EKQ Flashcards
(93 cards)
1
Q
Maximum flap extension / extended speed
A
Approach - 202
Full Down - 158
2
Q
Maximum landing gear operating speed
A
Extension - 182
Retraction - 164
3
Q
Air minimum control speed - Propeller feathered
A
Flaps up - 101
Flaps Approach - 98
4
Q
Maximum operating speed
A
Sea level to 24,000ft - 245
24,000 - 35,000ft - 245 to 192 / 0.58M
5
Q
One engine inoperative best rate of climb speed
A
135 kts
6
Q
Max operating alt with yaw damper inop?
A
15,000ft
7
Q
Max cabin diff pressure?
A
6.6 PSI
8
Q
Is the Shadow cleared for RVSM operations?
A
No
9
Q
Max normal cabin alt
A
8,000ft
10
Q
Maximum OAT
A
Sea Level to 25,000ft - ISA +37°C
Above 25,000ft - ISA +31°C
11
Q
Maximum loading (G’s) - Up to 16,500 lb?
A
Clean: -1.21g to +3.01g
Flaps extended: +0g to +2g
12
Q
Maximum loading (G’s) - above 16,500lb up to 17,500 lb?
A
Clean: -1.08g to +2g
Flaps extended: +0g to +2g
13
Q
Max crosswind for take off and landing?
A
20kts including gusts
14
Q
Max tailwind for take off and landing?
A
10 kts
15
Q
Max tailwind for touch and go?
A
5kts
16
Q
Max crosswind for coupled approach?
A
32 kts
17
Q
Aircraft approach category
A
B
18
Q
Single engine approach VCH (below 16,500 lb)
A
Not below 200 ft agl
19
Q
Single engine approach VCH (above 16,500 lb)
A
Not below 300 ft agl
20
Q
Arrester Gear Trampling - Max speed over rigged supported and unsupported cable?
A
Walking speed at 90°
21
Q
How many cycles are the landing gear limited to?
A
one ever five minutes for a total of 6 cycles followed by a cooling down period of 15 mins
22
Q
Autopilot minimum engagement height after take off
A
400 ft agl
23
Q
Autopilot min use height during cruise?
A
1000 ft agl
24
Q
Autopilot min use height during an approach?
A
79 ft agl
25
Autopilot min use height during a steep approach?
160 ft agl
26
Can you depart with the auto feather inop?
No it must be operable for all flights and must be armed for take off, climb, approach and landing.
27
Max ITT on Start?
+1000°C (time limited to 5 seconds)
28
Max ITT at Idle?
+750°C
29
Min Prop RPM at Idle?
1050RPM
30
Oil Temp limits
-40°C to +110°C
31
Min N1 at Idle
64%
32
Limits during Take off
(TRQ, ITT, N1, Prop RPM)
TRQ - 100%
ITT - +850°C
N1 - 104%
Prop RPM - 1700
33
Limits for Max Cont and Cruise Climb
(TRQ, ITT, N1, Prop RPM)
TRQ - 100% (Trq values vary with alt and temp in climb)
ITT - +840°C
N1 - 104%
Prop RPM - 1700
34
Limits for Max Reverse
(ITT, N1, Prop RPM)
ITT - +760°C
N1 - 104%
Prop RPM - 1650
35
Limits for Transient
(TRQ, ITT, N1, Prop RPM, oil PSI)
TRQ - 156% (limit to 20 secs)
ITT - +870°C
N1 - 104%
Prop RPM - 1870
Oil PSI - 200
36
What prop RPM indicates a failure of the primary governor?
RPM above 1700. Flights may continue with a prop overspeed up to 1768 RPM with the torque limited to 96%
37
External power V and A's
28.0V to 28.4V and can generate a minimum of 1000A momentarily and 300A continuously
38
Icing limitations: Minimum ambient temp for operation of the de-icing boots
-40°C
39
Minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing below 16,500 lb
150 Kts
40
Minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing above 16,500 up to 17,500 lb
155 Kts
41
Maximum airspeed for flight with windshield icing
226 Kts
42
Total usable fuel quantity
5192 lb
43
Max fuel in each main fuel tank
1273 lb
44
Max fuel in each aux tank
533 lb
45
Max fuel in each ER tank
790 lb
46
Max wing fuel imbalance
300 lb
47
Min fuel tank quantity for take off
265 lb per side
48
When is Crossfeeding of fuel permitted
When one engine is inop
49
Different Classes of Airspace
Class A - Airways (IFR only)
Class C - Above FL195 (IFR and VFR)
Class D - Aerodrome areas, CTR’s and CTA’s
Class E - Some Scottish Airways
Class G - uncontrolled
50
What class of airspace is a MATZ?
Class G
51
VMC minima for VFR in Class G airspace above 140kts?
5km vis, 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically
52
Difference between QFE AND QNH?
