helicopter sea combat.
416
explain HSM.
helicopter maritime strike.
417
explain HT.
helicopter training.
418
explain VAQ.
tactical electronic warfare.
419
explain VAW.
carrier airborne early warning.
420
explain VC.
fleet composite.
421
explain VFA.
strike fighter.
422
explain VP.
fixed partol.
423
explain VQ.
fixed recon.
424
explain VR.
logistic support.
425
explain VRC.
carrier logistics support.
426
explain VT.
fixed training.
427
explain VX.
test/evaluation.
428
discuss COMSEC.
communication security.
429
define TPI.
2 person integrity.
430
discuss encryption.
conversion of electrical data.
431
discuss authentication.
protects against false transmissions.
432
discuss classification.
protects against unauthorized exposure.
433
discuss compromise.
security exposure.
434
explain the objective of the personnel security program.
authorize access to classified information.
435
describe the proper destruction of classified material.
completely destroyed, burned, shredded or chemical decomposition.
436
describe confidential.
could cause damage if exposed.
437
describe secret.
could cause serious damage.
438
describe top secret.
could cause grave damage.
439
what is NOFORN?
non-releasable to foreign nationals.
440
what is FOUO?
for official use only.
441
define HAZMAT.
hazardous material.
442
define HAZWASTE.
hazardous waste.
443
how often are HAZMAT stowage locations inspected?
weekly, quarterly.
444
what do HAZMAT inspections look for?
corrosion, leakage, labeling and shelf life.
445
where do you find information on the HAZMAT you are using?
SDS
446
what are the six categories of HAZMAT?
flammable, aerosol, toxic, corrosive, oxidizing and gas compressed.
447
what is the AUL?
authorized use listing.
448
what is the purpose of the SDS?
information on HAZMAT.
