EE2 Flashcards
(52 cards)
1
Q
- In patients with infectious mononucleosis, which blood cells are infected by the causative agent?
A
C. B Lymphocytes
2
Q
- Which of the following statements about hairy cell leukemia is true?
A
C. Hairy cells contain tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.
3
Q
- Based on the WHO classification system, B cell ALL (FAB type L3) and represent different clinical presentations of the same disease entity.
A
A. Burkitt lymphoma
4
Q
- The presence of both immature neutrophils and nucleated erythrocytes in the peripheral blood is most accurately called a
A
D. Leukoerythroblastic reaction
5
Q
- In which anomaly is a failure of granulocytes to divide beyond the band or twolobed stage observed?
A
A. Pelger-Huet
6
Q
- In which of the following are eosinophils not increased?
A
A. Cushing syndrome
7
Q
- Which of the following represents the principal defect in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
A
D. Oxidative Respiratory Burst
8
Q
- The blood shown in Color Plate 11 • is from
A
B. A folate antagonist (e.g., methotrexate)
9
Q
- A patient with normal hemoglobin and WBC count values, a persistently elevated platelet count (over 1000 X 109/L), increased marrow megakaryocytes, and a history of frequent bleeding and clotting episodes most likely has
A
C. Essential thrombocythemia
10
Q
- An adult patient with massive splenomegaly has mild anemia, a slightly elevated WBC count, and an LAP score of 170. The blood smear shows teardrop erythrocytes and leukoerythroblastosis. These findings are most consistent with
A
B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
11
Q
- Which of the following infections does not reveal a blood picture as seen in Color Plate 12B?
A
B. Bordetellapertussis (whooping cough)
12
Q
- The most common type of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in the United States involves the
A
A. Bcell
13
Q
- Which of the following are characteristic findings in Waldenstrom disease?
A
D. Increased IgM and blood hyperviscosity
14
Q
- Which of the following would not cause a total WBC count of 62.2 X 109/L (62.2 X 103/jjLL) and the blood findings seen in Color Plate 13B?
A
C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
15
Q
- The peripheral blood shown in Color Plate 14B is from a 69-year-old female. Her WBC count was 83.0 X 109 cells/L (83.0 X 103/(xL) and her platelet count was
normal. Based on the cell morphology and this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
16
Q
- In which of the following is progression to acute leukemia least likely?
A
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
17
Q
- A Gaucher cell is best described as a macrophage with
A
A. “Wrinkled” cytoplasm due to an accumulation of glucocerebroside
18
Q
- Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of Hodgkin disease rather than other lymphoproliferative disorders?
A
D. Presence of giant binucleated ReedSternberg cells with prominent nucleoli
19
Q
- In a patient with fever of unknown origin, which of the following findings is not consistent with an inflammatory process?
A
B. Increased albumin level
20
Q
- The presence of the chromosomal abnormality t(15;17) and a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIG) is diagnostic of
A
C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (FAB type M3)
21
Q
- Which of the following is not commonly found in acute myelogenous leukemias?
A
D. Lymphadenopathy
22
Q
- The child whose blast cells are shown in Color Plate 15> has acute lymphoblastic leukemia that is precursor B cell type and CALLA positive. Analysis by flow cytometry would likely show cells that immunophenotype for
A
B. CD10, CD 19
23
Q
- The patient whose bone marrow is shown in Color Plate 16 • most likely has a(n)
A
A. Acute Leukemia
24
Q
- Multiple myeloma is characterized by the presence in urine of large amounts of
A
C. IgG light chains
25
195. Which of the following is not classified as a myeloproliferative disorder?
C. Multiple myeloma
26
196. Which of the following gene mutations correlates with the t(9;22) that is present in Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia?
B. BCR/ABL
27
197. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the WHO (World Health Organization) classification of hematopoietic neoplasms?
B. Diagnosis is based on cellular morphology and cytochemistry.
28
198. Which of the following would be least helpful in distinguishing chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a neutrophilic leukemoid reaction?
A. An extreme leukocytosis with increased neutrophilic bands, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes
29
199. The cytoplasmic inclusion present in the cell shown in Color Plate !?•
C. Stains positive with myeloperoxidase (MPO)
30
200. Which of the following is a typical finding in chronic leukemias at onset?
D. Elevated leukocyte count
31
201. In what condition would an LAP score of 10 most likely be found?
D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
32
202. Which of the following is not associated with neutrophilia?
C. Infectious hepatitis
33
203. In which of the following would an absolute monocytosis not be seen?
D. Infectious mononucleosis
34
204. Coarse PAS positivity may be found in the leukemic cells of
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (FAB type LI)
35
205. Which of the following is not among the diagnostic criteria used for classifying the myelodysplastic syndromes?
D. Hypocellular bone marrow with 25% blasts
36
206. Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase (specific) is usually positive in cells, and alpha naphthyl acetate esterase (nonspecific)is useful for identifying blast cells of lineage
A. Granulocytic; monocytic
37
207. The familial disorder featuring pseudoDohle bodies, thrombocytopenia, and
large platelets is called
A. May-Hegglin anomaly
38
208. Alder-Reilly anomaly is an abnormality of
D. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism
39
209. What is the initial laboratory technique for the diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies?
C. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis
40
210. Which of the following statements about Hodgkin disease is false?
C. Stage IV has the best prognosis.
41
211. The blast cells shown in Color Plate 18 • are CD14 and CD33 positive, Sudan black B positive, specific esterase positive, and nonspecific esterase positive. Which type of acute leukemia is most consistent with the immunophenotyping and cytochemical staining results?
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
42
212. Which type of leukemia is associated with the best prognosis for a cure?
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in children
43
213. What is the key diagnostic test for Hodgkin lymphoma?
B. Lymph node biopsy
44
214. A bone marrow with 90% cellularity and myeloid:erythroid (M:E) ratio of 10:1 is most characteristic of
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
45
215. A 60-year-old patient presents with extreme fatigue. Her blood and bone marrow findings are as follows: severe anemia with a dual RBC population, 3% marrow blasts, and numerous ringed sideroblasts. This information is most consistent with
B. Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
46
216. Which of the following is not a mechanism by which neutropenia may be produced?
C. Recent strenuous exercise
47
217. Which of the following is not a characteristic finding in polycythemia vera?
C. Increased erythropoietin level
48
218. In what disorder is significant basophilia most commonly seen?
D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
49
219. Acute erythroleukemia (FAB type M6) is characterized by increased
C. Marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells
50
220. The blood findings present in Color Plate 20 • are from a patient with complaints of fatigue and severe lower back pain. Which of the following would not be typical of this disease?
D. Normal sedimentation rate
51
221. Myeloid metaplasia refers to
C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
52
222. Which of the following statements about non-Hodgkin types of lymphoma is true?
A. Lymphadenopathy is the most common presenting symptom.
