Econ Study Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

In a closed economy, national savings equals private savings:

A

plus the budget balance.

This highlights the relationship between savings and government fiscal policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A decrease in the demand for money would result from a(n):

A

decrease in real gross domestic product.

Lower economic activity typically reduces the need for money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When interest rates decrease, the demand for commercial and residential real estate will _____ and the price of real estate will _____.

A

increase; increase.

Lower interest rates make borrowing cheaper, increasing real estate demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A business will want to borrow to undertake an investment project when the rate of return on that project is _____ rate.

A

higher than the interest.

This ensures profitability in investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A _____ sells policies to savers and guarantees a payment to the policyholder’s beneficiaries when the policyholder dies.

A

life insurance company.

This is a key function of life insurance companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In a checkable-deposits-only monetary system with a 5% required reserve ratio, a bank deposit of $1,000 could increase the total amount of bank deposits by up to $:

A

20,000.

This is calculated using the money multiplier effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Money is:

A

an asset that can be easily used to purchase goods and services.

Money serves as a medium of exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The cyclically balanced budget is important because it:

A

helps clarify whether the government’s taxing and spending policies are sustainable in the long run.

This concept is crucial for fiscal policy planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The money demand curve is _____ sloping because a lower interest rate _____ the opportunity cost of holding money.

A

downward; decreases.

This reflects the inverse relationship between interest rates and money demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If the public holds 50% of the money supply in currency and the reserve requirement is 20%, a customer deposits $4,000 in her checking account. As a result of the deposit, required reserves increase by $:

A

This is calculated as 20% of the deposit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Financial markets spread the potential gains and losses of borrowing and lending among many firms and individuals, decreasing overall uncertainty. The financial system thereby:

A

reduces risk.

This diversification helps stabilize the economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When banks extend loans:

A

the money supply increases.

This process generates new money in the economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All other things equal, a decrease in government borrowing will:

A

shift the demand curve for loanable funds to the left.

This indicates reduced demand for loans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The economy may move from point i to point h as a result of:

A

an increase in the money supply.

This reflects the effects of monetary policy on economic points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Governments can save when:

A

taxes are greater than expenditures.

This indicates a budget surplus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The reserve requirement is 10%, and Olga withdraws $5,000 for travel money from her checking account. As a result of the withdrawal, excess reserves _____ by $_____

A

decrease; 500.

This reflects the impact of withdrawals on bank reserves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A physical asset is:

A

a tangible asset that can be used to generate income and whose owner has the right to dispose of it at will.

This distinguishes physical assets from financial assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The narrowest definition of money includes:

A

currency in circulation.

This definition is critical for understanding monetary supply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contractionary monetary policy will, all else equal, _____ the interest rate and shift the aggregate demand curve to the _____.

A

increase; left.

This reflects the tightening of monetary conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A decrease in government spending of $300 billion and a tax increase of $300 billion will have _____ effects on the budget balance and _____ effects on real GDP.

A

equal; unequal.

This highlights the differing impacts on fiscal balance versus economic output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of these includes the most companies and provides the broadest measure of stock market performance?

A

the S&P 500.

This index is commonly used to gauge overall market performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lucia withdraws $6,000 from her checking account to pay tuition this semester. Immediately after the withdrawal, reserves _____, and checkable deposits _____.

A

decrease by $6,000; decrease by $6,000.

This reflects the direct impact of withdrawals on bank reserves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When nominal wages decrease, the short-run aggregate supply curve:

A

shifts to the right.

Lower wages reduce production costs, increasing supply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The quantity demanded of money is negatively related to _____, and the demand for money is positively related to _____.

A

the interest rate; real gross domestic product.

