EMB Recurrent Exam Question Bank Flashcards
1
Q
Maximum Operating Mach for the Aircraft
A
.52 Mach
2
Q
Maximum Operating Airspeed for the aircraft
A
272 Knots
3
Q
Maneuvering Speed
A
200 KIAS
4
Q
Postive Load Limit
A
2.8G
5
Q
VFE for flaps 15 (company)
A
180
6
Q
VFE for flaps 25 (company)
A
145 KIAS
7
Q
VFE for flaps 45 (company)
A
130 KIAS
8
Q
Max Gear Extension (NEW TO FCOM)
A
200 KIAS
9
Q
The Engine Model is
A
PW 118
10
Q
What power setting can the engine not be below during flight
A
FLT IDLE
11
Q
Maximum Oil Pressure During Start
A
70 PSI
12
Q
Maximum Oil temp for start
A
100
13
Q
The minimum oil temp for start
A
-40 C
14
Q
The maximum oil pressure during start
A
70 PSI
15
Q
Takeoff/Max Continuous torque
A
100%
16
Q
Can you use reverse thrust on a wet runway
A
NO (Company)
17
Q
Starter Duty Cycle (First two attempts)
A
30 seconds on 3 minuets off
18
Q
After the 3rd start attempt starter must be allowed to rest for how long?
A
30 Minuets
19
Q
The propeller manufacturer for the aircraft is
A
Hamilton Standard
20
Q
Propeller Diameter is
A
10.5 feet
21
Q
Number of blades on the propeller
A
4
22
Q
The red radial on the oil temp indicator represents how many degrees
A
115
23
Q
The green arc on the oil pressure indicator represents what range
A
55-65 PSID
24
Q
Maximum gallons per wing tank
A
2866
25
Max fuel imbalance
600 lbs
26
What fuel type should not be used regularly
JET B
27
Max ramp weight
26609 LBS
28
Max takeoff weight
26433 LBS
29
Max landing weight
25794 LBS
30
Max zero fuel weight
24030 LBS
31
The manufacturer of the APU
Garret
32
The maximum APU operating temperature below 16,000
ISA+38
33
The maximum allowable EGT during APU start
974 for 10 seconds
34
The maximum steady state operating APU EGT is (Sundstrand we don't have these its a dumb question)
680
35
The minimum external temperature for the braking system
-54
36
Maximum operating altitude with EEC on and engine bleed open
32,000
37
Maximum operating altitude with EEC off and engine bleed closed
20,000
38
Maximum Takeoff and Landing altitude
10,000
39
Takeoff and landing can normally be preformed on dirt runways
False
40
Maximum Runway Slope
+2/-2%
41
The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing
10 knots
42
The maximum cabin differential pressure
7.2 PSI
43
The maximum load on a main gen up to 27,000 feet
400A
44
The maximum battery temp is (NiCad)
70 C
45
Required crew
2
46
The minimum airspeed for operation in icing condition with flaps and gear up is
165 KIAS
47
The length of the airplane
65.62 feet
48
The height of the airplane
20.84 feet
49
The wingspan of the airplane
64.9 feet
50
What FAR is the EMB 120 certified under
FAR part 25
51
What kind of tail does the E120 have
T-Tail
52
Where is the cargo door located on the aircraft
Rear left side fuselage
53
Where are the pilots life jackets stored
under the seats
54
Where is the ELT located on the aircraft
Dorsal Fin
55
How many emergency exits are in the cockpit
2
56
What is the primary source/publication of information for the aircraft
AFM
57
What information does the E120 operating manual primarily contain
Operational Checklists and procedures for the pilot
58
What is the primary electrical power for the E120
28 VDC
59
How many generators are on the aircraft all together
5
60
What ties the two primary groups of DC buses together
The central DC bus
61
Which generator are the emergency buses normally connected with
The right main
62
What converts the DC to AC power on the aircraft
Static Inverter
63
Which inverter normally powers the four AC buses
Inverter number 1
64
How long will the main battery supply essential loads for in the event of loss of all generators
30 Minuets
65
What switch is used to energize the battery contactor closed connecting the battery to the central dc bus
PWR Select/Batt on switch
66
What is the primary purpose of the backup battery
to provide an uninterrupted source of power to the standby artificial horizon
67
What controls each of the generators
GCU's
68
What condition will lead to the aircraft automatically switching to emergency mode
Loss of both main gens
69
The EMB 120 has how many batteries
2
70
What provides power for the emergency lighting system
3 rechargeable battery packs
71
How many external emergency lights are there on each wing
2
72
The E120 has how many landing lights
2
73
The E120 has how many taxi lights
2
74
Taxi light turns off automatically on landing gear retraction
True
75
Where is the MAP located in the cockpit
center instrument pannel
76
How does the the pilot extinguish the multiple alarm panel after the activation of a red map light
Only be alleviating the condition causing the red map light to illuminate
77
What kind of captions does the multiple alarm panel display when activated
Specific and system
78
Where does the MAP get its power
EDC1 and EDC2
79
What color lights normally represent an emergency condition in the cockpit
RED
80
What operates in conjunction with the visual warning system to provide better alerting of faults
Aural warning system
81
What aural alert signals an emergency condition requiring immediate attention/action by the crew
Three chime (triple chime)
82
What noise is produced when the stall warning system is activated
a clacker
83
What does a continuous bell signify
fire warning
84
What is the highest priority level of the warning system
Level 3
85
How many fuel tanks does the airplane have
4
86
What is the primary purpose of the fuel tank venting system
to equalize pressure differentials between tanks and the atmosphere