QFE - Pressure at airfield level
QNH - sea level plus airfield elevation
53
CDFA - Why was it introduced?
Continuous Descent Final Approach - To prevent level off, improving fuel efficiency, noise and pilot workload.
54
What is TORA? ASDA? TODA?
TORA- Take off run available - Runway not inc stopway
ASDA - Accelerate Stop Distance Available - TORA plus stopway
TODA - Takeoff Distance Available - TORA plus clear way (area beyond the runway that is clear of obstacles)
55
Crew Duty Time - What is it?
14 Hours
12 hours with no extra training just one landing.
After 9 hours CDT consideration for training plus no asymmetric training.
56
Crew Duty Time - Who can extend and for how long?
Captain - 1 hour
Sqn Cdr - 1 hour
DDH - 1 hour
AOC - 1 hour
57
What is mandatory Crew Rest Period?
12 hours
Plus an additional hour for every extra hour of CDT or every 4 hour time zone change.
58
Min de-ice boot operation temp
-40 degrees C
59
Anti ice off temp
More than 10 degrees C
60
Maximum OAT?
37 degrees
61
Max ramp weight?
17,600 lbs
62
Max ZFW?
13,000lbs
63
Max weight in baggage area?
550 lbs
64
Max fuel imbalance?
300 lbs
65
Starter limits - what are they?
30secs on 5 mins off - 30 secs on 5 mins off - 30 secs on 30 mins off
66
TRQ is time limited between 100% and 102% for how long?
7 mins
67
TRQ max transient is 156% for how long?
20 secs
68
N1 max SOP and N1 limit?
102% for SOP and 104% for limit
69
Max prop RPM is 1700-1730 for how long?
7 mins
70
Max transient RPM is between 1730 and 1870 for how long?
20 secs
71
Oil pressure maximum?
200psi
72
Oil pressure operating range?
90-135 psi
73
Minimum oil temp?
-40 degrees
74
Operating oil temp?
0-110 degrees
75
External power supply volts and amps?
28-28.4 volts, 300 amps continuously, 1000 amps momentarily
76
Refueling tanks order
Mains - Aux - ER
77
Contingency fuel
600 lbs (Break it down)
78
Flare order
Fwd left - Green
Fwd right - green
Aft right - brown/white
Aft left - white
79
Flare safety interlocks
WoW switch
Mass
SDU pin
80
DAS ground safety arcs
25 degrees off the nose - 20 degrees aft of the dispensers for a safety distance of 525 ft
81
Oxy system SOP psi's?
UK - 1000 psi
Transit/operational - 1500 psi
82
When do L/R Ignition on activate?
Engine start switch or with auto ignition on below 17% TRQ
83
When is it normal for L/R No Fuel XFR to activate?
When ignition is activated (delayed 11 +\- 2 secs) or when crossfeeding fuel (the side receiving fuel closes)
84
How does the rudder boost work?
Senses TRQ in both engines, when the difference exceeds 30% the yaw servo activates up to maximum deflection with 80% TRQ difference
85
Describe the flap system
Fowler-type flaps which is controlled by a single electric motor
86
Asymmetrical flap protection - how does it work?
Asymmetrical flap switch system will disable the flap motor when 3-6 degrees of split occurs between both flaps on the same wing. This causes the cam to slip off the switch and will remove power from the flap motor.
87
How does the ATTITUDE AND HEADING REFERENCE SYSTEM (AHRS) work?
It provides pitch, bank and magnetic heading data.
Magnetic heading is provided by separate magnetic sensors in opposite sides of the horizontal stabiliser
Attitude is from two attitude and heading computers (AHC) Each system has an inertial measurement unit. The AHC has a primary and secondary power supply, if the secondary power fails the primary continues to power for 10 mins then fails. If the primary fails it will be instant. No indication maybe a tripped circuit breaker. If failed, AHRS reversionary can be used.
88
Where does the Air Data Computers (ADC’s) get input?
-Ram air pressure from pitot mast
-Static pressure from static ports
-Air temp
Left pitot + left top and right bottom static ports supplies ADC 1 (PFD + MFD)
Right pitot + left bottom and right top static port supplies ADC 2 (Right PFD + ESIS)
89
Why is it important to check the centre bus when the BAT TIE OPEN annunciator is illuminated?
If centre bus voltage is at 0, there is a possible centre bus fault. If electrical power is supplied to the landing gear hydraulic pump motor damage may occur to the electrical system.
90
Why is RVS NOT READY activated?
When the props are not fully forward but the gear is down. Reverse can still be used but the fuel topping governor would limit the amount available.
91
What is the main thing lost when the left gen bus fails?
Flap motor, also ESIS battery charge.
92
Main things lost with right gen bus fail?
Pitch trim, stall warning heat and EGPWS
93
Centre bus controls what main system?
Landing gear motor.