This captures the relationship between interest rates and economic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A major problem with bank runs is that they:
spread to other banks. ## Footnote This contagion effect can destabilize the entire banking system.
26
If the economy is producing at Y1, it faces a(n) _____ gap, as _____ real gross domestic product exceeds _____ real gross domestic product.
inflationary; potential; actual. ## Footnote This indicates an economy operating above its sustainable capacity.
27
The automatic stabilizer in government tax revenue that occurs when GDP rises _____ the multiplier.
increases. ## Footnote This reflects the relationship between economic growth and tax revenue.
28
Some economists have challenged the _____, arguing that markets often behave irrationally.
efficient markets hypothesis. ## Footnote This debate highlights the complexity of market behavior.
29
If the economy is at potential output, and the Fed decreases the money supply, in the long run, real gross domestic product will likely:
remain the same. ## Footnote This suggests that output is determined by real factors in the long run.
30
If the Federal Reserve intended to encourage investment and expand the economy, it would _____ Treasury bills, _____ the money supply, and _____ interest rates.
buy; increase; lower. ## Footnote This outlines the tools of monetary policy.
31
If the aggregate price level doubles:
both money demand and the money supply will rise proportionally. ## Footnote This reflects the relationship between price levels and money.
32
Assume that the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8 and that potential output is $900 billion. If real GDP is $700 billion, _____ government spending by $_____ billion would bring the economy to potential output.
increasing; 100. ## Footnote This is based on the multiplier effect of fiscal policy.
33
Suppose an economy faces a recessionary gap, and the government uses expansionary fiscal policy to correct the problem. The policy may:
be ineffective, especially if the level of public debt is already very high. ## Footnote This highlights potential limitations of fiscal interventions.
34
A household's wealth is:
the value of its accumulated savings. ## Footnote This is a key measure of financial health.
35
Consider an economy that already has a sizable budget deficit. If the economy faces a major downturn, most economists agree, the government should:
stimulate the economy by raising expenditure irrespective of the ratio of debt to GDP. ## Footnote This reflects the need for counter-cyclical fiscal policy.
36
To close a(n) _____ gap, the central bank could adopt a(n) _____ economic policy.
recessionary; expansionary. ## Footnote This indicates the direction of monetary policy needed.
37
If the economy is at potential output, and the Fed _____ the money supply, the likely result will be a(n) _____ in investment spending and a(n) _____ in consumer spending in the short run.
decreases; decrease; decrease. ## Footnote This reflects the contractionary impact of reduced money supply.
38
Suppose that the economy is operating at potential output, and the money supply increases. Aggregate output will _____ potential output, nominal wages will _____, and the short-run aggregate supply will shift _____.
rise above; rise; leftward. ## Footnote This describes the dynamic effects of expansionary monetary policy.
39
An increase in government spending of $300 billion and a tax cut of $300 billion will have _____ effects on the budget balance and _____ effects on real GDP.
unequal; equal. ## Footnote This highlights the differing fiscal impacts of spending versus tax cuts.
40
Assume an open economy in which GDP is $20 trillion. If consumption is $14 trillion, government spending is $3 trillion, taxes are $2 trillion, government transfers are $0, exports are $2 trillion, and imports are $3 trillion, what is private savings?
$3 trillion. ## Footnote This is derived from the national income accounting identity.
41
Which of these is a tool of monetary policy used by the Federal Reserve?
I only. ## Footnote Open market operations are a primary tool for managing money supply.
42
You will break even if the annual nominal interest rate is _____%.
10. ## Footnote This is calculated based on the loan repayment structure.
43
The cyclically adjusted budget balance refers to the:
budget balance if aggregate output were equal to potential output. ## Footnote This reflects an adjustment for economic cycles.
44
Given a recessionary gap, the Federal Reserve will use monetary policy to _____ real gross domestic product and _____ aggregate demand.
increase; increase. ## Footnote This shows the goal of expansionary monetary policy.
45
The multiplier effect of a(n) _____ in transfer payments is _____ that of an equal increase in government purchases of goods and services.
increase; smaller than. ## Footnote This illustrates the differing impacts of fiscal policies.
46
The reserve requirement is 10%, and Olga withdraws $3,000 for travel money from her checking account. As a result of the withdrawal, excess reserves _____ by $_____
decrease; 300. ## Footnote This reflects the effect of withdrawals on bank reserves.
47
Financial markets:
provide liquidity. ## Footnote This is essential for market efficiency and functionality.
48
The demand for loanable funds curve is _____ sloping because _____ respond to lower interest rates by _____ their quantity demanded of loanable funds.
downward; investors; increasing. ## Footnote This captures the behavior of borrowers in response to interest rates.
49
What do financial markets provide?
Liquidity ## Footnote Financial markets facilitate the buying and selling of assets, providing liquidity to investors.
50
The demand for loanable funds curve is _____ sloping because _____ respond to lower interest rates by _____ their quantity demanded of loanable funds.
downward; investors; increasing
51
According to the loanable funds model, in the short run, expansionary monetary policy:
increases the quantity of loanable funds supplied.
52
According to the concept of monetary neutrality, _____ in the money supply _____ real gross domestic product but _____ the price level.
increases; do not change; do raise
53
Improvements in information technology have:
decreased the demand for money.
54
If the economy is in an inflationary gap at point h, it can move to point i as a result of:
a decrease in the money supply.
55
If the government increases its spending when the economy is expanding, automatic stabilizers _____ the government spending multiplier.
will not affect
56
If the Fed conducts an open-market sale, bank reserves _____, and the money supply is likely to _____
decrease; decrease
57