87
Which fuel system normally feeds the APU
Right wing fuel system
88
What is not a kind of fuel pump on board
low suction pump
89
How many pounds of fuel can the main jet pump provide to the engines per hour
1660
90
Where is the signal point panel located
underside of the right wing
91
What model APU does the EMB 120 have
GTCP 36-150
92
How is the APU cooled
inlet on lower right side of the tail cone
93
How hot will the APU oil get before it illuminates the APU HIGH OIL TEMP light
163
94
What in flight condition will cause automatic APU shutdown
overspeed/overvoltage
95
The APU uses______power to start if not using external ground power
main battery power
96
How many SHP are each of the two engines rated for
1800
97
How many compressors does each engine have
2
98
What directly controls fuel flow into the engine
Hydromechanical metering unit
99
What ratio does the Reduction Gearbox approximately reduce turbine shaft RPM by
15:1
100
What system works to return oil to the engine oil tank
Scavenge system
101
What is the purpose of the exciter unit within the ignition system
generates energy required by the ignition system
102
What is the purpose of the electronic engine control (EEC)
To modify the HMU fuel schedule to improve engine performance
103
What is the pitch adjustment range for the propeller
+79.2 to -15
104
What are the propeller blades made out of primarily
Composite
105
What is the main control unit for the propeller system
PCU
106
There are three fire sensors in each engine nacelle which of the following is not a sensor
Internal engine component
107
How many independent subsystems comprise the aircraft fire system
2
108
What controls the engine/wheel well fire extinguishing system
fire handles
109
The fire sensor tube detects an overheat condition by means of
Expansion of internal gasses in its core
110
In case of fire both fire extinguishing bottles can be discharged to either engine
True
111
Where are the ice and rain protection system controls located
upper right side of the overhead panel
112
Deicing is not provided for which of the following areas
entire wing and empennage leading edge
113
What is used to deice the leading edge of the wing and empennage
Pneumatic Boots
114
What does the anti-ice system use to protect various components
Electrical heating
115
Which bus provides energy for electrical total air temp prob heating
DC Bus 1
116
What is the max altitude at which the system is designed to maintain a sea level cabin altitude
16,800
117
During the use of manual pressurization mode both outflow valves are used to control pressure
False (pneumatic only)
118
Where are the outflow valves located within the aircraft
center of the rear pressure bulkhead
119
At what PSI will the overpressure relief valve activated
7.2
120
At what altitude will the cabin altitude limiter activate in auto mode
13,000
121
What cabin pressurization mode will cause rapid depressurization
DUMP
122
What is the normal cabin climb rate in the detent
650
123
How far below landing field elevation should the pressurization be set
300 (FCOM)
124
What is the backup source of hydraulic power in the event of primary pump failure
Electric pumps
125
The green/left hydraulic system powers 6 different things on the aircraft what is not one of them
Inboard Flaps
126
How is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized
bleed air
127
When would the hydraulic shut off valve be used
During engine fire
128
What pressure do the engine driven and electric HYDRAULIC pumps output
3000
129
How are the brakes actuated in the airplane
Hydraulically
130
To what speed are the nose and main tires rated
165 KIAS
131
Beyond what flap degree will trigger a warning when the gear is not down
17 degrees
132
How does the antiskid system sense wheel speed
wheel speed transducers
133
Which primary flight control is hydraulically actuated
Rudder
134
What causes the takeoff trim warning to trigger
power lever advancement with elevator trim out of the takeoff (green) band
135
The aileron disconnect system can be reconnected in flight after having been used
false
136
How many separate sections comprise the rudder system for the aircraft
2
137
How many degrees apart must flap pairs be to trigger an asymmetry fault
7
138
If WAAS coverage is not available along the planned route what navigational aid availability must be checked
RAIM
139
What mode must the Avionics system/GTN be in to conduct a GPS instrument approach
Terminal Area
140
The avionics system should not be relied upon for TFR and NOTAM information as not all of these warnings may be depicted
TRUE
141
What should be done if the ELEC BAY OVERTEMP light illuminates in the cockpit
turn off redundant and non essential systems
142
What is not a piece of equipment that will be lost in the event of dual inverter failure
Non-Emergency gear actuation
143
What will be indicated if the avionics display is not receiving valid heading input from the AHRS
Red HDG Fail
144
What avionics system does the aircraft possess
Garmin G700 TXi
145
What serves as the FMS for the aircraft
GTN's
146
How many new electrical busses are created In the aircraft as a result of the avionics system
0
147
How long will the installed oxygen system provide oxygen for the crew at dispatch mins.
2 Hours
148
What protects the oxygen system storage cylinder from over pressure conditions
Safety Disc
149
Approximately how many minuets of oxygen remain when CREW OXY comes on the map
35 minuets