A recession causes the size of the multiplier to _____ because revenue from personal income taxes automatically decreases as disposable income decreases.
decrease
58
What would be the immediate effect if an individual made a $20,000 cash deposit in a bank?
The money supply would not be affected.
59
An increase in taxes _____, shifting the aggregate demand curve to the _____
decreases disposable income and consumption; left
60
All assets that are included in _____ are also included in _____
M2; M1
61
_____ are financial intermediaries that sell policies to savers and guarantee a payment to the policyholder's beneficiaries when the policyholder dies.
Life insurance companies
62
What is an advantage to a foreign country of investment by U.S. firms?
U.S. companies often bring new technology to the foreign countries in which they invest, raising their productivity.
63
The efficient markets hypothesis states that:
at any given time, stock prices are fairly valued, reflecting all available information.
64
A change in taxes shifts the aggregate _____ curve by _____ than a change in government purchases of goods and services.
demand; less
65
Which of these statements about bank runs is false?
Bank runs typically happen only to small banks with few financial assets.
66
Given the scenario depicted in the graph, which equation measures an inflationary gap?
Y3 – Y2
67
A checking account with $500 is:
more liquid than a new car.
68
The federal budget tends to move toward _____ as the economy _____
deficit; contracts
69
If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.75, and government purchases of goods and services decrease by $30 billion, real GDP will:
decrease by $120 billion.
70
Shares of stock are:
shares of ownership in the issuing company.
71
Currency in the United States today is _____ money.
fiat
72
Bank-like activities undertaken by nonbank financial firms are known as _____
shadow banking
73
If there is a decrease in taxes, _____ will shift to the _____, causing a(n) _____ in the price level and a(n) _____ in real GDP.
AD1; right; increase; increase
74
If U.S. debt is $7 trillion at the beginning of the fiscal year, what will it be at the end of the fiscal year if purchases and transfers are $2 trillion and tax revenues are $2 trillion?
7 trillion.
75
If the market interest rate is 13.5%, the amount of planned investment spending is $:
800.
76
The size of the multiplier _____ as the marginal propensity to consume _____
increases; increases
77
Commodity money is:
a good used as a medium of exchange that has other uses.
78
Lucia withdraws $6,000 from her checking account to pay tuition. If the reserve requirement is 20% and banks hold no excess reserves, excess reserves _____ by $_____
decrease; 6,000
79
If your grandma sends you $200 for your birthday and you deposit it in your checking account with a reserve ratio of 10%, how much could the money supply grow?
by as much as an additional $2,000.
80
If the reserve ratio is 9%, and the banking system does not want to hold excess reserves, how much more can be added to the money supply?
about $667,000
81
_____ targeting occurs when the central bank sets an explicit goal for the _____ rate.
Inflation; inflation
82
_____ is the most liquid asset in the economy.
Money
83
When the Federal Reserve decides to _____ the money supply and _____ interest rates, what happens?
increase; lower
84
The multiplier effect of changes in government purchases of goods and services is equal to:
1/(1 – MPC).
85
An increase in real aggregate spending will shift the money:
demand curve rightward.
86
An increase in government transfer payments of $250 billion and a tax cut of $250 billion will have _____ effects on the budget balance.
unequal; equal
87
Included in M1 are:
checkable bank deposits.
88
The value of investment spending is $:
3 trillion.
89
To close an inflationary gap using monetary policy, the Federal Reserve should _____ the money supply to _____ investment and consumer spending.
decrease; decrease
90
If banks lack sufficient funds to pay their depositors, they can borrow the needed funds at the Federal Reserve _____
discount window.
91
One reason financial institutions become very large is to:
decrease transaction costs.
92
Which fiscal policy would make a budget surplus larger or a budget deficit smaller?
lower government transfers.
93
If the economy is in short-run macroeconomic equilibrium at E1, the government might use _____ fiscal policy to shift the aggregate demand curve to the _____
expansionary; right
94
The introduction of alternative forms of payment like Venmo and PayPal has:
decreased the demand for cash.
95
A 20% increase in the aggregate price level will increase the quantity of money demanded by:
20%.
96
_____ are the underlying determinants of a company's future profits.
Fundamentals
97
If the reserve ratio is 8%, and the banking system does NOT want to hold excess reserves, how much more can be added to the money supply?
about $667,000
98
The short-term interest rate applies to financial assets that mature:
in less than a year.
99
A cyclically adjusted budget balance:
is an estimate of what the budget balance would be if real GDP were equal to potential output.
100
What is the approximate value of $667,000?
about $667,000
101
What is the approximate value of $111,000?
about $111,000
102
What is the value of $250,000?
$250,000
103
What is the value of $1 million?
$1 million
104
The short-term interest rate applies to financial assets that mature: _______
in less than a year.
105
A cyclically adjusted budget balance is an estimate of what the budget balance would be if real GDP were equal to _______.
potential output.
106
The government's budget balance is calculated as: _______
T – G.
107
An increase in the money supply is most likely to cause a shift from: _______
AD to AD'.
108
A cyclically adjusted budget balance shows what the budget balance would be with a significant amount of _______.
cyclical unemployment.
109
The formula for the government's budget balance can also be expressed as: _______
T – G – TR.
110
The national debt rises as _______ costs are accrued.
interest
111
What does AD stand for in the context of monetary policy?
Aggregate Demand
112
What does SRAS stand for in the context of the AD–SRAS model?
Short-Run Aggregate Supply
113
True or False: A cyclically adjusted budget balance is the same as the national debt.
False
114
The total government budget balance can be affected by: _______
Taxes (T), Government Spending (G), and Transfer Payments (TR).
115
An increase in the money supply typically leads to a shift in the AD curve to the _______.
right
116
Which of the following is not a component of the government budget balance? a. T b. G c. TR d. P
d. P
117
What does TR represent in the context of government budget balance?
Transfer Payments